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156-315.81 Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which web services protocol is used to communicate to the Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Web API?

A.

SOAP

B.

REST

C.

XLANG

D.

XML-RPC

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Question # 5

The installation of a package via SmartConsole CANNOT be applied on

A.

A single Security Gateway

B.

A full Security Cluster (All Cluster Members included)

C.

Multiple Security Gateways and/or Clusters

D.

R81.20 Security Management Server

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Question # 6

Which of the following is NOT supported by CPUSE?

A.

Automatic download of full installation and upgrade packages

B.

Automatic download of hotfixes

C.

Installation of private hotfixes

D.

Offline installations

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Question # 7

What is the recommended configuration when the customer requires SmartLog indexing for 14 days and SmartEvent to keep events for 180 days?

A.

Use Multi-Domain Management Server.

B.

Choose different setting for log storage and SmartEvent db

C.

Install Management and SmartEvent on different machines.

D.

it is not possible.

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Question # 8

Which Check Point process provides logging services, such as forwarding logs from Gateway to Log Server, providing Log Export API (LEA) & Event Logging API (EL-A) services.

A.

DASSERVICE

B.

FWD

C.

CPVIEWD

D.

CPD

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Question # 9

Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

A.

Client machine IP address.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

C.

Log server IP address.

D.

Gateway proxy IP address.

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Question # 10

Alice & Bob are going to use Management Data Plane Separation and therefore the routing separation needs to be enabled. Which of the following command is true for enabling the Management Data Plane Separation (MDPS):

A.

set mdps split brain on

B.

set mdps split plane on

C.

set mdps mgmt plane on

D.

set mdps data plane off

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Question # 11

After some changes in the firewall policy you run into some issues. You want to test if the policy from two weeks ago have the same issue. You don't want to lose the changes from the last weeks. What is the best way to do it?

A.

Use the Gaia WebUI to take a backup of the Gateway. In SmartConsole under Security Policies go to the Installation History view of the Gateway, select the policy version

from two weeks ago and press the 'Install specific version' button

B.

Use the Gaia WebUI to take a snapshot of management. In the In SmartConsole under Manage & Settlings go to Sessions -> Revisions and select the revision from two

weeks ago. Run the action 'Revert to this revision...' Restore the management snapshot.

C.

In SmartConsole under Manage & Settings go to Sessions -> Revisions and select the revision from two weeks ago. Run the action 'Revert to this revision...'.

D.

In SmartConsole under Security Policies go to the Installation History view of the Gateway, select the policy version from two weeks ago and press the 'Install specific

version' button

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Question # 12

Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

A.

Source Address

B.

Destination Address

C.

TCP Acknowledgment Number

D.

Source Port

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Question # 13

You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the cause?

A.

cphaprob –f register

B.

cphaprob –d –s report

C.

cpstat –f all

D.

cphaprob –a list

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Question # 14

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

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Question # 15

What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

A.

When a box up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

B.

When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

C.

When an Interface fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

D.

When a box fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

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Question # 16

Which Remote Access Client does not provide an Office-Mode Address?

A.

SecuRemote

B.

Endpoint Security Suite

C.

Endpoint Security VPN

D.

Check Point Mobile

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Question # 17

Which Check Point software blades could be enforced under Threat Prevention profile using Check Point R81.20 SmartConsole application?

A.

IPS, Anti-Bot, URL Filtering, Application Control, Threat Emulation.

B.

Firewall, IPS, Threat Emulation, Application Control.

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation, Threat Extraction.

D.

Firewall, IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation.

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Question # 18

You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your gateway, which command would you use?

A.

cpinfo –h all

B.

cpinfo –o hotfix

C.

cpinfo –l hotfix

D.

cpinfo –y all

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Question # 19

Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI?

A.

mgmt_cli add-host “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format txt

B.

mgmt_cli add host name “Server_1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

C.

mgmt_cli add object-host “Server_1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

D.

mgmt._cli add object “Server-1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

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Question # 20

Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Question # 21

Which statement is WRONG regarding the usage of the Central Deployment in SmartConsole?

A.

You can install Hotfixes with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole

B.

You can install Jumbo Hotfix accumulators with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole.

C.

