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GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Question and Answers

Question # 4

Why is assurance never considered absolute?

A.

Because it is only applicable to certain industries and sectors

B.

Because the subject matter, assurance providers, information producers, and information consumers are all fallible

C.

Because it does not provide a written guarantee of the accuracy and reliability of the subject matter

D.

Because it is solely based on the opinions and judgments of the assurance provider

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Question # 5

What is the significance of a vision statement in inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers?

A.

It specifies the organization's views on ethical issues facing it.

B.

It describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters, serving as a guidepost for long-term strategic planning and inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers.

C.

It details the organization's sales targets and revenue projections to motivate employees to work hard and meet those goals.

D.

It outlines the organization's succession planning and leadership development.

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Question # 6

What is the purpose of implementing ongoing and periodic review activities?

A.

To eliminate the need for external audits.

B.

To reduce the overall cost of operations.

C.

To gauge the effectiveness, efficiency, responsiveness, and resilience of actions and controls.

D.

To have documentation for use in defending against enforcement or legal actions.

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Question # 7

In the IACM, what is the role of Governance Actions & Controls?

A.

To assist the governing authority in constraining and constraining the organization

B.

To develop and implement innovative business strategies

C.

To engage with stakeholders and address their concerns

D.

To monitor and evaluate the performance of suppliers and vendors

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Question # 8

What is meant by the term "residual risk"?

A.

The risk that is transferred to a third party

B.

The risk that exists in all business activities

C.

The level of risk in the presence of actions & controls

D.

The risk that remains after eliminating all threats

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Question # 9

What are norms?

A.

Norms are customs, rules, or expectations that a group socially reinforces.

B.

Norms are the typical ways that the business operates.

C.

Norms are the regular employees of an organization as opposed to contractors brought in for unusual (not normal) projects.

D.

Norms are the normal or typical financial targets set by the organization.

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Question # 10

What is the relationship between the internal context and the culture of an organization within the LEARN component?

A.

The internal context and culture determine the organization's financial performance.

B.

The internal context and culture describe the capabilities and resources used to meet stakeholder needs.

C.

The internal context and culture define the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels.

D.

The internal context and culture outline the organization's compliance requirements.

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Question # 11

How do values influence the way an organization operates?

A.

They establish the organization’s code of conduct

B.

They set voluntary boundaries for how the organization operates and often explain design decisions about the operating model

C.

They dictate the organization’s pricing strategy and revenue generation

D.

They determine the organization's market share and competitive positioning as part of assessing its financial value to shareholders

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Question # 12

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to enhance stakeholder confidence and perform assessments?

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Security & Continuity

C.

Governance & Oversight

D.

Strategy & Performance

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Question # 13

What is compliance, and how is it measured in an organization?

A.

Compliance is a measure of the degree to which obligations are proven to be addressed, and it is measured by assessing requirements, actions & controls to address requirements, and evidence ofeffectiveness.

B.

Compliance is the ability to avoid legal disputes, and it is measured by the number of lawsuits and enforcement actions filed against the organization.

C.

Compliance is the financial success of the organization, and it is measured by revenue and profit margins.

D.

Compliance is the level of stakeholder satisfaction measured through stakeholder surveys and feedback.

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Question # 14

In the context of GRC, what is the importance of aligning objectives throughout the organization?

A.

It ensures that superior-level objectives cascade to subordinate units and that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization.

B.

It enables the governing authority to only focus on the highest-level objectives that are tied to financial outcomes.

C.

It frees the organization to focus solely on short-term financial performance.

D.

It eliminates the need for excessive communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization.

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Question # 15

What is the difference between "Change the Organization" (CTO) objectives and "Run the Organization" (RTO) objectives?

A.

CTO objectives are based on subjective measures, while RTO objectives are based on objective measures

B.

CTO objectives are only relevant for change management planning, while RTO objectives are relevant for operational managers

C.

CTO objectives focus on producing new value and improving performance, while RTO objectives focus on preserving existing value and maintaining service levels

D.

CTO objectives are determined by the board of directors, while RTO objectives are determined by front-line managers

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Question # 16

What is the primary purpose of interacting with stakeholders in an organization?

A.

To understand expectations, requirements, and perspectives that impact the organization

B.

To gather feedback for marketing campaigns

C.

To negotiate contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

To ensure stakeholders invest in the organization

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Question # 17

What is the difference between prescriptive norms and proscriptive norms?

A.

Prescriptive norms are optional guidelines, while proscriptive norms are mandatory rules.

B.

Prescriptive norms are related to financial performance, while proscriptive norms are related to ethical behavior.

C.

Prescriptive norms are established by government regulations, while proscriptive norms are established by industry standards.

