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VMCE2021 Veeam Certified Engineer 2021 Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which of the following backup types are valid for both Veeam Agent for Microsoft Windows and Veeam Agent for Linux? (Choose two.)

A.

Snapshot-level backup

B.

File-level backup

C.

Personal files backup

D.

Volume-level backup

E.

OS-level backup

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Question # 5

For general data protection regulation (GDPR) compliance, Veeam can add a location tag to which component?

A.

Guest Interaction proxies

B.

vCenter servers

C.

WAN accelerators

D.

Cloud gateways

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Question # 6

What is necessary prior to configuring replica mapping?

A.

A Veeam backup in the production site

B.

A Veeam replica in the disaster recovery site

C.

A Veeam backup in the disaster recovery site

D.

A Veeam replica in the production site

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Question # 7

In the war against ransomware, a company decided to implement tape backup for the first time. The tape library has already been added. Of the following, what must be done first?

A.

Create vaults.

B.

Create media pools.

C.

Create libraries.

D.

Create media sets.

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Question # 8

15 VMs are running on a Hyper-V platform and five physical servers at a remote office (ROBO). The administrator has been tasked with setting up centralized off-site backups at the headquarters (HQ). The available bandwidth is 50 Mbps. RPO is set to six hours and the data generated for the interval is 500 GB. WAN accelerators can be added if necessary. Which of the following will achieve the RPO?

A.

Use backup copy jobs in with High-Performance Mode enabled. Set the schedule to run every six hours.

B.

Use backup copy jobs with copy mode set to "immediate copy". Use WAN acceleration.

C.

Use backup copy jobs with copy mode set to "periodic copy" and copy every six hours.

D.

Configure the backup copy jobs with traffic throttling to 30 Mbps to limit the impact. Enable WAN acceleration.

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Question # 9

In Veeam Enterprise Manager, what granular restoration permission can be set for the Restore Operator role?

A.

Microsoft OneDrive files

B.

Microsoft Exchange items

C.

Microsoft Teams channels

D.

Microsoft SharePoint documents

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Question # 10

Veeam ONE has been installed and configured. The infrastructure contains five Veeam Backup & Replication servers.

The administrator needs to check the remaining capacity on each of the backup repository servers. Where can they see this information?

A.

Under Infrastructure View, look up the Veeam Backup & Replication servers to see the guest disk space.

B.

Under Data Protection View, look up the backup repository servers to see the remaining capacity.

C.

Under Business View, look up the backup repository servers to see the remaining capacity.

D.

Under Infrastructure View, look up the backup repository servers to see the guest disk space.

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Question # 11

A company needs to recover a VM from VMware very quickly. The company decides to use Instant VM Recovery from their last backup. What platforms can this backup be instantly restored to? (Choose three.)

A.

Azure

B.

Hyper-V

C.

AWS

D.

GCP

E.

AHV

F.

VMware

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Question # 12

A company needs several VMware thick provisioned VMs restored. The physical proxies used for restoration have access to the Fibre Channel datastores used by VMware. Which transport mode will be used by default to restore these VMs?

A.

Network mode

B.

Virtual appliance

C.

Quick Migration

D.

Direct Storage Access

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Question # 13

A file on a Windows VM hosted on vSphere is corrupted and must be restored. VMware tools are installed and up to date on the VM. For some reason, the Veeam mount server cannot connect to the VM through the network. Which of the following restore methods provides the fastest restore (RTO)?

A.

Run Veeam file restore wizard and let it restore through VIX.

B.

Start an Instant VM Recovery session and log on into the restored image to copy/paste the file to restore.

C.

It is impossible to restore the file on the VM if the mount server cannot reach it through the network.

D.

Run Veeam file restore wizard and use the "copy to" to download the file locally in a shared folder.

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Question # 14

A Veeam proxy server is configured as follows. No modifications are allowed to the transport mode.

When performing a restore of a thin-provisioned VMware virtual disk on an NFS data store using this proxy server, what transport mode will be used by default?