Only be installed Hotfixes can with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole

D.

You can upgrade your cluster without user intervention with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole from R80.40 to R81.20.

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Question # 22

What traffic does the Anti-bot feature block?

A.

Command and Control traffic from hosts that have been identified as infected

B.

Command and Control traffic to servers with reputation for hosting malware

C.

Network traffic that is directed to unknown or malicious servers

D.

Network traffic to hosts that have been identified as infected

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Question # 23

Customer’s R81 management server needs to be upgraded to R81.20. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

A.

Export R81 configuration, clean install R81.20 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE offline upgrade

C.

CPUSE online upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

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Question # 24

UserCheck objects in the Application Control and URL Filtering rules allow the gateway to communicate with the users. Which action is not supported in UserCheck objects?

A.

Ask

B.

Drop

C.

Inform

D.

Reject

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Question # 25

According to out of the box SmartEvent policy, which blade will automatically be correlated into events?

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

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Question # 26

After having saved the Clish Configuration with the "save configuration config.txt" command, where can you find the config.txt file?

A.

You will find it in the home directory of your user account (e.g. /home/admin/)

B.

You can locate the file via SmartConsole > Command Line.

C.

You have to launch the WebUI and go to "Config" -> "Export Config File" and specifiy the destination directory of your local file system.

D.

You cannot locate the file in the file system since Clish does not have any access to the bash file system

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Question # 27

SmartConsole R81 x requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent.

A.

19009, 19090 & 443

B.

19009, 19004 & 18190

C.

18190 & 443

D.

19009, 18190 & 443

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Question # 28

Why would an administrator see the message below?

A.

A new Policy Package created on both the Management and Gateway will be deleted and must be backed up first before proceeding.

B.

A new Policy Package created on the Management is going to be installed to the existing Gateway.

C.

A new Policy Package created on the Gateway is going to be installed on the existing Management.

D.

A new Policy Package created on the Gateway and transferred to the Management will be overwritten by the Policy Package currently on the Gateway but can be restored from a periodic backup on the Gateway.

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Question # 29

If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsive, which if these steps should NOT be performed:

A.

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

B.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

C.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

D.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

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Question # 30

If SecureXL is disabled which path is used to process traffic?

A.

Passive path

B.

Medium path

C.

Firewall path

D.

Accelerated path

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Question # 31

Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness Tot when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

A.

Endpoint identity Agent and Browser Based Authentication

B.

AD Query

C.

Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent

D.

RADIUS and Account Logon

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Question # 32

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

A.

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

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Question # 33

When simulating a problem on ClusterXL cluster with cphaprob –d STOP -s problem -t 0 register, to initiate a failover on an active cluster member, what command allows you remove the problematic state?

A.

cphaprob –d STOP unregister

B.

cphaprob STOP unregister

C.

cphaprob unregister STOP

D.

cphaprob –d unregister STOP

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Question # 34

What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

A.

fw ctl get int cpsead_stat

B.

cpstat cpsead

C.

fw ctl stat cpsemd

D.

cp_conf get_stat cpsemd

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Question # 35

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

A.

cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

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Question # 36

Please choose correct command to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

A.

host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt: add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt: add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

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Question # 37

Fill in the blank: A ________ VPN deployment is used to provide remote users with secure access to internal corporate resources by authenticating the user through an internet browser.

A.

Clientless remote access

B.

Clientless direct access

C.

Client-based remote access

D.

Direct access

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Question # 38

The WebUI offers several methods for downloading hotfixes via CPUSE except:

A.

Automatic

B.

Force override

C.

Manually

D.

Scheduled

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Question # 39

The Check Point history feature in R81 provides the following:

A.

View install changes and install specific version

B.

View install changes

C.

Policy Installation Date, view install changes and install specific version

D.

Policy Installation Date only

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Question # 40

What feature allows Remote-access VPN users to access resources across a site-to-site VPN tunnel?

A.

Specific VPN Communities

B.

Remote Access VPN Switch

C.

Mobile Access VPN Domain

D.

Network Access VPN Domain

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Question # 41

Joey want to configure NTP on R81 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

B.

http:// :443

C.

https:// :10000

D.

https:// :4434

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Question # 42

What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?