D.

Prescriptive norms encourage behavior the group deems positive, while proscriptive norms discourage behavior the group deems negative.

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Question # 18

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves integrating Critical Disciplines to approach work from multiple dimensions?

A.

Accountable

B.

Visionary

C.

Versatile

D.

Intradisciplinary

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Question # 19

What does resilience measure in the context of the ALIGN component?

A.

Resilience measures the durability and longevity of the organization’s physical assets

B.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to recover from financial losses and setbacks

C.

Resilience measures the ability to withstand stress and the capability to align after stress

D.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to maintain a positive reputation in the face of public scrutiny

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Question # 20

In the IACM, what is the role of Correct/Recover Actions & Controls?

A.

To assess any damage done to the company from non-compliance

B.

To slow down or decrease the impact of unfavorable events and return the organization to its original, stable, or superior state after harm has occurred

C.

To ensure that all employees adhere to the company's code of conduct

D.

To ensure that unfavorable events do not affect the profitability of the organization

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Question # 21

The Critical Discipline skills of Compliance & Ethics help organizations through which of the following?

A.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

B.

Planning for risks, identifying risks, assessing risks, addressing risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and using decision science

C.

Identifying mandatory and voluntary obligations, assessing risk, setting policy, educating the workforce, and shaping ethical culture

D.

Fostering creativity, encouraging innovation, facilitating brainstorming, supporting idea generation, and promoting design thinking

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Question # 22

What is the significance of developing relationships with key individuals and champions within stakeholder groups?

A.

To ensure that stakeholders receive special privileges and benefits

B.

To liaison with people and champions who hold actual power and influence in each stakeholder group

C.

To create a network of stakeholders who can promote the organization’s brand

D.

To gather intelligence on the activities and plans of competing organizations who have some of the same stakeholders

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Question # 23

Why is continual improvement considered a hallmark of a mature and high-performing capability and organization?

A.

Because it increases the organization's market share.

B.

Because it enables the capability and organization to evolve and enhance total performance.

C.

Because it ensures compliance with regulatory requirements.

D.

Because it reduces the likelihood of employee turnover.

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Question # 24

How are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), Key Risk Indicators (KRIs), and Key Compliance Indicators (KCIs) used?

A.

KPIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective; KRIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about risk related to an objective; KCIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about compliance related to an objective

B.

KPIs are financial metrics, KRIs are operational metrics, and KCIs are customer-related metrics, all of which are used to determine executive bonuses

C.

KPIs are long-term goals, KRIs are short-term goals, and KCIs are intermediate goals, all of which are used to determine what decision-making criteria is required

D.

KPIs are used to measure the efficiency of business processes; KRIs are used to assess the risk assessment processes; and KCIs are used to evaluate the impact of changes, regulations and other obligations

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Question # 25

What are the two measures used to estimate the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

A.

Likelihood and impact

B.

Probability and consequence

C.

Certainty and effect

D.

Accuracy and precision

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Question # 26

What role do mission, vision, and values play in the ALIGN component?

A.

They specify the processes as well as the technology and tools used in the alignment process.

B.

They determine the allocation of financial resources within the organization.

C.

They outline the legal and regulatory requirements that the organization must satisfy and define how they relate to the business objectives.

D.

They provide clear direction and decision-making criteria and should be well-defined and consistently communicated throughout the organization.

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Question # 27

Which design option is characterized by implementing actions that govern and manage the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation according to its nature?

A.

Control

B.

Share

C.

Accept

D.

Avoid

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Question # 28

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to eventually result in benefit?

A.

Venture

B.

Objective

C.

Prospect

D.

Target outcome

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Question # 29

What is the significance of “assurance objectivity” in providing a higher level of assurance?

A.

It is only important for high levels of assurance in financial audits

B.

It is not relevant to the level of assurance and does not affect the assurance process

C.

It contributes to a higher level of assurance by enhancing impartiality and credibility

D.

It is determined by the governing authority and enhances the level of assurance

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Question # 30

What are some examples of non-economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

A.

Appreciation, status, professional development

B.

Stock options, salary increases, bonuses, and profit-sharing

C.

Gift baskets, extra vacation time, and employee competitions

D.

Health insurance, retirement plans, paid time off, and sick leave

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Question # 31

Culture is difficult or even impossible to "design" because:

A.

People are not motivated to change.

B.

It is an emergent property.

C.

It takes too long.

D.

There are too many subcultures.

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Question # 32

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to result in harm?

A.

Hazard

B.

Prospect

C.

Opportunity

D.

Obstacle

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Question # 33

Which "most important stakeholder" judges whether an organization is producing, protecting, or destroying value?

A.

Customer

B.

Risk Manager

C.