A.

Direct SAN access

B.

Virtual appliance

C.

Network

D.

Direct NFS access

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Question # 15

A director has asked for a quarterly report for capacity planning purposes. Which Veeam component should be used?

A.

Veeam Backup & Replication Console

B.

Enterprise Manager

C.

Business View

D.

Veeam ONE Web Client

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Question # 16

An infrastructure with 50 VMs has a power outage. After the VMware cluster has booted up again, 10 medium-sized VMs have corrupted VM disk files. Which action can be used to restore the VMs back to the production state?

A.

Use the "Restore guest files" option and restore all VM Files.

B.

Perform Restore VM Files and only restore the VM configuration files.

C.

Perform Restore VM Files and restore the VM configuration and disk files.

D.

Perform Instant VM Recovery with quick rollback.

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Question # 17

An administrator accidentally deleted a database. Veeam Explorer for Oracle will be used to restore it back. What is the fastest option to get the database online again?

A.

Use the "Compare with Production" option to restore only the missing objects back to the Oracle database.

B.

Use the "Point in Time" option to specify the point in time you want to restore the Oracle database to.

C.

Use the "Quick Rollback" option to perform a restore of the changed blocks of the Oracle database file.

D.

Use the "Instant Recovery" option and restore it in the background.

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Question # 18

At 18:00, after a Windows update installation, a VM is stuck in an infinite boot loop. The VM is configured as follows.

The last backup was created at 01:00. Choose the recovery approach that provides the lowest RTO with the least data loss.

A.

Instant VM Recovery with quick rollback

B.

Instant VM Recovery

C.

VM disk recovery with quick rollback of Disk 1

D.

Virtual disk restore of Disk 1

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Question # 19

Backup jobs are configured to local repositories. Backups must be sent from Site B to the repository on Site A. The connection allows direct backups to complete within the backup window. Impact on the source VMs at Site B should be minimized. Which type of job and Veeam components should be used to provide the necessary protection?

A.

A backup copy job and components 6 → 5 → 4 → 3 → 2

B.

A backup job and components 5 → 2

C.

A backup copy job and components 6 → 2

D.

A backup copy job and components 6 → 4 → 2

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Question # 20

An administrator is asked to change a backup copy job from periodic mode to immediate mode. How can this be accomplished?

A.

Edit the original job and select immediate copy mode from the job settings.

B.

Enable immediate mode on the repository.

C.

Create a new copy job and delete the original job.

D.

Modify the job settings on the proxy performing the copy job.

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Question # 21

A critical server in a Hyper-V environment has crashed and will not reboot. What is the fastest way to bring this server back online so employees can continue to work?

A.

Instant VM Disk Recovery

B.

Entire VM restore

C.

Instant VM Recovery

D.

Staged restore

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Question # 22

A Scale-out Backup Repository with one local extent has been configured as follows.

12 VMware VMs are being backed up daily by a forward incremental backup job, which has a 31-day retention, creating synthetic fulls on Saturdays. After running for more than 31 days, which of the following would be accurate?

A.

Both the performance tier and capacity tier will contain all restore points.

B.

The performance tier will contain all restore points. The capacity tier will contain zero restore points.

C.

The performance tier will contain the most recent 15 to 22 days of restore points. The capacity tier will contain the oldest 14 days of restore points.

D.

The performance tier will contain the most recent 14 to 20 days of restore points. The capacity tier will contain all restore points.

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Question # 23

A planned failover of three VMs has just completed successfully, starting the VMs at the disaster recovery location. What next actions are available for the failover plan?

A.

Undo, Start, Copy, Delete

B.

Cancel, Start, Edit, Delete

C.

Cancel, Start, Copy, Delete

D.

Undo, Start, Edit, Delete

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Question # 24

What does Veeam's Secure Restore functionality ensure during restores?

A.

256-bit AES encryption of in-flight data

B.

Anti-virus scanning

C.

Custom ports for in-flight data

D.