A.

Access Role

B.

Group Template

C.

SmartDirectory Group

D.

User Group

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Question # 43

Which is the command to identify the NIC driver before considering about the employment of the Multi-Queue feature?

A.

ip show int eth0

B.

show interface eth0 mq

C.

ifconfig -i eth0 verbose

D.

ethtool -i eth0

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Question # 44

Which command will reset the kernel debug options to default settings?

A.

fw ctl dbg -a 0

B.

fw ctl dbg resetall

C.

fw ctl debug 0

D.

fw ctl debug set 0

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Question # 45

In R81.20 a new feature dynamic log distribution was added. What is this for?

  • Configure the Security Gateway to distribute logs between multiple active Log Servers to support a better rate of Logs and Log Servers redundancy

  • In case of a Management High Availability the management server stores the logs dynamically on the member with the most available disk space in /var/log

  • Synchronize the log between the primary and secondary management server in case of a Management High Availability

A.

To save disk space in case of a firewall cluster local logs are distributed between the cluster members.

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Question # 46

Which component is NOT required to communicate with the Web Services API?

A.

API key

B.

session ID token

C.

content-type

D.

Request payload

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Question # 47

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

A.

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

B.

PKI Certificates and DynamicID OTP

C.

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

D.

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

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Question # 48

Which command lists firewall chain?

A.

fwctl chain

B.

fw list chain

C.

fw chain module

D.

fw tab -t chainmod

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Question # 49

What is false regarding prerequisites for the Central Deployment usage?

A.

The administrator must have write permission on SmartUpdate

B.

Security Gateway must have the latest CPUSE Deployment Agent

C.

No need to establish SIC between gateways and the management server, since the CDT tool will take care about SIC automatically.

D.

The Security Gateway must have a policy installed

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Question # 50

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

A.

Monitoring the status of processes.

B.

Sending and receiving logs.

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server.

D.

Generating and modifying certificates.

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Question # 51

Hit Count is a feature to track the number of connections that each rule matches, which one is not benefit of Hit Count.

A.

Better understand the behavior of the Access Control Policy

B.

Improve Firewall performance - You can move a rule that has hot count to a higher position in the Rule Base

C.

Automatically rearrange Access Control Policy based on Hit Count Analysis

D.

Analyze a Rule Base - You can delete rules that have no matching connections

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Question # 52

What does the Log "Views" tab show when SmartEvent is Correlating events?

A.

A list of common reports

B.

Reports for customization

C.

Top events with charts and graphs

D.

Details of a selected logs

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Question # 53

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

A.

SmartConsole

B.

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C.

Security Management Server

D.

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

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Question # 54

Which command shows the current Security Gateway Firewall chain?

A.

show current chain

B.

show firewall chain

C.

fw ctl chain

D.

fw ctl firewall-chain

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Question # 55

Which Check Point software blade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

A.

Application Control

B.

Firewall

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

URL Filtering

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Question # 56

Which TCP port does the CPM process listen on?

A.

18191

B.

18190

C.

8983

D.

19009

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Question # 57

Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to?

A.

50%

B.

75%

C.

80%

D.

15%

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Question # 58

R81.20 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Versions R75 and higher

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Question # 59

What SmartEvent component creates events?

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

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Question # 60

What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?

A.

The Database revisions will not be synchronized between the management servers

B.

SmartConsole must be closed prior to synchronized changes in the objects database

C.

If you wanted to use Full Connectivity Upgrade, you must change the Implied Rules to allow FW1_cpredundant to pass before the Firewall Control Connections.

D.

For Management Server synchronization, only External Virtual Switches are supported. So, if you wanted to employ Virtual Routers instead, you have to reconsider your design.

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Question # 61

What is UserCheck?

A.

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

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Question # 62

The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

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Question # 63

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .

A.

User Directory

B.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

C.

Captive Portal

D.

UserCheck

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Question # 64

What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

A.

Lagging

B.

Synchronized

C.

Never been synchronized

D.

Collision

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Question # 65

You can access the ThreatCloud Repository from:

A.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Application Wiki

B.

Threat Prevention and Threat Tools

C.

