SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2023 Question and Answers

Disabling access is an automation use case that can enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company or change job roles internally. It can prevent unauthorized access and data leakage by revoking or modifying the access rights of employees based on their current status and role.

A weekly, full backup with daily incremental backups would use the least amount of storage space for backups, as it would only store the changes made since the last backup, whether it is a full or incremental backup. Incremental backups are faster and use less storage space than full or differential backups, but they require more time and media to restore data. A full backup is a complete copy of all data, which requires more time and storage space to perform, but allows a faster and easier recovery. A differential backup is a copy of the data that changed since the last full backup, which requires less time and storage space than a full backup, but more than an incremental backup. A differential backup allows a faster recovery than an incremental backup, but slower than a full backup. References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatabackup/feature/Full-incremental-or-differential-How-to-choose-the-correct-backup-type
• https://www.nakivo.com/blog/backup-types-explained/

Security information and event management (SIEM) is a solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates logs and events from various sources such as firewalls, servers, applications, etc., within an organization’s network. It can centralize logs to create a baseline and have visibility on security events by providing a unified dashboard and reporting system for log management and security monitoring.

A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make a computer or network resource unavailable to its intended users. This is accomplished by overwhelming the target with a flood of traffic from multiple sources.

In the scenario described, the security analyst identified a source IP address and blocked it from communicating with the network. However, the attack was still ongoing and coming from a large number of different source IP addresses. This indicates that the attack was a DDoS attack.

Privilege escalation is an attack that allows an attacker to gain unauthorized access to a system or network. DNS poisoning is an attack that modifies the DNS records for a domain name, causing users to be redirected to a malicious website. A buffer overflow is an attack that occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a buffer than it is designed to hold.

Therefore, the most likely type of attack in the scenario described is a DDoS attack.

SED stands for Self-Encrypting Drive, which is a type of hard drive that automatically encrypts and decrypts data using a built-in hardware encryption engine1. SEDs do not require any additional software or configuration, and they do not affect the performance or usability of the laptop2. SEDs also have a feature called Instant Secure Erase, which allows the user to quickly and securely wipe the data on the drive by deleting the encryption key1.

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a non-profit organization that provides resources and guidance for improving the security of web applications. It publishes a list of the most common web application vulnerabilities, such as injection, broken authentication, cross-site scripting, etc., and provides recommendations and best practices for preventing and mitigating them

An evil twin attack is when an attacker sets up a fake Wi-Fi network that looks like a legitimate network, but is designed to capture user data that is sent over the network. In this case, the user's laptop is constantly disconnecting and reconnecting to the Wi-Fi network, indicating that it is connecting to the fake network instead of the legitimate one. Once the user connects to the fake network, they are unable to access shared folders or other network resources, as those are only available on the legitimate network.

A business continuity plan is a document or a process that outlines how an organization can continue its critical operations and functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. It can include strategies and procedures for recovering or relocating resources, personnel, data, etc., to ensure minimal downtime and impact. The organization will most likely consult the business continuity plan when setting up offices in a temporary work space after its corporate offices were destroyed due to a natural disaster.

A host-based firewall is a software application that runs on each individual host and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of rules. A host-based firewall can be used to block or allow specific ports, protocols, IP addresses, or applications.

An engineer can use a host-based firewall to accomplish the task of disabling all web-server ports except 443 on a group of 100 web servers in a cloud environment. The engineer can configure the firewall rules on each web server to allow only HTTPS traffic on port 443 and deny any other traffic. Alternatively, the engineer can use a centralized management tool to deploy and enforce the firewall rules across all web servers.

Preventing information exposure is a secure application development concept that aims to block verbose error messages from being shown in a user’s interface. Verbose error messages are detailed messages that provide information about errors or exceptions that occur in an application. Verbose error messages may reveal sensitive information about the application’s structure, configuration, logic, or data that could be exploited by attackers. Therefore, preventing information exposure involves implementing proper error handling mechanisms that display generic or user-friendly messages instead of verbose error messages.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://owasp.org/www-project-top-ten/2017/A6_2017-Security_Misconfiguration

Access control vestibules are physical security controls that consist of two sets of doors or gates that create a small enclosed space between them. Only one door or gate can be opened at a time, and only one person can enter or exit the vestibule at a time. Access control vestibules can prevent multiple people from using a unique card swipe and being admitted to a secure entrance, as they require each person to authenticate individually and prevent tailgating or piggybacking.

Memory management is a technique that can allocate and deallocate memory for applications and processes. Memory management can reduce vulnerabilities by avoiding code reuse, which is a technique that exploits a memory corruption vulnerability to execute malicious code that already exists in memory. Memory management can prevent code reuse by implementing features such as address space layout randomization (ASLR), data execution prevention (DEP), or stack canaries.

SQL injection is a web application attack that involves inserting malicious SQL statements into an input field, such as a web form, to manipulate or access the database behind the application. SQL injection can be used to perform various actions, such as reading, modifying, or deleting data, executing commands on the database server, or bypassing authentication. In this scenario, the attacker is trying to use a SQL statement “SELECT * FROM customername” to retrieve all data from the customername table in the database.

Three-factor authentication combines three types of authentication methods: something you know (password), something you have (physical token), and something you are (fingerprint scan). Option C satisfies these requirements, as it uses a password (something you know), a physical token (something you have), and a fingerprint scan (something you are) for authentication.

Firmware is software that allows your computer to communicate with hardware devices, such as network routers, switches, or firewalls. Firmware updates can fix bugs, improve performance, and enhance security features. Without firmware updates, the devices you connect to your network might not work properly or might be vulnerable to attacks1. You can have Windows automatically download recommended drivers and firmware updates for your hardware devices1, or you can use a network monitoring software to keep track of the firmware status of your devices2. You should also follow the best practices for keeping devices and software up to date, such as enforcing automatic updates, monitoring update status, and testing updates before deploying them

NAC stands for network access control, which is a security solution that enforces policies and controls on devices that attempt to access a network. NAC can help prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the internal network by verifying their identity, compliance, and security posture before granting them access. NAC can also monitor and restrict the activities of authorized devices based on predefined rules and roles.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-network-access-control-nac.html

Load balancing and RAID are the best options to accomplish the objective of improving both server-data fault tolerance and site availability under high consumer load. Load balancing is a method of distributing network traffic across multiple servers to optimize performance, reliability, and scalability. Load balancing can help improve site availability by preventing server overload, ensuring high uptime, and providing redundancy and failover. RAID stands for redundant array of independent disks, which is a technology that combines multiple physical disks into a logical unit to improve data storage performance, reliability, and capacity. RAID can help improve server-data fault tolerance by providing data redundancy, backup, and recovery.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.nginx.com/resources/glossary/load-balancing/ https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/raid

AUP stands for acceptable use policy, which is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using an organization’s network, systems, devices, and resources. An AUP typically covers topics such as authorized and unauthorized activities, security requirements, data protection, user responsibilities, and consequences for violations. An AUP can help prevent non-work-related software installation on company-issued devices by clearly stating what types of software are allowed or prohibited, and what actions will be taken if users do not comply with the policy.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2471/acceptable-use-policy-aup

Before connecting security devices to the network, it is crucial to address default settings first. Manufacturers often ship devices with default settings that include default usernames, passwords, and configurations. These settings are widely known and can be easily exploited by attackers. Changing default settings helps to secure the device and prevent unauthorized access. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 Exam Objectives, Section 3.2: "Given a scenario, implement secure systems design." (https://www.comptia.jp /pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-501%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf)

the difference between drop and reject in firewall is that the drop target sends nothing to the source, while the reject target sends a reject response to the source. This can affect how the source handles the connection attempt and how fast the port scanning is. In this context, a human might say that the best action to block a TCP connection using the corporate firewall is A. Drop, because it does not send back an RST packet and it may slow down the port scanning and protect against DoS attacks.

The NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) is a process for evaluating the security of a system and implementing controls to reduce potential risks associated with it. The RMF process involves categorizing the system, selecting the controls that apply to the system, implementing the controls, and then assessing the success of the controls before authorizing the system. For more information on the NIST Risk Management Framework and other security processes, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.

Input validation is a technique that involves checking the user input for any malicious or unexpected characters or commands that could be used to perform SQL injection attacks. Input validation can be done by using allow-lists or deny-lists to filter out the input based on predefined criteria. Input validation can prevent SQL injection attacks by ensuring that only valid and expected input is passed to the database queries.

Vishing is a form of phishing that uses voice calls or voice messages to trick victims into revealing personal information, such as credit card numbers, bank details, or passwords. Vishing often uses spoofed phone numbers, voice-altering software, or social engineering techniques to impersonate legitimate organizations or authorities. In this scenario, the caller pretended to be someone who could change the flight plan of an aircraft, which could have caused a serious incident.