Board

D.

Ethics Department

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Question # 34

What is the purpose of implementing incentives in an organization?

A.

To reduce the overall cost of employee compensation and benefits.

B.

To reduce the need for performance reviews and evaluations.

C.

To discourage employees from seeking employment opportunities elsewhere.

D.

To encourage the right proactive, detective, and responsive conduct in the workforce and extended enterprise.

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Question # 35

In the context of the GRC Capability Model, what is culture defined as?

A.

A formal structure that is established by the leadership of an organization to ensure compliance with requirements, whether they are mandatory or voluntary obligations of the organization.

B.

An emergent property of a group of people caused by the interaction of individual beliefs, values, mindsets, and behaviors, and demonstrated by observable norms and articulated opinions.

C.

A set of written rules and guidelines that dictate the behavior of individuals within an organization.

D.

A collection of artifacts, symbols, and rituals that represent the history of an organization.

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Question # 36

What is the role of an assurance provider in the assurance process?

A.

They conduct activities to evaluate claims and statements about subject matter to enhance confidence.

B.

They oversee the implementation of the organization's compliance program and policies.

C.

They conduct financial audits and issue audit reports.

D.

They develop the organization’s risk management strategy and framework.

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Question # 37

What is the significance of assurance controls in the PERFORM component?

A.

To promote transparency and accountability in the organization's decision-making processes.

B.

To ensure that the organization's financial statements are accurate and reliable.

C.

To provide sufficient information to assurance providers when management and governance actions and controls are not enough.

D.

To establish a clear chain of command and reporting structure within the organization.

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Question # 38

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

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Question # 39

GRC Professionals, known as "Protectors," work to achieve a specific goal referred to as Principled Performance. Which of the following best describes Principled Performance®?

A.

To reliably achieve objectives, address uncertainty, and act with integrity – to produce and preserve value simultaneously.

B.

To maximize profits and minimize losses.

C.

To ensure compliance with all legal requirements.

D.

To eliminate all risks and uncertainties.

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Question # 40

The difference between the current skill level and the target skill level is referred to as?

A.

Learning Objective

B.

Educational Needs

C.

Skill Gap

D.

Skill Set

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Question # 41

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of assurance in an organization?

A.

Allocating financial resources and evaluating their use to manage the organization’s budget better.

B.

Providing the governing body with opinions on how well its objectives are being met based on expertise and experience.

C.

Designing and monitoring the organization’s information technology systems to be accurate andreliable so management can be assured of meeting established objectives.

D.

Objectively and competently evaluating subject matter to provide justified conclusions and confidence.

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Question # 42

In the IACM, what is the role of Compound/Accelerate Actions & Controls?

A.

To identify and address any potential conflicts of interest that may compound or accelerate enforcement actions against the company.

B.

To enhance the brand image and reputation of the organization.

C.

To accelerate and compound the impact of favorable events to increase benefits and promote the future occurrence.

D.

To accelerate and compound the benefits of reducing costs.

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Question # 43

What is the significance of assigning a single owner to each objective?

A.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures clear accountability and authority to ensure successful achievement

B.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures that the owner receives recognition and rewards for achieving the objective

C.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to delegate tasks to other employees to achieve the objective

D.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to make unilateral decisions without consulting other stakeholders, which is necessary to keep plans for achieving the objective on track

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Question # 44

What does it mean for an organization to "reliably achieve objectives" as part of Principled Performance?

A.

It means achieving short-term goals regardless of the impact on long-term success.

B.

It means having measurable outcomes.

C.

It means achieving mission, vision, and balanced objectives thoughtfully, consistently, dependably, and transparently.

D.

It means always achieving profitability targets and maximizing shareholder value.

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Question # 45

In the context of Total Performance, what does it mean for an education program to be"Lean"?

A.

The education program can quickly respond to changes and promptly detect and correct errors

B.

The education program is formally documented and consistently managed to be efficient

C.

The education program is resistant to disruptions and has backup plans that do not add an expense or need more resources than the original plans

D.

The education program evaluates the cost of educating the workforce, assessing whether the cost per worker is going up or down, and comparing the cost to organizations of similar size

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Question # 46

What is the advantage of using technology-based inquiry for discovering events?

A.

This inquiry prevents the need for employee surveys.

B.

This inquiry eliminates the need to analyze information.

C.

This inquiry focuses on unfavorable events.

D.

This inquiry often provides information sooner than other methods.

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Question # 47

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of governance in an organization?

A.

Developing marketing strategies and driving sales growth to meet objectives established by the governing body

B.

Indirectly guiding, controlling, and evaluating an entity by constraining and conscribing resources

C.

Conducting audits and providing assurance on the effectiveness of controls

D.