Threat Wiki and Check Point Website

D.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Threat Prevention

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Question # 66

What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?

A.

The VMACs used in a Security Gateway cluster

B.

The involved firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound packet chain

C.

Overview over SecureXL templated connections

D.

Network interfaces and core distribution used for CoreXL

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Question # 67

One of major features in R81 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.

Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A.

A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

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Question # 68

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob-a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

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Question # 69

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

A.

ThreatWiki

B.

Whitelist Files

C.

AppWiki

D.

IPS Protections

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Question # 70

In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

A.

Stateful Packets

B.

No Match

C.

All Packets

D.

Stateless Packets

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Question # 71

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R81 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.

Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)

A.

remove database lock

B.

The database feature has one command lock database override.

C.

override database lock

D.

The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

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Question # 72

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

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Question # 73

What is the recommended number of physical network interfaces in a Mobile Access cluster deployment?

A.

4 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the internet, a third interface for synchronization, a fourth interface leading to the Security Management Server.

B.

3 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the Internet, a third interface for synchronization.

C.

1 Interface – an interface leading to the organization and the Internet, and configure for synchronization.

D.

2 Interfaces – a data interface leading to the organization and the Internet, a second interface for synchronization.

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Question # 74

You want to verify if your management server is ready to upgrade to R81.20. What tool could you use in this process?

A.

migrate export

B.

upgrade_tools verify

C.

pre_upgrade_verifier

D.

migrate import

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Question # 75

Fill in the blank: The R81 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows then as prioritized security events.

A.

SmartMonitor

B.

SmartView Web Application

C.

SmartReporter

D.

SmartTracker

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Question # 76

Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace both offer secured connection for remote users who are using their mobile devices. However, there are differences between the two.

Which of the following statements correctly identify each product's capabilities?

A.

Workspace supports ios operating system, Android, and WP8, whereas Connect supports ios operating system and Android only

B.

For compliance/host checking, Workspace offers the MDM cooperative enforcement, whereas Connect offers both jailbreak/root detection and MDM cooperative enforcement.

C.

For credential protection, Connect uses One-time Password login support and has no SSO support, whereas Workspace offers both One-Time Password and certain SSO login support.

D.

Workspace can support any application, whereas Connect has a limited number of application types which it will support.

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Question # 77

Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.

A.

WMI

B.

Eventvwr

C.

XML

D.

Services.msc

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Question # 78

You have a Gateway is running with 2 cores. You plan to add a second gateway to build a cluster and used a device with 4 cores.

How many cores can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device?

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

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Question # 79

Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

A.

Application Dictionary

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application Library

D.

CPApp

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Question # 80

When SecureXL is enabled, all packets should be accelerated, except packets that match the following conditions:

A.

All UDP packets

B.

All IPv6 Traffic

C.

All packets that match a rule whose source or destination is the Outside Corporate Network

D.

CIFS packets

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Question # 81

Which command would you use to set the network interfaces’ affinity in Manual mode?

A.

sim affinity -m

B.

sim affinity -l

C.

sim affinity -a

D.

sim affinity -s

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Question # 82

What is the valid range for VRID value in VRRP configuration?

A.

1 - 254

B.

1 - 255

C.

0 - 254

D.

0 - 255

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Question # 83

What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

A.

Execute an automated script to perform common tasks

B.

Create a customized GUI Client for manipulating the objects database

C.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point solution

D.

Integrate Check Point products with 3rd party solution

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Question # 84

Which file gives you a list of all security servers in use, including port number?

A.

$FWDIR/conf/conf.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/servers.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/serversd.conf

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Question # 85

You notice that your firewall is under a DDoS attack and would like to enable the Penalty Box feature, which command you use?

A.

sim erdos –e 1

B.

sim erdos – m 1

C.

sim erdos –v 1

D.

sim erdos –x 1

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Question # 86

What are the types of Software Containers?

A.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.

Three; Security Gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

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Question # 87

Which of the following is NOT an alert option?

A.

SNMP

B.

High alert

C.

Mail

D.

User defined alert

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Question # 88

What is the Implicit Clean-up Rule?

A.

A setting is defined in the Global Properties for all policies.

B.

A setting that is configured per Policy Layer.