 A jump server is a device that acts as an intermediary between users and other devices on a network. A jump server can provide a secure and controlled access point to the legacy devices without exposing them directly to the network. A jump server can also enforce authentication, authorization, logging, and auditing policies.

Isolating the device is the first thing that a security analyst should do if they suspect that a user’s device might be compromised. Isolating the device means disconnecting it from the network or placing it in a separate network segment to prevent further communication with potential attackers or malicious hosts. Isolating the device can help contain the incident, limit the damage or data loss, preserve the evidence, and facilitate the investigation and remediation.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/incident-response-process/

A digital forensics chain-of-custody form is a document that records the chronological and logical sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of digital evidence. A digital forensics chain-of-custody form should include the following information:

• The provenance of the artifacts: The provenance of the artifacts refers to the origin and history of the digital evidence, such as where, when, how, and by whom it was collected, handled, analyzed, or otherwise controlled.
• The date and time: The date and time refer to the specific moments when the digital evidence was collected, handled, analyzed, transferred, or disposed of by each person involved in the chain of custody.

Other information that may be included in a digital forensics chain-of-custody form are:

• The identification of the artifacts: The identification of the artifacts refers to the unique identifiers or labels assigned to the digital evidence, such as serial numbers, barcodes, hashes, or descriptions.
• The signatures of the custodians: The signatures of the custodians refer to the names and signatures of each person who had custody or control of the digital evidence at any point in the chain of custody.
• The location of the artifacts: The location of the artifacts refers to the physical or logical places where the digital evidence was stored or processed, such as a lab, a server, a cloud service, or a device.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/chain-of-custody-in-digital-forensics/

Threat feeds, also known as threat intelligence feeds, are a source of information about current and emerging threats, vulnerabilities, and malicious activities targeting organizations. Security analysts use threat feeds to gather information about attacks and threats targeting their industry or sector. These feeds are typically provided by security companies, research organizations, or industry-specific groups. By using threat feeds, analysts can identify trends, patterns, and potential threats that may target their own organization, allowing them to take proactive steps to protect their systems.

References:

1. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601): https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf

2. SANS Institute: Threat Intelligence: What It Is, and How to Use It Effectively: https://www.sans.org-room/whitepapers/analyst/threat-intelligence-is-effectively-36367

Applying patches is the first step to lower the risk to the production hardware, as patches are updates that fix vulnerabilities or bugs in the software or firmware. Patches can prevent attackers from exploiting known vulnerabilities and compromising the production hardware. Applying patches should be done regularly and in a timely manner, following a patch management policy and process. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/patch-management-best-practices

A business continuity plan (BCP) is a document that outlines how an organization will continue its critical functions during and after a disruptive event, such as a natural disaster, pandemic, cyberattack, or power outage. A BCP typically covers topics such as business impact analysis, risk assessment, recovery strategies, roles and responsibilities, communication plan, testing and training, and maintenance and review. A BCP can help the organization’s executives determine their next course of action by providing them with a clear framework and guidance for managing the crisis and resuming normal operations.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.ready.gov/business-continuity-plan

shadow IT is the use of IT-related hardware or software by a department or individual without the knowledge or approval of the IT or security group within the organization12. Shadow IT can encompass cloud services, software, and hardware. The main area of concern today is the rapid adoption of cloud-based services1.

According to one source3, shadow IT helps you know and identify which apps are being used and what your risk level is. 80% of employees use non-sanctioned apps that no one has reviewed, and may not be compliant with your security and compliance policies.

Telnet is an insecure protocol that transmits data in cleartext over the network. This means that anyone who can intercept the network traffic can read the data, including the username and password of the server administrator. A packet capture tool is a software or hardware device that can capture and analyze network packets. An attacker can use a packet capture tool to steal the password and use it to install malicious software on the server. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-network-security

A standard naming convention policy would provide guidelines on how to label new network devices as part of the initial configuration. A standard naming convention policy is a document that defines the rules and formats for naming network devices, such as routers, switches, firewalls, servers, or printers. A standard naming convention policy can help an organization achieve consistency, clarity, and efficiency in network management and administration.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Network_Virtualization/PathIsolationDesignGuide/PathIsolationDesignGuide.pdf

An SLA or service level agreement is a type of third-party risk management policy that defines the expectations and obligations between a service provider and a customer. An SLA typically includes metrics and standards for measuring the quality and performance of the service, as well as penalties or remedies for non-compliance. An SLA can also specify the reporting requirements for data breaches or other incidents that may affect the customer’s security or privacy.

Containment is the phase where the incident response team tries to isolate and stop the spread of the incident12. Before containing the incident, the team should collect and preserve any evidence that may be useful for analysis and investigation12. This includes documenting the incident details, such as date, time, location, source, and impact12. It also includes establishing a chain of custody, which is a record of who handled the evidence, when, where, how, and why3. A chain of custody ensures the integrity and admissibility of the evidence in court or other legal proceedings3.

A community cloud model describes a scenario where a cloud service is shared among multiple organizations that have common goals, interests, or requirements. A community cloud can be hosted by one of the organizations, a third-party provider, or a combination of both. A community cloud can offer benefits such as cost savings, security, compliance, and collaboration. A police department using the cloud to share information with city officials is an example of a community cloud model.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/community-cloud

A web application firewall (WAF) is a solution that inspects traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment and protects them from common web-based attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and denial-of-service1. A WAF can be deployed as a cloud service or as a virtual appliance in front of the web servers. A load balancer is a solution that distributes traffic among multiple web servers in a cloud environment and improves their performance, availability, and scalability2. A load balancer can also perform health checks on the web servers and route traffic only to the healthy ones. The other options are not relevant to this scenario. A CASB is a cloud access security broker, which is a solution that monitors and controls the use of cloud services by an organization’s users3. A VPN is a virtual private network, which is a solution that creates a secure and encrypted connection between two networks or devices over the internet. TLS is Transport Layer Security, which is a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for data transmitted over a network. DAST is dynamic application security testing, which is a method of testing web applications for vulnerabilities by simulating attacks on them.

References: 1: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/what-is-a-web-application-firewall-waf/  2: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/load-balancing/  3: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/cloud-access-security-broker-casb/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/vpn-virtual-private-network/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/transport-layer-security-tls/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/dynamic-application-security-testing-dast/ : https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cloud-adoption-framework/ready/azure-best-practices/plan-for-traffic-inspection : https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/private-link/inspect-traffic-with-azure-firewall : https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/example-scenario/gateway/application-gateway-before-azure-firewall

A supply chain attack is a type of attack that involves compromising a trusted third-party provider or vendor and using their products or services to deliver malware or gain access to the target organization. The attacker can exploit the trust and dependency that the organization has on the provider or vendor and bypass their security controls. In this case, the attacker may have tampered with the patch for the security appliance and used it to exfiltrate data from the organization.

The administrator should use a round-robin algorithm to split the number of connections on each server in half. Round-robin is a load-balancing algorithm that distributes incoming requests to the available servers one by one in a cyclical order. This helps to evenly distribute the load across all of the servers, ensuring that no single server is overloaded.

Nmap is a tool that is used to scan IP addresses and ports in a network and to detect installed applications. Nmap can help a security administrator determine the services running on a server by sending various packets to the target and analyzing the responses. Nmap can also perform various tasks such as OS detection, version detection, script scanning, firewall evasion, and vulnerability scanning.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://nmap.org/

AUP or Acceptable Use Policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using a company’s IT resources, such as devices, networks, internet, email, etc. It usually includes language prohibiting end users from accessing personal email from a company device, as well as other activities that may compromise security or productivity1.

https://www.thesecuritybuddy.com/governance-risk-and-compliance/what-are-sla-mou-bpa-and-nda/  3: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/agreement-types/  1: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2471/acceptable-use-policy-aup

The security engineer should select a Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) to address the concern. HIDS monitors and analyzes the internals of a computing system, such as key files and network traffic, for any suspicious activity. Unlike antivirus software (AV), which relies on known signatures of malware, HIDS can detect anomalies, policy violations, and previously undefined attacks by monitoring system behavior and the network traffic of the device.

References:

1. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601): https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf

2. Scarfone, K., & Mell, P. (2007). Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems (IDPS): Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology. NIST Special Publication 800-94. https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/Legacy/SP/nistspecialpublication800-94.pdf

Reputation damage Short Explanation: Reputation damage is the loss of trust or credibility that a company suffers when its customers’ personal data is exposed or breached. This can lead to customer dissatisfaction, loss of loyalty, and requests to delete user accounts. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-cybersecuri ty

Anonymizing the data is the process of removing personally identifiable information (PII) from data sets, so that the people whom the data describe remain anonymous12. Anonymizing the data can safeguard the PHI records without impeding the testing process, because it can protect the privacy of the patients while preserving the data integrity and statistical accuracy for the application development team12. Anonymizing the data can be done by using techniques such as data masking, pseudonymization, generalization, data swapping, or data perturbation12.