Implementing operational processes and overseeing day-to-day activities

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Question # 48

How do detective actions and controls contribute to managing performance?

A.

They provide investigative capabilities in every part of the organization.

B.

They detect and correct unfavorable events, which will lead to an increase in favorable events.

C.

They indicate progress toward objectives by detecting events that help or hinder performance.

D.

They focus on promoting favorable events, which will lead to the reduction of unfavorable events.

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Question # 49

How are opportunities, obstacles, and obligations prioritized for further analysis?

A.

Based on identification criteria and the priority of associated objectives

B.

Based on the business units they relate to and how important those units are to the achievement of objectives

C.

Based on the items identified as top priorities at the enterprise level taking higher priority than any unit-based items

D.

Based on the preferences of the executive management team

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Question # 50

What type of activities are typically included in post-assessments?

A.

Financial audits and budget reviews.

B.

Employee performance evaluations and appraisals.

C.

Market research and customer surveys.

D.

Lessons learned, root-cause analysis, after-action reviews, and other evaluative activities.

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Question # 51

Which of the following is most often responsible for balancing the competing needs of stakeholders and guiding, constraining, and conscribing the organization to achieve objectives reliably, address uncertainty, and act with integrity to meet these needs?

A.

A risk manager

B.

A general counsel

C.

A compliance unit

D.

A governing board

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Question # 52

What are the key measurement criteria for the REVIEW component?

A.

Quality, Safety, Compliance, and Sustainability.

B.

Effective, Efficient, Agile, and Resilient.

C.

Leadership, Collaboration, Innovation, and Diversity.

D.

Revenue, Profit, Market Share, and Growth.

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Question # 53

What are the two measures used to estimate the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

A.

Accuracy and precision

B.

Likelihood and impact

C.

Probability and consequence

D.

Certainty and effect

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Question # 54

Which aspect of culture includes how the organization objectively examines and judges the effectiveness, efficiency, responsiveness, and resilience of critical activities and outcomes?

A.

Management culture

B.

Performance culture

C.

Governance culture

D.

Assurance culture

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Question # 55

Can the Second Line provide assurance over First Line activities, and under what conditions?

A.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it is focused on strategic planning and long-term goals, not on assurance activities

B.

Yes, the Second Line can provide assurance over First Line activities regardless of the design or performance of the activities because it has a higher level of authority and the necessary skills

C.

Yes, the Second Line may provide assurance over First Line activities so long as the activities under examination were not designed or performed by the Second Line, and the Second Line personnel have the required degree of Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence relative to the subject matter and desired Level of Assurance

D.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it lacks the necessary authority and jurisdiction

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Question # 56

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

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Question # 57

When should anonymity be afforded to stakeholders who raise issues through notification pathways?

A.

Anonymity should never be afforded, as it encourages false reporting.

B.

Anonymity should be afforded where legally permitted or required.

C.

Anonymity should only be afforded to stakeholders who are not employees of the organization.

D.

Anonymity should be afforded only when the issue raised is of minor importance.

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Question # 58

What is the role of suitable criteria in the assurance process?

A.

These criteria are performance metrics used to assess the efficiency of the organization's operations.

B.

These criteria are standards for the ethical conduct of employees and stakeholders.

C.

These criteria are guidelines for the allocation of resources within the organization.

D.

These criteria are benchmarks used to evaluate subject matter that yield consistent and meaningful results.

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Question # 59

Which category of actions and controls in the IACM includes human factors such as structure, accountability, education, and enablement?

A.

Technology

B.

Policy

C.

Information

D.

People

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Question # 60

What is the difference between an organization that is being "Good" and being a "Principled Performer"?

A.

An organization must measure up to the Principled Performance definition to be a "Principled Performer," regardless of whether its objectives are subjectively perceived or preferred as "Good" or "Bad."

B.

A "Principled Performer" always pursues objectives that are considered "Good" by society.

C.

There is no difference: "Good" and a "Principled Performer" are synonymous.

D.

A "Principled Performer" is an organization that donates a significant portion of its profits to charity.

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Question # 61

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the occurrence of an event?

A.

Impact

B.

Consequence

C.

Cause

D.

Likelihood

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Question # 62

A self-legitimizing person, group, or other entity with a direct or indirect invested interest in an organization’s actions because of the perceived or actual impact is referred to as?

A.

Shareholder

B.

Stakeholder

C.

Executive Team

D.

Customer

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Question # 63

Who are key external stakeholders that may significantly influence an organization?

A.

Distributors, resellers, and franchisees.

B.

Competitors, employees, and board members.

C.

Marketing agencies, legal advisors, and auditors.

D.

Customers, shareholders, creditors and lenders, government, and non-governmental organizations.

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