C.

Another name for the Clean-up Rule.

D.

Automatically created when the Clean-up Rule is defined.

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Question # 89

What is the responsibility of SOLR process on R81.20 management server?

A.

Validating all data before it’s written into the database

B.

It generates indexes of data written to the database

C.

Communication between SmartConsole applications and the Security Management Server

D.

Writing all information into the database

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Question # 90

What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?

A.

6 GB

B.

8GB with Gaia in 64-bit mode

C.

4 GB

D.

It depends on the number of software blades enabled

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Question # 91

Tom has connected to the R81 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.

What will happen to the changes already made?

A.

Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear to cache, and restore changes.

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Question # 92

Which file contains the host address to be published, the MAC address that needs to be associated with the IP Address, and the unique IP of the interface that responds to ARP request?

A.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

B.

/var/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

C.

$CPDIR/conf/local.arp

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp

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Question # 93

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

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Question # 94

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway.

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem.

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction.

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

Full Access
Question # 95

Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

A.

fwm

B.

cpmd

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Question # 96

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management-interface and default gateway are incorrect.

Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0set static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

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Question # 97

Which statement is most correct regarding about “CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher”?

A.

The CoreXL FW instanxces assignment mechanism is based on Source MAC addresses, Destination MAC addresses

B.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on the utilization of CPU cores

C.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on IP Protocol type

D.

The CoreXl FW instances assignment mechanism is based on Source IP addresses, Destination IP addresses, and the IP ‘Protocol’ type

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Question # 98

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSEC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

Full Access
Question # 99

Fill in the blank. Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is ________ .

A.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

B.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

C.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

D.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

Full Access
Question # 100

Which blades and or features are not supported in R81?

A.

SmartEvent Maps

B.

SmartEvent

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

SmartConsole Toolbars

Full Access
Question # 101

Pamela is Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Instance Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances using GAiA/R81.20. Company’s Developer Team is having random access issue to newly deployed Application Server in DMZ’s Application Server Farm Tier and blames DMZ Security Gateway as root cause. The ticket has been created and issue is at Pamela’s desk for an investigation. Pamela decides to use Check Point’s Packet Analyzer Tool-fw monitor to iron out the issue during approved Maintenance window.

What do you recommend as the best suggestion for Pamela to make sure she successfully captures entire traffic in context of Firewall and problematic traffic?

A.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security gateway and if it’s turned ON. She should turn OFF SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

B.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security Gateway and if it’s turned OFF. She should turn ON SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

C.

Pamela should use tcpdump over fw monitor tool as tcpdump works at OS-level and captures entire traffic.

D.

Pamela should use snoop over fw monitor tool as snoop works at NIC driver level and captures entire traffic.

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Question # 102

What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R81.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solution?

A.

Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

B.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

C.

Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

D.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

Full Access
Question # 103

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

Full Access
Question # 104

What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

A.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

B.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

C.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

D.

Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware

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Question # 105

In ClusterXL Load Sharing Multicast Mode:

A.

only the primary member received packets sent to the cluster IP address

B.

only the secondary member receives packets sent to the cluster IP address

C.

packets sent to the cluster IP address are distributed equally between all members of the cluster

D.

every member of the cluster received all of the packets sent to the cluster IP address

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Question # 106

Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her company’s production Firewall cluster Dallas_GW. She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment.

Which details she need to fill in System Restore window before she can click OK button and test the backup?

A.

Server, SCP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

B.

Server, TFTP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

D.

Server, Protocol, username Password, Path, Comment, Member

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Question # 107

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust.

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust.

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

Full Access
Question # 108

CoreXL is supported when one of the following features is enabled:

A.

Route-based VPN

B.

IPS

C.

IPv6

D.

Overlapping NAT

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Question # 109

During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?

A.

Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation

B.

Host having a Critical event found by IPS

C.

Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus

D.

Host having a Critical event found by Anti-Bot

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Question # 110

NAT rules are prioritized in which order?

1. Automatic Static NAT

2. Automatic Hide NAT

3. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

4. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

A.

1, 2, 3, 4

B.

1, 4, 2, 3

C.

3, 1, 2, 4

D.