Proper rights/permissions on files and folders

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Question # 25

Due to an unexpected power outage, Site A is completely down. The disaster recovery strategy was implemented (see diagram). What is the correct way to start replicated VMs on Site B, while ensuring you can failback after Site A comes back online?

A.

Execute "Permanent failover" from vCenter.

B.

Execute "Planned failover".

C.

Power on VMs manually through vCenter.

D.

Perform "Failover".

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Question # 26

An administrator has decided to set up a VM backup job covering their Microsoft SOL servers. What feature must be enabled to ensure quiescence of the SQL databases during the backup?

A.

Enable Microsoft SQL server plug-in.

B.

Enable application-aware processing.

C.

Enable Microsoft Windows OS processing.

D.

Enable Microsoft SQL server agent on the VMs

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Question # 27

Which of the following are valid export options for Microsoft SQL Server items when using the Veeam Explorer for Microsoft SQL? (Choose two.)

A.

.mdb file

B.

.bak file

C.

.mdf file

D.

.sql file

E.

.xls file

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Question # 28

A backup administrator decided to move the Veeam Backup & Replication server and configuration database to new servers. Which configuration restore mode should be used?

A.

Migrate

B.

Planned failover

C.

Restore

D.

Failover plan

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Question # 29

On Monday, a backup administrator found out that some backup jobs were missing from a configuration. They want to roll back the configuration database to Fridays state. Which configuration restore mode should be used?

A.

Instant SQL Recovery

B.

Veeam Explorer for Microsoft SQL

C.

Restart

D.

Migrate

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Question # 30

Which of the following statements are true when comparing a synthetic full backup to an active full backup on an NTFS-based backup repository? Choose two options.

A.

If the backup repository performance is weak, creating synthetic full backups is the best choice.

B.

Synthetic full backups consume more network bandwidth.

C.

Synthetic full backups impose less load on the production environment.

D.

In terms of content and retention, the synthetic full backup file is identical to an active full backup file.

E.

Synthetic full backups are always best when launched on a dedupe appliance.

F.

The synthetic full backup file has a .vsb extension, whereas the active full backup has a .vbk extension.

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Question # 31

A scale-out backup repository is configured with data locality policy. How is an extent selected during an active full backup? (Choose two.)

A.

Always the same extent as the previous full backup

B.

An extent determined based on load control settings and free space

C.

A different extent from the previous chain to avoid single point of failure, if possible on free space

D.

It tries the same location as the previous full if using a deduplication appliance

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Question # 32

An environment is using Veeam Agent for Microsoft Windows and has Microsoft Exchange 2016 with regular Database Availability Groups (DAGs) configured. What option is required to properly back up the databases?

A.

Failover Cluster

B.

Standalone server

C.

Exchange Processing

D.

Advanced Exchange Backup

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Question # 33

A company has the following requirements:

Mission-critical VMs: hourly replication to disaster recovery site, daily backups of these VMs should be available at the disaster recovery site when required, the mission critical applications need to be available within 20 minutes.

Business-important VMs: daily backups should be stored at the disaster recovery site. When required, the business-important applications need to be available within four hours.

Define the RPO and RTO for the company’s disaster recovery site.

A.

Mission-critical VMs: RPO = 60 minutes, RTO = one hour; business-important VMs: RPO = 60 minutes, RTO = four hours

B.

Mission-critical VMs: RPO = 24 hours, RTO = 20 minutes; business-important VMs: RPO = 24 hours, RTO

= four hours

C.

Mission-critical VMs: RPO = 60 minutes, RTO = 20 minutes; business-important VMs: RPO = 24 hours, RTO = four hours

D.

Mission-critical VMs: RPO = 24 hours, RTO = four hours; business-important VMs: RPO = 24 hours, RTO = four hours

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Question # 34

You want to deploy an On-Demand Sandbox. While creating the application group, which sources can be used to add virtual machines to the Application Group? (Choose three.)

A.

Backup Copy in Backup repository

B.