Implementing a content filter is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of content based on predefined rules or policies3. A content filter does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or leakage of PHI records.

Deploying DLP tools is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that monitors and prevents data exfiltration or transfer to unauthorized destinations or users. DLP tools do not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and they may not be sufficient to protect PHI records from internal misuse or negligence.

Installing a FIM on the application server is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that detects and alerts changes to files or directories on a system. FIM does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or modification of PHI records.

NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technology that allows multiple devices to share a single IP address, allowing them to access the internet while still maintaining security and privacy. VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology that creates a secure, encrypted tunnel between two or more devices, allowing users to access the internet and other network resources securely and privately. Additionally, VPNs can also be used to restrict access to certain websites and services, such as social media sites and external email services.

Steganography is a technique for hiding data inside of benign files such as images, audio, or video. This can be used to exfiltrate confidential data without raising suspicion or detection.

References: How to Hide Files Inside Files [Images, Folder] - Raymond.CC Blog; How to Hide Data in a Secret Text File Compartment - How-To Geek; How to Hide Data Within an Image - Medium

A risk register is a tool used by an organization to identify, log, and track any potential risks and corresponding risk information. It helps to document the risks, their likelihood, impact, mitigation strategies, and status. A risk register is an essential part of risk management and can be used for projects or organizations.

The most likely cause for the high number of findings is that the vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and generated a high number of false positives. False positive results occur when a vulnerability scanner incorrectly identifies a non-vulnerable system or application as being vulnerable. This can happen due to incorrect configuration, over-sensitive rule sets, or outdated scan databases.

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/sy0-601-comptia-security-plus-course/

A server farm’s logs are records of events that occur on a group of servers that provide the same service or function. Logs can contain information such as date, time, source, destination, message, error code, and severity level. Logs can help administrators monitor the performance, security, and availability of the servers and troubleshoot any issues.

To determine the sequence of a server farm’s logs, the administrator should consider the following factors:

• Time stamps: Time stamps are indicators of when an event occurred on a server. Time stamps can help administrators sort and correlate events across different servers based on chronological order. However, time stamps alone may not be sufficient to determine the sequence of events if the servers have different time zones or clock settings.
• Time offset: Time offset is the difference between the local time of a server and a reference time, such as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) or Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Time offset can help administrators adjust and synchronize the time stamps of different servers to a common reference time and eliminate any discrepancies caused by time zones or clock settings.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/server-manager/view-event-logs

Thin clients are devices that have minimal hardware and software components and rely on a remote server to provide access to computing resources, an operating system, and centralized configuration and data. Thin clients can reduce the cost, complexity, and security risks of managing multiple devices.

SSH is used to securely transfer files to the remote server and is required for SCP to work. Disabling SSH will prevent users from being able to use SCP to transfer files to the server. To enable SSH, the security engineer should modify the SSH configuration file (sshd.conf) and make sure that SSH is enabled. For more information on hardening systems and the security techniques that can be used, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.

A secure web gateway (SWG) is a solution that can filter and block malicious or inappropriate web traffic based on predefined policies. It can protect users from web-based threats, such as malware, phishing, or ransomware, whether they are in the office or away. An SWG can be deployed as a hardware appliance, a software application, or a cloud service. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-a-secure-web-gateway

the cat command displays the contents of a file, the head command displays the first lines of a file, and the tail command displays the last lines of a file. To display a specific number of lines from a file, you can use a minus sign followed by a number as an option for head or tail. For example, head -10 will display the first 10 lines of a file.

To obtain the next 500 lines starting from line 4,600, you need to use both head and tail commands.

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/s y0-601/sy0-601-video/file-manipulation-tools/

Hoaxing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending false or misleading information via email or other means to trick recipients into believing something that is not true. Hoaxing emails often contain a request or an incentive for the recipients to forward the email to others, such as a warning of a virus, a promise of a reward, or a petition for a cause. The goal of hoaxing is to spread misinformation, cause panic, waste resources, or damage reputations.

A hoaxing email is primarily intended to mislead recipients into forwarding the email to others, which can increase the reach and impact of the hoax.

The best solution to meet the given requirements is to deploy a Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution. PAM solutions allow administrators to create and manage administrative accounts that are assigned to specific users and that have complex passwords. Additionally, PAM solutions provide the ability to enable audit trails and logging on all systems, as well as to set up temporal access for administrative accounts. SAML, ABAC, and CASB are not suitable for this purpose.

Impossible travel time is a policy that detects and blocks login attempts from locations that are geographically impossible to reach from the previous login location within a certain time frame. For example, if a user logs in from New York and then tries to log in from Tokyo within an hour, the policy would flag this as impossible travel time and disable the account. This policy helps prevent unauthorized access from compromised credentials or attackers using proxy servers. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 6, Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, Objective 1.2: Compare and contrast different types of social engineering techniques 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.4: Implement identity and account management controls 3 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/howto-sign-in-risk- policy#impossible-travel

One possible way to address this type of alert in the future is to use a SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) playbook to automatically remove the phishing message from the inbox3. A SOAR playbook is a set of predefined actions that can be triggered by certain events or conditions. This can help reduce the response time and human error in dealing with phishing alerts.

Lessons learned is a process that would most likely help an organization that has conducted an incident response exercise to improve performance and identify challenges. Lessons learned is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response exercise to identify what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. Lessons learned can help an organization enhance its incident response capabilities, address any gaps or weaknesses, and update its incident response plan accordingly.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.sans.org/reading-room/whitepapers/incident/incident-handlers-handbook-33901

Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines is the most effective approach for the manager to use to address the issue of common vulnerabilities in the applications developed by the team. Secure coding training can help the developers learn how to write code that follows security best practices and avoids common mistakes or flaws that can introduce vulnerabilities. Application security guidelines can provide a set of standards and rules for developing secure applications that meet the company’s security requirements and policies. By investing in secure coding training and application security guidelines, the manager can improve the security awareness and skills of the development team and reduce the number of vulnerabilities in their applications. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-secure-coding

A private cloud model would best suit the company's priorities of control and security over cost and ease of management. In a private cloud, the infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization, providing greater control over the environment and the ability to implement strict security measures. This is in contrast to public, community, or hybrid cloud models, where resources are shared among multiple organizations, potentially compromising control and security. While private clouds can be more expensive and more difficult to manage, they the highest level of control and security for the company.

SSL/TLS encryption is a method of securing the syslog traffic by using cryptographic protocols to encrypt and authenticate the data. SSL/TLS encryption can prevent eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing of the syslog messages. TCP 6514 is the standard port for syslog over TLS, as defined by RFC 5425. Using this port can ensure compatibility and interoperability with other syslog implementations that support TLS.

A DLP solution in monitoring mode is a good first step to deploy for data loss prevention. It allows the IT team to observe and analyze the data flows and activities without blocking or interfering with them. It helps to identify the sources and destinations of sensitive data, the types and volumes of data involved, and the potential risks and violations. It also helps to fine-tune the DLP policies and rules before switching to blocking mode, which can disrupt business operations if not configured properly.

Disabling remote logins to the NAS likely involved turning off SSH instead of modifying the configuration file. This would prevent users from using SCP to transfer files to the NAS, even though the data is still viewable from the users' PCs. Source: TechTarget

Correlation dashboards are tools that allow security analysts to monitor and analyze multiple sources of data and events in real time. They can help identify patterns, trends, anomalies, and threats by correlating different types of data and events, such as network traffic, logs, alerts, and incidents. Correlation dashboards can help investigate network flooding by showing the source, destination, volume, and type of malicious packets and their impact on the network performance and availability. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-correlation-dashboard

Placing all known-infected hosts on an isolated network is the best way to stop the spread of a worm infection. This will prevent the worm from reaching other hosts on the network and allow the infected hosts to be cleaned and restored. Disconnecting every host from the network is not practical and may disrupt business operations. Running an AV scan on the entire network or scanning the hosts that show signs of infection may not be effective or fast enough to stop a fast-spreading worm.

Syslogs are log files that are generated by devices on the network and contain information about network activity, including user logins, device connections, and other events. By analyzing these logs, the IT security team can identify the source of the threatening voicemail messages and take the necessary steps to address the issue

 DLP stands for data loss prevention, which is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help mitigate the risk of data exfiltration by disgruntled employees or external attackers by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, transfer, or upload sensitive data to a USB drive or other removable media based on predefined policies and rules.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp

Password history is a policy that prevents users from reusing their previous passwords. This can reduce the risk of password cracking or compromise. Geolocation is a policy that restricts users from logging in from certain locations based on their IP address. This can prevent unauthorized access from high-risk countries or regions. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-identity-and-access-management

User-agent spoofing is a technique that involves changing the user-agent string of a web browser or other client to impersonate another browser or device. The user-agent string is a piece of information that identifies the client to the web server and can contain details such as the browser name, version, operating system, and device type. User-agent spoofing can be used to bypass security controls that rely on the user-agent string to determine the legitimacy of a request. In this scenario, the consultants were able to spoof the user-agent string of the company’s mobile application and access the API that should have been restricted to it.