4, 3, 1, 2

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Question # 111

Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

A.

cphaprob interface

B.

cphaprob –I interface

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

cphaprob stat

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Question # 112

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

A.

fw conn all

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

show all connections

D.

show connections

Full Access
Question # 113

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, run the following command in Expert mode then reboot:

A.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

B.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue on

C.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue enable

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

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Question # 114

Which statement is true regarding redundancy?

A.

System Administrators know when their cluster has failed over and can also see why it failed over by using the cphaprob –f if command.

B.

ClusterXL offers three different Load Sharing solutions: Unicast, Broadcast, and Multicast.

C.

Machines in a ClusterXL High Availability configuration must be synchronized.

D.

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia and available to all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized environments.

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Question # 115

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

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Question # 116

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.

A.

TCP port 19009

B.

TCP Port 18190

C.

TCP Port 18191

D.

TCP Port 18209

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Question # 117

The Firewall Administrator is required to create 100 new host objects with different IP addresses. What API command can he use in the script to achieve the requirement?

A.

add host name ip-address

B.

add hostname ip-address

C.

set host name ip-address

D.

set hostname ip-address

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Question # 118

GAIA greatly increases operational efficiency by offering an advanced and intuitive software update agent, commonly referred to as the:

A.

Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

Check Point Software Update Agent

C.

Check Point Remote Installation Daemon (CPRID)

D.

Check Point Software Update Daemon

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Question # 119

Which of the following is NOT a method used by identity Awareness for acquiring identity?

A.

Remote Access

B.

Active Directory Query

C.

Cloud IdP (Identity Provider)

D.

RADIUS

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Question # 120

Which one is not a valid Package Option In the Web GUI for CPUSE?

A.

Clean Install

B.

Export Package

C.

Upgrade

D.

Database Conversion to R81.20 only

Full Access
Question # 121

Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ________ .

A.

User groups

B.

Users using UserCheck

C.

Individual users

D.

All users in the database

Full Access
Question # 122

Which is the lowest gateway version supported by R81.20 management server?

A.

R77.30

B.

R80.20

C.

R77

D.

R65

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Question # 123

Which 3 types of tracking are available for Threat Prevention Policy?

A.

SMS Alert, Log, SNMP alert

B.

Syslog, None, User-defined scripts

C.

None, Log, Syslog

D.

Alert, SNMP trap, Mail

Full Access
Question # 124

Mobile Access Gateway can be configured as a reverse proxy for Internal Web Applications Reverse proxy users browse to a URL that is resolved to the Security Gateway IP address. Which of the following Check Point command is true for enabling the Reverse Proxy:

A.

ReverseCLIProxy

B.

ReverseProxyCLI

C.

ReverseProxy

D.

ProxyReverseCLI

Full Access
Question # 125

What is the purpose of extended master key extension/session hash?

A.

UDP VOIP protocol extension

B.

In case of TLS1.x it is a prevention of a Man-in-the-Middle attack/disclosure of the client-server communication

C.

Special TCP handshaking extension

D.

Supplement DLP data watermark

Full Access
Question # 126

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R81.x?

A.

Identity Awareness Web Services

B.

OPSEC SDK

C.

Mobile Access

D.

Management

Full Access
Question # 127

As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?

A.

That is used to deploy the mobile device as a generator of one-time passwords for authenticating to an RSA Authentication Manager.

B.

Fill Layer4 VPN –SSL VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

C.

Full Layer3 VPN –IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

D.

You can make sure that documents are sent to the intended recipients only.

Full Access
Question # 128

Which directory below contains log files?

A.

/opt/CPSmartlog-R81/log

B.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/log

C.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/fw1/log

D.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/log

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Question # 129

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

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Question # 130

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Mobile Access

C.

Mail Transfer Agent

D.

Threat Cloud

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Question # 131

Fill in the blank: The tool _____ generates a R81 Security Gateway configuration report.

A.

infoCP

B.

infoview

C.

cpinfo

D.

fw cpinfo

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Question # 132

Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by SmartEvent Processes?

A.

ELA and CPD

B.

FWD and LEA

C.

FWD and CPLOG

D.

ELA and CPLOG

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Question # 133

You want to gather and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?

A.

SmartEvent Client Info

B.