Replica on non-Cloud Connect VMware vSphere host

C.

Replica on Cloud Connect VMware vSphere host

D.

Backup in Cloud Repository

E.

Storage Shapshot

F.

Backup on Backup Repository

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Question # 35

A backup administrator has replicated a virtual machine between two Hyper-V hosts and now would like to automatically verify the recoverability of the replica. What would they need to do?

A.

It is not supported to perform SureBackup replica testing for Hyper-V

B.

Create a virtual switch with no uplinks and start the virtual machine connected to the new switch

C.

Create a virtual lab and an application group; create a SureBackup for the replica job and run it once a day

D.

Start the virtual machine manually using the universal application item recovery wizard

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Question # 36

A company wants to ensure that, during a replication failover, database servers boot before the application servers. How can this be accomplished?

A.

Create a planned failover

B.

Create a failover plan

C.

Create a disaster recovery template

D.

Create a replica mapping

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Question # 37

The backup administrator configured replication for a VM from Data Center 1 to Data Center 2, which runs every day at 1 a.m. A power surge takes out Data Center 1 at 7 a.m. and the administrator fails over the

replica at 8 a.m. When the power comes back on, the administrator performs the “failback” action at 2 p.m. and checks the state of the original VM. They recognize that not all data is available. What is missing?

A.

Data from 1 a.m. to 7 a.m.

B.

Data from 1 a.m. to 2 p.m.

C.

Data from 8 a.m. to 2 p.m.

D.

Data from 7 a.m. to 8 a.m.

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Question # 38

Which Veeam Backup & Replication job type offers the shortest recovery time objective (RTO)?

A.

Backup copy

B.

Backup to tape

C.

Replication

D.

File to tape

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Question # 39

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of Veeam ONE Monitor?

A.

Built in phone home function for better security

B.

Updates are signature based

C.

Automatic problem mediation

D.

Manual or scheduled log analytics

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Question # 40

A backup administrator must enable guest file system Indexing for a backup job of a Microsoft Windows file server VM. All required credentials are added to the Veeam Backup &. Replication server. VMware tools (VIX) are installed and up to date on the VM. What should be done to make it possible in the following environment?

A.

Use the Linux proxy server as a guest interaction proxy.

B.

Install a file system Indexing plugin on the Microsoft Windows file server.

C.

Connect the ESXi host to the VM network.

D.

Use the Veeam Backup & Replication server as a guest interaction proxy.

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Question # 41

A backup administrator is planning to install Veeam ONE. Which data collection mode collects the most data per VM?

A.

For vCenter data only

B.

Optimized for advanced scalability deployment

C.

For backup data only

D.

Optimized for typical deployment

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Question # 42

If the selected proxy transport mode does not work or Is not available, which mode can a backup Job default to?

A.

Direct Storage Access

B.

Guest interaction

C.

Virtual appliance

D.

Network

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Question # 43

In the war against ransomware, a company decided to implement tape backup. The infrastructure contains VMware VMs and physical Windows servers. What Is the most efficient approach to getting all servers onto tape?

A.

Create backup jobs, then create backup to tape jobs.

B.

Create file to tape jobs and write directly to tape.

C.

Create backup Jobs, then create file to tape Jobs.

D.

Create backup to tape jobs and write directly to tape.

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Question # 44

When a replication job is configured to use the replica mapping feature (no seeding), what will happen during the first run of the job?

A.

The replication job creates a clone of the mapped replica to preserve the original state before synchronizing the changes from the source infrastructure

B.

The replication job calculates the differences between the original and mapped VM; only the incremental changes will be synchronized

C.

The replication job will first restore the VM from the most recent restore point and then start to synchronize the incremental changes from the source infrastructure

D.

If a VM within the replication job is not mapped, the job will fail

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Question # 45

Sometimes snapshots are "lost" by vCenter. What tool finds and removes those lost snapshots?

A.

CLI Snapshot Removal Tool

B.

Snapshot Hunter

C.

Snapshot Extractor

D.