The account lockout can be attributed to a brute-force attack. A brute-force attack is a type of attack where an attacker attempts to guess a user's password by continually trying different combinations of characters. In this case, it is likely that the security engineer's account was locked out due to an attacker attempting to guess their password. Backdoor, rootkit, and Trojan attacks are not relevant in this scenario.

A proof of concept (PoC) environment can be stood up quickly and is used to demonstrate and model system capabilities and functionality for a fixed, agreed-upon duration of time. This environment can utilize either dummy data or actual data. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501

Non-repudiation is the process of ensuring that a party involved in a transaction or communication cannot deny their involvement. By implementing non-repudiation controls, a cybersecurity analyst can properly track and log user actions, attributing them to a specific individual. This can be achieved through methods such as digital signatures, timestamps, and secure logging mechanisms.

References:

1. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601): https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/CompTIA%20Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf

2. Stewart, J. M., Chapple, M., & Gibson, D. (2021). CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601. John Wiley & Sons.

Based on these definitions, the best security solution to mitigate the risk of future data disclosures from a laptop would be FDE123. FDE would prevent unauthorized access to the data stored on the laptop even if it is stolen or lost. FDE can also use TPM to store the encryption key and ensure that only trusted software can decrypt the data3. HIDS and VPN are not directly related to data encryption, but they can provide additional security benefits by detecting intrusions and protecting network traffic respectively.

The symptoms suggest a keylogger is being used to compromise the user accounts, allowing the attackers to obtain the users' passwords and other sensitive information. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 6

Reviewing the email event logs can support an investigation for fraudulent submission, as these logs can provide details about the history of emails, including the message content, timestamps, and sender/receiver information. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 3.2 Given a scenario, implement appropriate data security and privacy controls.

 This type of attack occurs when an attacker replaces a digitally signed document with another version that has a different hash value. The author would be able to notice the additional verbiage, however, since the hash value would have changed, they would not be able to validate an integrity issue.

A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is a tool that collects and analyzes security-related data from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 5

a backup strategy is a plan that defines how to protect data from loss or corruption by creating and storing copies of data on a different medium or location1. A backup strategy should consider the security and reliability of the backup data and the backup storage234.

Based on these definitions, the best option that is a cost-effective approach to address the security and reliability concerns regarding the on-site backup strategy would be D. Migrate to a cloud backup solution24. A cloud backup solution can provide several benefits, such as:

• Enhanced physical security of the backup data by storing it in a remote location that is protected by multiple layers of security measures.
• Enhanced durability of the backup data by storing it on highly reliable storage devices that are replicated across multiple availability zones or regions.
• Reduced costs of backup storage by paying only for the amount of data stored and transferred, and by using features such as compression, deduplication, encryption, and lifecycle management.
• Increased flexibility and scalability of backup storage by choosing from various storage classes and tiers that match the performance and availability requirements of the backup data.

Bluesnarfing is a hacking technique that exploits Bluetooth connections to snatch data from a wireless device. An attacker can perform bluesnarfing when the Bluetooth function is on and your device is discoverable by other devices within range. In some cases, attackers can even make calls from their victim’s phone1.

Network segmentation is the BEST course of action for the analyst to take to prevent further spread of the worm. Network segmentation helps to divide a network into smaller segments, isolating the infected attachment from the rest of the network. This helps to prevent the worm from spreading to other devices within the network. Implementing email content filtering or DLP solution might help in preventing the email from reaching the target or identifying the worm, respectively, but will not stop the spread of the worm. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Chapter 5: Securing Network Infrastructure, 5.2 Implement Network Segmentation, pp. 286-289

Shredding may be the most secure and cost-effective way to destroy electronic data in any media that contain hard drives or solid-state drives and have reached their end-of-life1. Shredding reduces electronic devices to pieces no larger than 2 millimeters2. Therefore, shredding is the most secure but least expensive data destruction method for data that is stored on hard drives.

To verify that a client-server (non-web) application is sending encrypted traffic, a security analyst can use OpenSSL. OpenSSL is a software library that provides cryptographic functions, including encryption and decryption, in support of various security protocols, including SSL/TLS. It can be used to check whether a client-server application is using encryption to protect traffic. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601

ARP poisoning (also known as ARP spoofing) is a type of attack where an attacker sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network to link the attacker's MAC address with the IP address of another host on the network. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 2.5 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack. Study Guide: Chapter 6, page 271.

The environment that utilizes dummy data and is most likely to be installed locally on a system that allows it to be assessed directly and modified easily with each build is the development environment. The development environment is used for developing and testing software and applications. It is typically installed on a local system, rather than on a remote server, to allow for easy access and modification. Dummy data can be used in the development environment to simulate real-world scenarios and test the software's functionality. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/27561/development-environment

To prevent such a breach in the future, the BEST control to use would be Password complexity.

Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create strong passwords that are difficult to guess or crack. It can help prevent unauthorized access to systems and data by making it more difficult for attackers to guess or crack passwords.

The best control to use to prevent a breach like the one shown in the logs is password complexity. Password complexity requires users to create passwords that are harder to guess, by including a mix of upper and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. In the logs, the attacker was able to guess the user's password using a dictionary attack, which means that the password was not complex enough. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601

When selecting an encryption method for data that needs to remain confidential for a specific length of time, the longevity of the encryption algorithm should be considered to ensure that the data remains secure for the required period. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 3.2 Given a scenario, use appropriate cryptographic methods. Study Guide: Chapter 4, page 131.

A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers. Security patches are essential for maintaining the security and functionality of systems and applications.

If the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability, it means that the patch was either not applied or was uninstalled at some point. A possible reason for uninstalling a security patch could be user impact, such as performance degradation, compatibility issues, or functionality loss.

The other options are not correct because:

• B. An adversary altered the vulnerability scan reports. This could be a possibility, but it is less likely than option A. An adversary would need to have access to the vulnerability scan reports and be able to modify them without being detected. Moreover, altering the reports would not prevent the patch from being applied or uninstalled.
• C. A zero-day vulnerability was used to exploit the web server. This is not correct because a zero-day vulnerability is a vulnerability that is unknown to the public or the vendor, and therefore has no patch available. The question states that a patch is available for the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server.
• D. The scan reported a false negative for the vulnerability. This is not correct because a false negative is when a scan fails to detect a vulnerability that is present. The question states that the vulnerability is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, which means that it was detected by previous scans.

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack:

“A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.getastra.com/blog/security-audit/vulnerability-scanning-report/

To protect the servers in the company’s DMZ from external attack due to the new vulnerability in the SMB protocol on the Windows systems, the security administrator should block TCP ports 139 and 445 for all external inbound connections to the DMZ.

SMB uses TCP port 139 and 445. Blocking these ports will prevent external attackers from exploiting the vulnerability in SMB protocol on Windows systems.

Blocking TCP ports 139 and 445 for all external inbound connections to the DMZ can help protect the servers, as these ports are used by SMB protocol. Port 135 is also associated with SMB, but it is not commonly used. Ports 143 and 161 are associated with other protocols and services. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 1.4 Compare and contrast network architecture and technologies.

Defense in depth is a resiliency technique that involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to protect against different types of threats. In this scenario, the NIPS likely provided protection at a different layer than the boundary firewall, demonstrating the effectiveness of defense in depth. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)

During a penetration testing exercise, the white team is responsible for acting as a referee and providing oversight and support to ensure that the testing is conducted safely and effectively. They may also be responsible for determining the rules and guidelines of the exercise, monitoring the progress of the teams, and providing feedback and insights on the strengths and weaknesses of the organization's security measures.

two possible solutions that can be implemented to prevent these issues from reoccurring are password history and geofencing12. Password history is a feature that prevents users from reusing their previous passwords1. This can enhance password security by forcing users to create new and unique passwords periodically1. Password history can be configured by setting a policy that specifies how many previous passwords are remembered and how often users must change their passwords1.

Geofencing is a feature that restricts access to a system or network based on the geographic location of the user or device2. This can enhance security by preventing unauthorized access from hostile or foreign regions2. Geofencing can be implemented by using GPS, IP address, or other methods to determine the location of the user or device and compare it with a predefined set of boundaries2.

According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 documents, the correct answer option is A. Create an automated, monthly attestation process that removes access if an employee’s supervisor denies the approval12.

This option ensures that appropriate access is not disrupted but unneeded access is removed in a reasonable time frame by requiring supervisors to approve or deny the exceptions on a regular basis. It also reduces the manual workload of the security team and improves the compliance with the company policy.