SecuRemote

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

Check Point Capsule Cloud

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Question # 134

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

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Question # 135

fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons?

A.

fwd

B.

cpwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

Full Access
Question # 136

When requiring certificates for mobile devices, make sure the authentication method is set to one of the following, Username and Password, RADIUS or ________.

A.

SecureID

B.

SecurID

C.

Complexity

D.

TacAcs

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Question # 137

You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?

A.

Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.

B.

Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.

C.

Create network objects that restricts all applicable rules to only certain networks.

D.

Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.

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Question # 138

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identify events:

A.

Matching a log against each event definition

B.

Create an event candidate

C.

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.

Matching a log against global exclusions

Full Access
Question # 139

To add a file to the Threat Prevention Whitelist, what two items are needed?

A.

File name and Gateway

B.

Object Name and MD5 signature

C.

MD5 signature and Gateway

D.

IP address of Management Server and Gateway

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Question # 140

The following command is used to verify the CPUSE version:

A.

HostName:0>show installer status build

B.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status

C.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status build

D.

HostName:0>show installer build

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Question # 141

Which one of the following is true about Threat Emulation?

A.

Takes less than a second to complete

B.

Works on MS Office and PDF files only

C.

Always delivers a file

D.

Takes minutes to complete (less than 3 minutes)

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Question # 142

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

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Question # 143

To accelerate the rate of connection establishment, SecureXL groups all connection that match a particular service and whose sole differentiating element is the source port. The type of grouping enables even the very first packets of a TCP handshake to be accelerated. The first packets of the first connection on the same service will be forwarded to the Firewall kernel which will then create a template of the connection. Which of the these is NOT a SecureXL template?

A.

Accept Template

B.

Deny Template

C.

Drop Template

D.

NAT Template

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Question # 144

Which of the following authentication methods ARE NOT used for Mobile Access?

A.

RADIUS server

B.

Username and password (internal, LDAP)

C.

SecurID

D.

TACACS+

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Question # 145

Check Pont Central Deployment Tool (CDT) communicates with the Security Gateway / Cluster Members over Check Point SIC _______ .

A.

TCP Port 18190

B.

TCP Port 18209

C.

TCP Port 19009

D.

TCP Port 18191

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Question # 146

CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. The database is:

A.

MySQL

B.

Postgres SQL

C.

MarisDB

D.

SOLR

Full Access
Question # 147

What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?

A.

With SDF enabled, the involved VPN Gateways only supports IKEv1

B.

Acceleration technologies, such as SecureXL and CoreXL are disabled when activating SDF

C.

With SDF enabled, only ClusterXL in legacy mode is supported

D.

With SDF enabled, you can only have three Sync interfaces at most

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Question # 148

In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

A.

Big l

B.

Little o

C.

Little i

D.

Big O

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Question # 149

Advanced Security Checkups can be easily conducted within:

A.

Reports

B.

Advanced

C.

Checkups

D.

Views

E.

Summary

Full Access
Question # 150

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

Security Gateway

E.

SmartEvent

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Question # 151

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

A.

cphaprob –a if

B.

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf debug data

D.

cphaprob igmp

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Question # 152

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R81 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

A.

One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.

B.

One machine

C.

Two machines

D.

Three machines

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Question # 153

You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or _____ action for the file types.

A.

Inspect/Bypass

B.

Inspect/Prevent

C.

Prevent/Bypass

D.

Detect/Bypass

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Question # 154

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

Full Access
Question # 155

Fill in the blank: The R81 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

A.

User data base corruption

B.

LDAP conflicts

C.

Traffic issues

D.

Phase two key negotiations

Full Access
Question # 156

Which of the following statements is TRUE about R81 management plug-ins?

A.

The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B.

Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.

C.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.

D.

Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

Full Access
Question # 157

What are the different command sources that allow you to communicate with the API server?

A.

SmartView Monitor, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

B.

SmartConsole GUI Console, mgmt_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

C.

SmartConsole GUI Console, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

D.

API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

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Question # 158

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

Full Access
Question # 159

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

Full Access
Question # 160

Which of the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

A.

Dynamic ID

B.

RADIUS

C.

Username and Password

D.

