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ISEB-PM1 BCS Foundation Certificate in IS Project Management Question and Answers

Question # 4

Formal written communication is mandated for which of the following?

A.

Both 1) scope changes not part of the original project, and 2) taking exception to a specification.

B.

scope changes not part of the original project

C.

procurement of raw materials

D.

All of the other alternatives apply.

E.

taking exception to a specification

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Question # 5

Collect Requirements is:

A.

Developing a plan from major stakeholders

B.

Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions

C.

Planning project milestones

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the project scope

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Question # 6

Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Question # 7

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

A.

Expert Judgment

B.

Project Management Methodology

C.

Project Management Information

D.

Project Selection Methods

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Question # 8

Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities process?

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Schedule network template

D.

Applying leads and lags

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Question # 9

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Group decision making techniques

B.

Project management information system

C.

Alternative identification

D.

Communication requirement analysis

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Question # 10

In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A.

Qualitative risk analysis

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Monitor and control project work

D.

Risk response planning

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Question # 11

You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your chance of success.

A.

Your intuition and training

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Historical information

D.

Configuration management

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Question # 12

All of the following are true regarding Communications Planning except for which one?

A.

Communications requirements analysis, communications technology, and PMIS are tools and techniques of this process.

B.

It's the only output of the Communications Planning process.

C.

It's tightly linked with enterprise environmental factors and organizational influences, and lessons learned and historical information are two inputs that should get a lot of attention during this process.

D.

It should be completed as early in the project phases as possible.

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Question # 13

You have accumulated project information throughout the project and need to distribute some important information you just received.

Which of the following is not an information distribution method?

A.

Electronic mail

B.

Videoconferencing

C.

Voicemail

D.

Electronic databases

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Question # 14

What do composite organizations involve?

A.

Functional and project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

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Question # 15

Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control Charts

C.

Pareto Chart

D.

Histogram

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Question # 16

Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communication management plan

C.

Requested changes

D.

Communication requirement plan

E.

Organizational Process Assets Updates

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Question # 17

The methods and techniques for determining the economic costs, the environmental impact, the economic returns, and the probability for success are called:

A.

Bills of materials.

B.

Pert charts.

C.

Managerial reserves.

D.

None of the other alternatives apply

E.

Feasibility studies.

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Question # 18

The decision to approve or reject a particular change request is made in which of the following processes?

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

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Question # 19

All of the following are inputs to the quality process EXCEPT:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Checklists.

C.

Quality policy.

D.

The project scope statement.

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Question # 20

You are managing an internal project where a vice president from the user group is acting as the sponsor. You have just been informed by your team that the critical path has slipped by three weeks. You should:

A.

See the sponsor after you have evaluated alternatives, recommendations, and performed an impact analysis

B.

Inform your senior management of the problem and tell them that you will get back to them after you assessed the situation

C.

Look for someone to blame before you see the sponsor

D.

Do nothing until the slippage occurs

E.

Immediately inform the sponsor and ask for advice

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Question # 21

Which analysis uses beta and triangular distributions as a tool and technique?

A.

Quantitative risk analysis

B.

Qualitative risk analysis

C.

Perform quality assurance

D.

Perform quality control

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Question # 22

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A.

Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

B.

Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

C.

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

D.

Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)

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Question # 23

In which of the following is the cost of risk hidden by the contractor?

A.

Fixed Price Plus Incentive

B.

Firm Fixed Price Contract and Fixed Price Plus Incentive

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract

D.

Cost Plus Percentage of Cost

E.

Cost Plus Fixed Price

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Question # 24

Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Question # 25

Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?

A.

Project team

B.

Project manager

C.

Project management office

D.

Customer or sponsor

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Question # 26

The project manager decides to conduct a meeting with the team and management after a new risk has been identified. After the meeting, the decision is to allow the risk to occur.

This is an example of which type of risk response strategy?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Avoid

D.

Transfer

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Question # 27

In which of the following team development stages does the team meet and learn about the project and their formal roles and responsibilities?

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

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Question # 28

Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through project closure?

A.

Resource leveling

B.

Parametric measuring

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Earned value

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Question # 29

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

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Question # 30

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery.

What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

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Question # 31

Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management?

A.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers

B.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control

C.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers

D.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers

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Question # 32

Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates are all outputs of which process?

A.