To determine the total risk an organization can bear, a technician should review the organization's risk tolerance, which is the amount of risk the organization is willing to accept. This information will help determine the organization's "cloud-first" adoption strategy. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)

TACACS+ is a protocol used for remote authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) that can be used to replace shared passwords on routers and switches. It provides a more secure method of authentication that allows for centralized management of access control policies. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 6

The best option that will help to protect the PC from malicious files on the storage device would be A. Change the default settings on the PC. Changing the default settings on the PC can include disabling the autorun or autoplay feature, which can prevent malicious files from executing automatically when the storage device is plugged in. Changing the default settings can also include enabling antivirus software, updating the operating system and applications, and configuring user account control and permissions.

A user should choose the .cer file format to share a public key for secure communication. A .cer file is a public key certificate that can be shared with third parties to enable secure communication.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 6: Cryptography, pp. 301-302.

A public key is a cryptographic key that can be used to encrypt or verify data. A public key file is a file that contains one or more public keys in a specific format.

There are different formats for public key files, depending on the application and the algorithm used. Some of the common formats are:

• .pfx: This is a file format that stores a certificate and its private and public keys. It is also known as PKCS#12 or Personal Information Exchange. It is used by some applications such as Microsoft Internet Explorer and Outlook to import and export certificates and keys.1
• .csr: This is a file format that stores a Certificate Signing Request, which is a message sent to a Certificate Authority (CA) to request a digital certificate. It contains the public key and some information about the identity of the requester. It is also known as PKCS#10 or Certification Request Syntax.2
• .pvk: This is a file format that stores a private key for Microsoft Authenticode code signing. It is used with a .spc file that contains the certificate and public key.3
• .cer: This is a file format that stores a certificate, which is a document that binds a public key to an identity. It is also known as DER or Distinguished Encoding Rules. It is used by some applications such as OpenSSL and Java to read and write certificates.4

Spyware is malicious software that can cause a computer to slow down or freeze. It can also cause the mouse pointer to disappear. The task list shows an application named "spyware.exe" running, indicating that spyware is likely the issue. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 6.0: Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware.
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 125-126

Single Sign-On (SSO) is a mechanism that allows users to access multiple applications with a single set of login credentials. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 6

Emulating the malware in a heavily monitored DMZ segment is the best option for observing network-based transactions between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC. This approach provides an isolated environment for the malware to run, reducing the risk of lateral spread and detection by the adversary. Additionally, the DMZ can be monitored closely to gather intelligence on the adversary's tactics and techniques. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, page 129

The best backup strategy for minimizing the number of backups that need to be restored in case of data loss is full backups followed by incremental backups. This strategy allows for a complete restoration of data by restoring the most recent full backup followed by the most recent incremental backup. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Third Edition (Exam SY0-601) page 126

Crosscut shredders are used to destroy paper documents and reduce the risk of data leakage through dumpster diving. Dumpster diving is a method of retrieving sensitive information from paper waste by searching through discarded documents.

References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2

A social engineering attack that relies on an executive at a small business visiting a fake banking website where credit card and account details are harvested is known as whaling. Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives, to steal sensitive information or gain access to their accounts.

NFC allows two devices to communicate with each other when they are in close proximity to each other, typically within 5 centimetres. This makes it the most secure connection method for the company's data transfer requirements.

Vulnerability scanning is a proactive security measure used to identify vulnerabilities in the network and systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 4

The scenario of receiving an email stating a database will be encrypted unless a payment is made is an example of spear phishing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 2: Threats, Attacks, and Vulnerabilities, Social Engineering

Retina authentication is the most accurate biometric authentication method. Retina authentication is based on recognizing the unique pattern of blood vessels and other features in the retina. This makes it virtually impossible to duplicate or bypass, making it the most secure form of biometric authentication currently available.

An identity provider (IdP) is responsible for authenticating users and generating security tokens containing user information. A service provider (SP) is responsible for accepting security tokens and granting access to resources based on the user's identity.

The Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract between the cloud service provider and the organization that stipulates the exact requirements for the cloud provider. It outlines the level of service that the provider must deliver, including the minimum uptime percentage, support response times, and the remedies and penalties for failing to meet the agreed-upon service levels.

If the systems are running unsecure protocols and the company that developed them is no longer in business, it is likely that there are no patches available to remediate the issue. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.6: Given a scenario, implement secure protocols.
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 35-36

Staging is an environment in the software development lifecycle that is used to test a modified version of the actual data, current version configurations, and code. This environment compares user-story responses and workflow before the software is released to the production environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, pg. 496

Salting is a technique that adds random data to a password before hashing it. This makes the hash output more unique and unpredictable, and prevents attackers from using precomputed tables (such as rainbow tables) to crack the password hash. Salting also reduces the risk of collisions, which occur when different passwords produce the same hash.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://auth0.com/blog/adding-salt-to-hashing-a-better-way-to-store-passwords/

The attack described in the question is known as a DNS hijacking attack. In this type of attack, an attacker modifies the DNS records of a domain name to redirect traffic to their own server. This allows them to intercept traffic and steal sensitive information such as user credentials.

To prevent this type of attack from occurring in the future, the company should implement C. DNSSEC.

DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions) is a security protocol that adds digital signatures to DNS records. This ensures that DNS records are not modified during transit and prevents DNS hijacking attacks.

A supply chain attack occurs when a third-party supplier or business partner is compromised, leading to an attacker gaining unauthorized access to the targeted organization's network. In this scenario, the dedicated business partner connection to a vendor was used to exfiltrate customer credit card data, indicating that the vendor's network was breached and used as a supply chain attack vector.

The solution that the CISO should choose is Next-generation Secure Web Gateway (SWG), which provides URL filtering and categorization to prevent users from accessing malicious sites, even when they are away from the office. NGFWs are typically cloud-based and offer multiple security layers, including malware detection, intrusion prevention, and data loss prevention. References:

• https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-a-next-generation-secure-web-gateway-ng-swg
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4

The organization should use a communications plan to inform the affected parties. A communications plan is a document that outlines how an organization will communicate with internal and external stakeholders during a crisis or incident. It should include details such as who will be responsible for communicating with different stakeholders, what channels will be used to communicate, and what messages will be communicated.

An incident response plan is a document that outlines the steps an organization will take to respond to a security incident or data breach. A business continuity plan is a document that outlines how an organization will continue to operate during and after a disruption. A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines how an organization will recover its IT infrastructure and data after a disaster.

Continuous integration is a software development practice where developers merge their code into a shared repository several times a day, and the code is tested automatically. This ensures that code changes are tested and integrated continuously, reducing the risk of errors and conflicts.

Using static code analysis would be the best approach to scan the source code looking for unsecure practices and weaknesses before the application is deployed in a runtime environment. This method involves analyzing the source code without actually running the software, which can identify security vulnerabilities that may not be detected by other testing methods. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, pp. 292-295

The best option that describes what is impacted the most by the hackers’ attack and threat would be D. Reputation. Reputation is the perception or opinion that others have about a person or an organization. Reputation can affect the trust, credibility, and success of a person or an organization. In this scenario, if the hackers send the unfavorable pictures to the press, it can damage the reputation of the Chief Executive Officer and the company, and cause negative consequences such as loss of customers, partners, investors, or employees.

MDM software is a type of remote asset-management software that runs from a central server. It is used by businesses to optimize the functionality and security of their mobile devices, including smartphones and tablets. It can monitor and regulate both corporate-owned and personally owned devices to the organization’s policies.

FDE stands for full disk encryption, which is a method of encrypting all data on a device’s storage. FDE can protect data from unauthorized access in case the device is lost or stolen.

If a company decides to allow its employees to use their personally owned devices for work tasks, it should configure MDM software to enforce FDE on those devices. This way, the company can protect its data from being exposed if the device falls into the wrong hands.

However, employees may be concerned about the loss of personal data if the company also enables the remote-wiping option in the MDM software. Remote wiping is a feature that allows the company to erase all data on a device remotely in case of theft or loss. Remote wiping can also affect personal data on the device, which may not be acceptable to employees.

Therefore, a possible compromise is to configure MDM for FDE without enabling the lock screen. This means that the device will be encrypted, but it will not require a password or PIN to unlock it. This way, employees can access their personal data easily, while the company can still protect its data with encryption.

The other options are not correct because:

• A. Enable the remote-wiping option in the MDM software in case the phone is stolen. This option may address the company’s concern about data loss, but it may not address the employees’ concern about personal data loss. Remote wiping can erase both work and personal data on the device, which may not be desirable for employees.
• B. Configure the MDM software to enforce the use of PINs to access the phone. This option may enhance the security of the device, but it may not address the company’s concern about data loss. PINs can be guessed or bypassed by attackers, and they do not protect data if the device is physically accessed.
• D. Perform a factory reset on the phone before installing the company’s applications. This option may address the company’s concern about data loss, but it may not address the employees’ concern about personal data loss. A factory reset will erase all data on the device, including personal data, which may not be acceptable to employees.