Certificate

Full Access
Question # 161

Which of the following Check Point processes within the Security Management Server is responsible for the receiving of log records from Security Gateway?

A.

logd

B.

fwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

Full Access
Question # 162

Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

A.

cpmq set

B.

Cpmqueue set

C.

Cpmq config

D.

St cpmq enable

Full Access
Question # 163

Connections to the Check Point R81 Web API use what protocol?

A.

HTTPS

B.

RPC

C.

VPN

D.

SIC

Full Access
Question # 164

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

Full Access
Question # 165

The Security Gateway is installed on GAIA R81. The default port for the Web User Interface is ______ .

A.

TCP 18211

B.

TCP 257

C.

TCP 4433

D.

TCP 443

Full Access
Question # 166

The Event List within the Event tab contains:

A.

a list of options available for running a query.

B.

the top events, destinations, sources, and users of the query results, either as a chart or in a tallied list.

C.

events generated by a query.

D.

the details of a selected event.

Full Access
Question # 167

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resilient VPN client.

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client.

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same.

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser.

Full Access
Question # 168

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

A.

fw ctl stat

B.

clusterXL stat

C.

clusterXL status

D.

cphaprob stat

Full Access
Question # 169

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

Full Access
Question # 170

When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

A.

Includes the registry

B.

Gets information about the specified Virtual System

C.

Does not resolve network addresses

D.

Output excludes connection table

Full Access
Question # 171

What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?

A.

The number of cores must be the same on every participating cluster node

B.

The Magic MAC number must be unique per cluster node

C.

The Sync interface must not have an IP address configured

D.

If you have “Non-monitored Private” interfaces, the number of those interfaces must be the same on all cluster members

Full Access
Question # 172

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

A.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap

B.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap

C.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap

D.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

Full Access
Question # 173

After making modifications to the $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C file, how would you restart the daemon?

A.

cvpnd_restart

B.

cvpnd_restart

C.

cvpnd restart

D.

cvpnrestart

Full Access
Question # 174

Which statement is true about ClusterXL?

A.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast and Multicast)

B.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast Only)

C.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Multicast Only)

D.

Does not support Dynamic Routing

Full Access
Question # 175

How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?

A.

Once a week

B.

Once an hour

C.

Twice per day

D.

Once per day

Full Access
Question # 176

What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

A.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

C.

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

D.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

Full Access
Question # 177

What is the port used for SmartConsole to connect to the Security Management Server?

A.

CPMI port 18191/TCP

B.

CPM port/TCP port 19009

C.

SIC port 18191/TCP

D.

https port 4434/TCP

Full Access
Question # 178

With Mobile Access enabled, administrators select the web-based and native applications that can be accessed by remote users and define the actions that users can perform the applications. Mobile Access encrypts all traffic using:

A.

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

B.

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

C.

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, no additional software is required.

D.

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, no additional software is required.

Full Access
Question # 179

What component of R81 Management is used for indexing?

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

Full Access
Question # 180

Security Checkup Summary can be easily conducted within:

A.

Summary

B.

Views

C.

Reports

D.

Checkups

Full Access
Question # 181

SmartConsole R81 requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent R81 management:

A.

19090,22

B.

19190,22

C.

18190,80

D.

19009,443

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Question # 182

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia R81.20 and available to all Check Point appliances. Which the following command is NOT related to redundancy and functions?

A.

cphaprob stat

B.

cphaprob –a if

C.

cphaprob –l list

D.

cphaprob all show stat

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Question # 183

What is a best practice before starting to troubleshoot using the “fw monitor” tool?

A.

Run the command: fw monitor debug on

B.

Clear the connections table

C.

Disable CoreXL

D.

Disable SecureXL

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Question # 184

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Question # 185

Which packet info is ignored with Session Rate Acceleration?

A.

source port ranges

B.

source ip

C.

source port

D.

same info from Packet Acceleration is used

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Question # 186

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

A.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctl multik pq enable

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Question # 187

Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

A.

IDA

B.

RAD

C.

PDP

D.

VPN

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Question # 188

Which is the least ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

A.

Synchronized

B.

Never been synchronized

C.

Lagging

D.

Collision

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