Veeam ONE Orphaned VM Reporter

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Question # 46

Which of the following predefined tests can be performed during a SureBackup verification test on a backup file? (Choose three.)

A.

Application test

B.

Heartbeat test

C.

Ping test

D.

SAN check

E.

Boot time

F.

OS test

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Question # 47

Which of the following are valid backup locations for a licensed version of the Veeam Agent forMacOSt (Choose 2)?

A.

Microsoft OneDrive

B.

Veeam backup repository

C.

Google drive

D.

Amazon S3

E.

Firewire drive

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Question # 48

If you need to run a script to stop a service in order to get an application-consistent backup on a Windows server, where can the script be run?

A.

In the guest processing setting of the job, enable application-aware processing and add a pre-freeze script to the VM

B.

Configure the script to run on the Veeam Backup & Replication server using the Windows Task Scheduler

C.

Copy the script to the VM and schedule the script to run prior to the start of the backup job using the Windows Task Scheduler in the VM

D.

In the virtual machines setting of the job, add a script in the scripts tab under “Run the following script before the job:”

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Question # 49

Figure A shows the backup files on a Scale-out Backup Repository (SOBR) created by a single Veeam backup job. The SOBR is configured to offload to capacity tier in move mode. If the offload was completed successfully, what will remain on the performance extents for the files uploaded to the capacity tier?

A.

VIB files (metadata and data)

B.

VBM files (metadata only)

C.

VIB and VBK files (metadata only)

D.

VBK files (metadata and data)

E.

VIB and VBK files (data blocks only)

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Question # 50

To suppress Veeam ONE alarms under specific conditions or when a specific event occurs, which of these options can be selected? (Choose three.)

A.

High CPU usage

B.

Veeam backup activity

C.

Snapshot creation

D.

Storage snapshot deletion

E.

Storage snapshot creation

F.

Snapshot deletion

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Question # 51

Which Veeam feature allows for an administrator to help ensure general data protection regulation (GDPR) compliance?

A.

Secure restore

B.

Veeam Business View

C.

Immutability

D.

Location tagging

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Question # 52

A backup administrator is deploying a Veeam ONE environment. They have chosen to use separate servers from their Veeam Backup & Replication environment. What benefit will they receive if they install the Veeam ONE Agent onto their backup server?

A.

Track whether VMs and agents are properly protected and following the 3-2-1 rule

B.

Collect Veeam Backup & Replication logs and execute remediation actions

C.

Collect virtual environment configuration from Veeam Backup & Replication

D.

Analyze Veeam Backup & Replication log data and retrieve signature updates

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Question # 53

It is required that some replicated VMs start on a time delay during a failover. How can this be accomplished?

A.

Modify the failover template file.

B.

Create a failover plan.

C.

Use a pre-freeze/post-thaw script

D.

Adjust boot delay in application group.

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Question # 54

It the Backup Administrator has to perform a backup over a high-latency, low bandwidth network link, how can the disruptions to the backup process be avoided?

A.

By making a direct backup using WAN accelerator.

B.

By adding additional WAN accelerators to the target site.

C.

By making a backup locally and utilizing WAN accelerators for a backup copy Job.

D.

By adjusting the compression and deduplication settings for this Job.

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Question # 55

An auditor for a company requires reports per quarter on the status of the backups. Veeam Backup to used for the backups. What veeam component will provide the best reporting?

A.

Veeam Enterprise Manager reporting

B.

Veeam Explorer for Microsoft SQL Server reporting

C.

Veeam ONE Web Client

D.

Veeam Backup e-mail notifications

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Question # 56

A backup job has been configured to keep three incremental restore points and a synthetic full backup each Sunday. More restore points are present on disk than what was configured in the job. Why?

A.

The old restore points will be deleted after the new restore chain meets the retention policy

B.

Per VM backup files are enabled in the repository

C.

The other restore points are weekly full backups, this is expected

D.

You should configure the synthetic full backup to be performed on Mondays instead

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