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 2.4 Given a scenario, implement secure systems design:

“MDM software is a type of remote asset-management software that runs from a central server1. It is used by businesses to optimize the functionality and security of their mobile devices, including smartphones and tablets2.”

“FDE stands for full disk encryption, which is a method of encrypting all data on a device’s storage3.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.makeuseof.com/what-is-mobile-device-management-mdm-software/

A biometric scanner uses physical characteristics such as fingerprints to identify an individual user. It is used to ensure that only the authorized user is present when gaining access to a secured area.

A WAF (Web Application Firewall) and NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) are both examples of Layer 7 security controls. A WAF can block attacks at the application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model by filtering traffic to and from a web server. NIDS can also detect attacks at Layer 7 by monitoring network traffic for suspicious patterns and behaviors. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 94-95, 116-118

Multifactor authentication (MFA) would be the best control to require from a third-party identity provider to help mitigate attacks such as credential theft and brute-force attacks. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 2

A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a critical component of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). It identifies and prioritizes critical business functions and determines the impact of their disruption. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 10

When allowing mobile BYOD devices to access network resources, using a captive portal for user authentication and authenticating users using OAuth are both best practices for authentication and infrastructure security. A captive portal requires users to authenticate before accessing the network and can be used to enforce policies and restrictions. OAuth allows users to authenticate using third-party providers, reducing the risk of password reuse and credential theft. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 217-218, 225-226

DNS poisoning, also known as DNS spoofing or DNS cache poisoning, is a form of computer security hacking in which corrupt Domain Name System (DNS) data is introduced into the DNS resolver’s cache, causing the name server to return an incorrect result record, such as an IP address. This results in traffic being diverted to the attacker’s computer (or any other malicious destination).

DNS poisoning can be performed by various methods, such as:

• Intercepting and forging DNS responses from legitimate servers
• Compromising DNS servers and altering their records
• Exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS protocols or implementations
• Sending malicious emails or links that trigger DNS queries with poisoned responses

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack:

“DNS poisoning, also known as DNS spoofing or DNS cache poisoning, is a form of computer security hacking in which corrupt Domain Name System (DNS) data is introduced into the DNS resolver’s cache, causing the name server to return an incorrect result record.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/dns/dns-cache-poisoning/

Detailed Explanation: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can help prevent employees from stealing data by monitoring and controlling access to sensitive data. DLP can also detect and block attempts to transfer sensitive data outside of the organization, such as via email, file transfer, or cloud storage.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 10: Managing Identity and Access, p. 465

Configuring the guest wireless network on a separate VLAN from the company's internal wireless network will prevent visitors from accessing company resources. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4

When malware is discovered on a host, the best course of action is to quarantine the host from other parts of the network. This prevents the malware from spreading and potentially infecting other hosts. Adding a deny-all rule to the host in the network ACL may prevent legitimate traffic from being processed, implementing a network-wide scan is time-consuming and may not be necessary, and revoking the client's network access certificates is an extreme measure that may not be warranted. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 113-114

An agentless monitor is the best method to monitor network operations because it does not require any software or agents to be installed on the devices being monitored, making it less intrusive and less likely to disrupt network operations. This method can monitor various aspects of network operations, such as traffic, performance, and security.

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition (SY0-601), Chapter 4: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, Monitoring and Detection Techniques, pg. 167-170.

Bug bounty is a type of testing in which an organization offers a reward or compensation to anyone who can identify vulnerabilities or security flaws in their network or applications. The outside security firm has agreed to pay for each vulnerability found, which is an example of a bug bounty program.

A Raspberry Pi device connected to an Ethernet port could be configured as a rogue access point, allowing an attacker to intercept and analyze network traffic or perform other malicious activities. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives: 3.2 Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts.

A tabletop exercise is a type of disaster recovery test that simulates a disaster scenario in a discussion-based format, without actually disrupting operations or requiring physical testing of recovery procedures. It is the least time-consuming type of test for the disaster recovery team.

NIST 800-53 provides a catalog of security and privacy controls related to the United States federal information systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 3: Architecture and Design, pp. 123-125

Awareness training should be implemented to educate users on the risks of clicking on malicious URLs. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 9

Single-key or symmetric-key encryption algorithms create a fixed length of bits known as a block cipher with a secret key that the creator/sender uses to encipher data (encryption) and the receiver uses to decipher it.

Site-to-site VPN is a type of VPN solution that connects two or more networks or sites across the public internet in a secure and encrypted way. Site-to-site VPN can be implemented using VPN appliances, such as firewalls or routers, that can establish and maintain the VPN tunnel between the sites. Site-to-site VPN can support multiple users or devices that need to access resources on the other site without requiring individual VPN clients or software. Site-to-site VPN is the best solution to support the new remote office, as it can provide secure and seamless connectivity between the office network and the main network of the organization. Verified References:

• Virtual Private Networks – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/virtual-private-networks-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/ (See Site-to-Site VPN)
• VPN Technologies – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 3.2 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/vpn-technologies/ (See Site-to-Site VPN)
• Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security (See Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.3: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts.)

Badges are physical security controls that provide a way to identify and authenticate authorized individuals who need to access a building or a restricted area. Badges can also be used to track the entry and exit times of people and monitor their movements within the premises. Badges can help deter unauthorized access by requiring people to present a valid credential before entering or leaving the office. Badges can also help prevent tailgating, which is when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person through a door or gate. Badges can be integrated with other security systems, such as locks, alarms, cameras, or biometrics, to enhance the level of protection.

SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud model that provides clients with applications and software that are hosted and managed by a cloud provider over the internet. It can move email services to the cloud by allowing clients to access and use email applications without installing or maintaining them on their own devices or servers

Salting and hashing are techniques that can improve the security of passwords stored in a database by making them harder to crack or reverse-engineer by hackers who might access the database12.

Salting is the process of adding a unique, random string of characters known only to the site to each password before it is hashed2. Hashing is the process of converting a password into a fixed-length string of characters, which cannot be reversed3. Salting and hashing ensure that the encryption process results in a different hash value, even when two passwords are the same1. This makes it more difficult for an attacker to use pre-computed tables or dictionaries to guess the passwords, or to exploit duplicate hashes in the database4.

Directory traversal is a type of web application attack that involves exploiting a vulnerability in the web server or application to access files or directories that are outside the intended scope or root directory. It can allow an attacker to read, modify, or execute files on the target system by using special characters such as …/ or %2e%2e/ to manipulate the path or URL. In this case, the attacker used …/ to access the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information on Linux systems. 

 VPN (Virtual Private Network) traffic is encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity over the internet. However, this also means that it cannot be inspected by security devices or tools when entering or leaving the network, unless it is decrypted first. This can create a blind spot or a vulnerability for the network security posture, as malicious traffic or data could bypass detection or prevention mechanisms by using VPN encryption

Isolating the infected attachment is the best course of action for the analyst to take to prevent further spread of the worm. A worm is a type of malware that can self-replicate and infect other devices without human interaction. By isolating the infected attachment, the analyst can prevent the worm from spreading to other devices or networks via email, file-sharing, or other means. Isolating the infected attachment can also help the analyst to analyze the worm and determine its source, behavior, and impact. References:

• https://www.security.org/antivirus/computer-worm/
• https://sec.cloudapps.cisco.com/security/center/resources/worm_mitigation_whitepaper.html

Data owner is the role that is responsible for defining the protection type and classification type for a given set of files. Data owner is a person in the organization who is accountable for a certain set of data and determines how it should be protected and classified. General counsel is the role that provides legal advice and guidance to the organization. Risk manager is the role that identifies, analyzes, and mitigates risks to the organization. Chief Information Officer is the role that oversees the information technology strategy and operations of the organization

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-roles-and-responsibilities/

Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification

A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence

A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated with medium confidence

MDM stands for Mobile Device Management, which is a software solution that can manage and secure smartphones, laptops, tablets and other mobile devices across heterogeneous platforms. MDM can enforce security features such as encryption, password policies, remote wipe, device tracking, app control and more. MDM can also monitor and update the devices remotely and provide reports and alerts on their status. MDM is the most effective solution to implement security features across heterogeneous platforms, as it can provide centralized and consistent management of various types of devices. Verified References:

• Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security (See Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement secure systems design.)
• CompTIA Security+ 601 - Infosec https://www.infosecinstitute.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/03/CompTIA-Security-eBook.pdf (See Security+: 5 in-demand cybersecurity skills, Implementation)
• Certification Security+ | CompTIA https://www.comptia.org/landing/securityplus/index.html (See Exam Objectives)

A network DLP (Data Loss Prevention) solution is a tool that monitors and controls the data that is transmitted over a network. It can inspect in-transit files on the enterprise network to search for PII (Personally Identifiable Information), credit card data, and classification words by using predefined rules and policies, and then block, encrypt, quarantine, or alert on any sensitive data that is detected or leaked. 

Network and firewall logs should be analyzed to identify the impacted host in a cybersecurity incident involving a command-and-control server. A command-and-control server is a central server that communicates with and controls malware-infected devices or bots. A command-and-control server can send commands to the bots, such as downloading additional malware, stealing data, or launching attacks. Network logs can help to identify any suspicious or anomalous network traffic, such as connections to unknown or malicious domains, high-volume data transfers, or unusual protocols or ports. Firewall logs can help to identify any blocked or allowed traffic based on the firewall rules, such as connections to or from the command-and-control server, or any attempts to bypass the firewall. References:

• https://cybersecurity.att.com/blogs/security-essentials/command-and-control-server-detection-methods-best-practices
• https://www.howtogeek.com/726136/what-is-a-command-and-control-server-for-malware/

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is the best solution to implement on the company’s network to detect and prevent suspicious attempts to access company resources. An IPS is a network security technology that continuously monitors network traffic for malicious or anomalous activity and takes automated actions to block or mitigate it. An IPS can also alert the system administrators of any potential threats and provide detailed logs and reports of the incidents. An IPS can help the company to improve its security posture and prevent data breaches, unauthorized access, or denial-of-service attacks. References:

• https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-an-intrusion-prevention-system-ips
• https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/intrusion-prevention-system-ips

Tainted training data is a type of data poisoning attack that involves modifying or injecting malicious data into the training dataset of a machine learning or artificial intelligence system. It can cause the system to learn incorrect or biased patterns and produce inaccurate or malicious outcomes. It is the most likely reason for the inaccuracy of the system that is using information collected from third-party providers that have been compromised by an attacker.

Using a SHA-2 signature of a drive image is a way to supply non-repudiation during a forensics investigation, as it can verify the integrity and authenticity of the data captured in the image. SHA-2 is a family of secure hash algorithms that can produce a unique and fixed-length digest of any input data. By hashing the drive image and comparing the signature with the original hash, the investigator can prove that the image has not been altered or tampered with since the time of acquisition. This can also help to identify the source of the data and prevent any denial from the suspect. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/
• https://www.skillsoft.com/course/comptia-security-incident-response-digital-forensics-supporting-investigations-f889a108-9721-4e2c-8e9e-b49b01295e48

A turnstile is a physical security control that regulates the entry and exit of people into a facility or an area. It can prevent unauthorized access, tailgating, etc., by requiring valid credentials or tokens to pass through

SSH key is a pair of cryptographic keys that can be used for authentication and encryption when connecting to a remote Linux server via SSH protocol. SSH key authentication does not require a password and is more secure than password-based authentication. SSH key authentication also does not require additional software installation on the client or the server, as SSH is a built-in feature of most Linux distributions. A business partner can generate an SSH key pair on their own computer and send the public key to the company, who can then add it to the authorized_keys file on the Linux server. This way, the business partner can access the Linux server without entering a password or installing any software

NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technique that allows a router to translate private IP addresses into public IP addresses and vice versa. It can preserve the use of public IP addresses assigned to equipment on the core router by allowing multiple devices to share a single public IP address. TLSv2 (Transport Layer Security version 2) is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over the internet. It can enable “in transport” encryption protection to the web server with the strongest ciphers by encrypting the data transmitted between the web server and the clients using advanced algorithms and key exchange methods.

Off-site replication is a process of copying and storing data in a remote location that is geographically separate from the primary site. It can ensure minimal downtime for organizations with critical computing equipment located in earthquake-prone areas by providing a backup copy of data that can be accessed and restored in case of a disaster or disruption at the primary site.

A deterrent control is a type of security control that is designed to discourage potential intruders from attempting to access or harm a system or network. A deterrent control relies on the perception or fear of negative consequences rather than the actual enforcement of those consequences. A deterrent control can also be used to influence the behavior of authorized users by reminding them of their obligations and responsibilities. An example of a deterrent control is placing fake cameras around the building, as it can create the illusion of surveillance and deter potential intruders from trying to break in. Other examples of deterrent controls are warning signs, security guards, or audit trails. References:

• https://www.ibm.com/topics/security-controls
• https://www.f5.com/labs/learning-center/what-are-security-controls

Jailbreaking is a process of bypassing or removing the manufacturer-imposed restrictions on a mobile device’s operating system, allowing users to install unauthorized applications, modify settings, etc. It is a primary security concern for setting up a BYOD program because it can expose the device and its data to malware, vulnerabilities, unauthorized access, etc. 

A pass-the-hash attack is a type of replay attack that captures and uses the hash of a password. The attacker then attempts to log on as the user with the stolen hash. This type of attack is possible be-cause some authentication protocols send hashes over the network instead of plain text passwords. The packet capture shows that the attacker used NTLM authentication, which is vulnerable to pass-the-hash attacks

A corrective control is a type of security control that is designed to mitigate the damage caused by a security incident or to restore the normal operations after an incident. A corrective control can include actions such as restoring from backups, applying patches, isolating infected systems, or implementing new policies and procedures. A corrective control is different from a preventive control, which aims to stop an incident from happening, or a detective control, which aims to identify and record an incident. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-controls-3/
• https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-all-in-one/9781260464016/ch31.xhtml
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/security-controls-2/

A full inventory of all hardware and software would help ensure a security analyst is able to accurately measure the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed, as it would allow the analyst to identify which systems and applications are affected by the vulnerability and prioritize the remediation efforts accordingly. A full inventory would also help the analyst to determine the impact and likelihood of a successful exploit, as well as the potential loss of confidentiality, integrity and availability of the data and services. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/
• https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-plus-risk-management-processes-and-concepts/
• https://www.comptia.org/landing/securityplus/index.html
• https://www.comptia.org/blog/complete-guide-to-risk-management

CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) is a framework and a metric that provides a standardized and consistent way of assessing and communicating the severity levels of vulnerabilities. It assigns a numerical score and a vector string to each vulnerability based on various factors, such as exploitability, impact, scope, etc. It can help communicate to the leadership team the severity levels of the organization’s vulnerabilities by providing a quantitative and qualitative measure of the risks and the potential impacts. 

Mobile device management (MDM) is a solution that allows an organization to manage, monitor, and secure mobile devices that are used by employees for work purposes. It can protect company information on user devices by enforcing policies and controls such as encryption, password, remote wipe, etc., and detecting and preventing unauthorized access or data leakage.

Spraying is a password attack that involves trying a few common passwords against a large number of usernames. Spraying is different from brute-force attacks, which try many possible passwords against one username, or dictionary attacks, which try a list of words from a dictionary file against one username. Spraying is often used when the web application has a lockout policy that prevents multiple failed login attempts for the same username. Spraying can be detected by looking for patterns of failed login attempts from the same source IP address with different usernames and the same or similar passwords.

Push notifications are a type of technology that allows an application or a service to send messages or alerts to a user’s device without requiring the user to open the application or the service. They can be used for multi-factor authentication (MFA) by sending a prompt or a code to the user’s device that the user has to approve or enter to verify their identity. They can be non-disruptive and user friendly because they do not require the user to remember or type anything, and they can be delivered instantly and securely.

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of security standards and requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit payment card data. It aims to protect cardholder data and prevent fraud and data breaches. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is a regulation that governs the collection, processing, and transfer of personal data of individuals in the European Union. It aims to protect the privacy and rights of data subjects and impose obligations and penalties on data controllers and processors. These are the frameworks that the security officer should map the existing controls to, as they are relevant for a credit card transaction company that has a new office in Europe

iptables is a command-line tool that allows an administrator to configure firewall rules for a Linux system. The -F option flushes or deletes all the existing rules in the selected chain or in all chains if none is given. It can be used to remove the rules that caused the network to be unresponsive and restore the default firewall behavior. 

A zero-day vulnerability is a security flaw that is unknown to the vendor and the public, and therefore has no patch or fix available. A zero-day attack is an exploit that takes advantage of a zero-day vulnerability before the vendor or the security community becomes aware of it. A zero-day attack can cause serious damage to a system or network, as there is no defense against it until a patch is released. References:

• https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-domain-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/
• https://www.linkedin.com/learning/comptia-security-plus-sy0-601-cert-prep-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/zero-days-and-the-advanced-persistent-threat
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/zero-day-attacks-4/

GDPR stands for General Data Protection Regulation, which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information of individuals within the European Union (EU). GDPR also applies to organizations outside the EU that offer goods or services to, or monitor the behavior of, EU data subjects. GDPR aims to protect the privacy and rights of EU citizens and residents regarding their personal data. GDPR defines personal data as any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person, such as name, identification number, location data, online identifiers, or any factors specific to the physical, physiological, genetic, mental, economic, cultural, or social identity of that person. A company that is auditing the manner in which its European customers’ personal information is handled should consult GDPR to ensure compliance with its rules and obligations. References:

• https://www.gdpreu.org/the-regulation/key-concepts/personal-data/
• https://ico.org.uk/for-organisations-2/guide-to-data-protection/guide-to-the-general-data-protection-regulation-gdpr/key-definitions/what-is-personal-data/

A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when an attacker sends more data than a buffer can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations such as registers. It can allow an attacker to overwrite a register with a malicious address that changes the execution path and executes arbitrary code on the target system

Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that involves sending fraudulent or malicious text messages (SMS) to a user’s mobile phone. It can trick the user into providing personal or financial information, clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity.

Credential stuffing is a type of attack that involves using stolen or leaked usernames and passwords from one website or service to gain unauthorized access to other websites or services that use the same credentials. It can exploit the common practice of reusing passwords across multiple accounts. It is the most likely attack that has been used to compromise the manager’s corporate account, given that the manager is using the same password across multiple external websites and the corporate account, and one of the websites recently experienced a data breach.

Surveillance systems are constantly scanned by internet bots and have the highest risk of attack in the case of the default configurations because they are often connected to the internet and use weak or default passwords that can be easily guessed or cracked by malicious bots. Internet bots are software applications that run automated tasks over the internet, usually with the intent to imitate human activity or exploit vulnerabilities. Some bots are used for legitimate purposes, such as web crawling or indexing, but others are used for malicious purposes, such as spamming, phishing, denial-of-service attacks, or credential stuffing. Security misconfigurations are one of the most common gaps that criminal hackers look to exploit. Therefore, it is important to secure the configuration of surveillance systems by changing the default passwords, updating the firmware, disabling unnecessary services, and enabling encryption and authentication.

https://www.cctvcameraworld.com/setup-ip-camera-sys tem-on-network/

Corrective controls are security measures that are implemented after an incident to repair the damage and restore normal operations. They can include actions such as patching systems, restoring backups, removing malware, etc. An organization that is repairing damage after an incident is implementing corrective controls. 

A right-to-audit clause is a contractual provision that allows one party to audit the records and activities of another party to ensure compliance with security policies and standards. It can help a company monitor the ongoing security maturity of a new vendor by conducting annual security audits and identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed.

QUESTIO NO: 399

An organization has hired a red team to simulate attacks on its security pos-ture, which Of following will the blue team do after detecting an IOC?

A. Reimage the impacted workstations.

B. Activate runbooks for incident response.

C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system,

D. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information

Answer: B

A runbook is a set of predefined procedures and steps that guide an incident response team through the process of handling a security incident. It can help the blue team respond quickly and effectively to an indicator of compromise (IOC) by following the best practices and predefined actions for containment, eradication, recovery and lessons learned.

Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple applications or services that trust the same identity provider. Open authentication is a standard protocol that enables federation by allowing users to use their existing credentials from one service to access another service. The company is most likely using federation and open authentication to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user’s intranet account. For example, the company could use an identity provider such as Azure AD or Keycloak to manage the user identities and credentials for the intranet account, and then use open authentication to allow the users to access other company-owned websites without having to log in again. References:

• https://www.keycloak.org/
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/connect/whatis-fed

Resource policies are cloud features that allow and deny access to specific features in order to increase data security. Resource policies are rules or statements that define what actions can be performed on a particular resource by which entities under what conditions. Resource policies can be attached to cloud resources such as virtual machines, storage accounts, databases, or functions. Resource policies can help enforce security best practices, compliance requirements, and cost management. Resource policies can also help implement the principle of least privilege, which grants users only the minimum level of access they need to perform their tasks.

Homomorphic encryption is a cryptographic technique that allows data to be stored, accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Homomorphic encryption enables computations to be performed on ciphertexts, generating an encrypted result that, when decrypted, matches the result of the operations as if they had been performed on the plaintext. Homomorphic encryption can prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity, as the data remains encrypted at all times. Homomorphic encryption is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds, as it trades off performance for security and privacy. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/
• https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/research/wp-content/uploads/2018/01/security_homomorphic_encryption_white_paper.pdf
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/symmetric-and-asymmetric-cryptography/

This firewall rule set allows a subnet to only access DHCP, web pages, and SFTP, and specifically blocks FTP by allowing or denying traffic based on the source, destination, and port. The rule set is as follows:

• Allow any source and any destination on port 80 (HTTP)
• Allow any source and any destination on port 443 (HTTPS)
• Allow any source and any destination on port 67 (DHCP server)
• Allow any source and any destination on port 68 (DHCP client)
• Allow any source and any destination on port 22 (SFTP)
• Deny any source and any destination on port 21 (FTP)
• Deny any source and any destination on any other port

Jamming is a type of denial-of-service attack that involves interfering with or blocking the wireless signal using a device that emits radio waves at the same frequency as the wireless network. It can cause the wireless network to be down and users to be unable to connect to it, especially if they are working in a building near the parking lot where someone could easily place a jamming device.

An evil-Twin attack is a type of wireless network attack that involves setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. It can trick users into connecting to the rogue access point instead of the real one, and then intercept or modify their traffic, steal their credentials, launch phishing pages, etc. It is the most likely cause of the issue that users are experiencing slow speeds, unable to connect to network drives, and required to enter their credentials on web pages when working in the section of the building that is closest to the parking lot, where an external access point could be placed nearby.

A compensating control is a type of security control that is implemented in lieu of a recommended security measure that is deemed too difficult or impractical to implement at the present time. A compensating control must provide equivalent or comparable protection for the system or network and meet the intent and rigor of the original security requirement. An example of a compensating control is using a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system to allow connections from only specific internal IP addresses, as it can provide a similar level of defense as a network firewall that may not be compatible with the system. References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/compensating-control
• https://reciprocity.com/resources/whats-the-difference-between-compensating-controls-and-mitigating-controls/

Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network would prevent the issue of making several company servers unreachable. A non-production environment is a replica of the production network that is used for testing, development, or training purposes. By testing the policy in a non-production environment, the technician can verify the functionality and impact of the policy without affecting the real network or users. This can help to identify and resolve any errors or conflicts before applying the policy to the production network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment can also help to ensure compliance with security standards and best practices.

SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that can be used to securely transfer files over the internet. SSH uses encryption and authentication to protect the data in transit and ensure the identity of the sender and receiver. SSH can also support compression, tunneling, and port forwarding. SSH can be used to send files to a business partner by using a command-line tool such as scp or sftp, or by using a graphical user interface (GUI) tool such as FileZilla or WinSCP. SSH can also be used to remotely access and manage servers or devices over the internet. References:

• https://www.globalscape.com/solutions/secure-file-transfer
• https://www.jscape.com/blog/how-to-securely-transfer-large-files-over-the-internet

Privilege escalation describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas. It is a type of attack that allows a normal user to obtain higher privileges or access rights on a system or network, such as administrative or root access. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a vulnerability, design flaw, or misconfiguration in the system or application. Privilege escalation can allow an attacker to perform unauthorized actions, such as accessing sensitive data, installing malware, or compromising other systems. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privilege-escalation-3/
• https://www.linkedin.com/learning/comptia-security-plus-sy0-601-cert-prep-2-secure-code-design-and-implementation/privilege-escalation

Tor (The Onion Router) is a network and a software that enables anonymous communication over the internet. It routes the traffic through multiple relays and encrypts it at each layer, making it difficult to trace or monitor. It can access the dark web, which is a part of the internet that is hidden from conventional search engines and requires special software or configurations to access

Wireless Access Point

Network Mode – G only

Wireless Channel – 11

Wireless SSID Broadcast – disable

Security settings – WPA2 Professional

SPIM (Spam over Internet Messaging) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves sending unsolicited or fraudulent messages over an internet messaging service, such as Skype or WhatsApp. It can trick users into clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, providing personal or financial information, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity. Vishing (Voice Phishing) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves making unsolicited or fraudulent phone calls over an internet telephony service, such as Google Voice or Vonage. It can trick users into disclosing personal or financial information, following malicious instructions, transferring money, etc., by using voice spoofing, caller ID spoofing, or interactive voice response systems. 

This certificate property will meet the requirements because it has a wildcard at the secondary subdomain level (.app1.comptia.org), which means it can be used for any subdomain under app1.comptia.org, such as test.app1.comptia.org or dev.app1.comptia.org. It also has a validity period of less than one year, which means it will need to be rotated annually. The other options do not meet the requirements because they either have a wildcard at the primary domain level (.comptia.org), which is not allowed, or they have a validity period of more than one year, which is too long.

A computer screen shot of a computer Description automatically generated with low confidence