Risk response planning

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Manage stakeholders

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Question # 33

You know that PV = 470, AC = 430, EV = 480, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525.

What is VAC?

A.

25

B.

30

C.

20

D.

70

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Question # 34

What is included in a control chart?

A.

Baseline

B.

Planned value

C.

Upper specification limit

D.

Expenditure

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Question # 35

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide should:

A.

Always be applied uniformly

B.

Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor

C.

Be selected as appropriate by the project team

D.

Be applied based on ISO guidelines.

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Question # 36

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A.

Risk identification

B.

Qualitative risk analysis

C.

Risk management planning

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

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Question # 37

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

A.

WBS directory

B.

Activity list

C.

WBS

D.

Project schedule

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Question # 38

With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____.

A.

25.0

B.

22.5

C.

27.5

D.

30.0

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Question # 39

Going from Level 2 to Level 4 in the work breakdown structure will result in ___________.

A.

None of the other alternatives apply

B.

A greater likelihood that something will fall through the cracks

C.

Less estimating accuracy

D.

Lower status reporting costs

E.

Better control of the project

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Question # 40

A work breakdown structure is most useful for:

A.

determining potential delays

B.

developing a cost estimate

C.

scheduling the start of tasks

D.

identifying individual tasks for a project

E.

A and C

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Question # 41

Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Report performance

C.

Communications requirements analysis

D.

Communication methods

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Question # 42

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

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Question # 43

Bar charts are most appropriate for:

A.

Showing slack time.

B.

Comparing actual to planned performance to each activity.

C.

All of the other alternatives apply.

D.

Showing critical path dependencies.

E.

Showing which activities can be rearranged in parallel.

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Question # 44

A project manager you are mentoring comes to you for help because he is about to face his first procurement audit. You might explain that he should NOT worry about such an audit because it:

A.

Identifies successes and failures that warrant transfer to other procurements.

B.

Makes sure the contract is being followed.

C.

Makes sure costs are in line with the project.

D.

Makes sure the seller is following the contract.

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Question # 45

Advantages of the functional (hierarchical) form of organization include _____ and creation of technical competence.

A.

Single voice to customers

B.

High information processing capability

C.

Ease of horizontal coordination

D.

Clearly defined authority

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Question # 46

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

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Question # 47

What is the difference between management reserves and contingency reserves?

A.

Contingency reserves address known knowns, whereas management reserves address known unknowns.

B.

Contingency and management reserves both address known unknowns and could be considered the same.

C.

Contingency reserves address known unknowns, whereas management reserves address unknown unknowns.

D.

Contingency reserves are managed by senior management, whereas management reserves are managed by the project manager.

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Question # 48

If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:

A.

WBS.

B.

Communications management plan.

C.

Project management information system.

D.

Project scope management plan.

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Question # 49

What is one of the advantages of a functional organization?

A.

All employees report to two or more managers, but project team members show loyalty to functional managers.

B.

All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command.

C.

Teams are co-located.

D.

The organization is focused on projects and project work.

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Question # 50

Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US $150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other than daily status.

How would you define this situation?

A.

Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.

B.

This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.

C.

This is a recurring process.

D.

Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project management.

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Question # 51

All of the following are typical concerns of matrixed team members EXCEPT:

A.

Wondering who will handle their evaluations.

B.

Serving multiple bosses.

C.

Developing commitment.

D.

Computing fringe benefits when working on multiple projects.

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Question # 52

While reviewing project performance, the project manager determines that the schedule variance is -500.

What is the BEST thing to do?

A.

Let the sponsor know.

B.

Determine the cost variance.

C.

Look for activities that can be done in parallel.

D.

Move resources from the project to one that is not failing.

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Question # 53

A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product according to specifications has increased from one day to three days over the past month.

Which tool or technique is used in this case?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Quality assurance

C.

Quality control

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 54

Control chart theory is based on the differentiation of the causes of variations in quality. Variations may be produced by assignable causes. All of the following are examples of assignable causes except:

A.

None of the other alternatives apply (all are examples)

B.

differences among materials.

C.

differences among machines.

D.

differences among workers.

E.

differences in each of these factors over time.

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Question # 55

Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk's probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

B.

Risk probability and impact

C.

Qualitative risk analysis

D.

Risk response planning

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Question # 56

Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will pay a fixed total price plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved.

A.

For which type of contract have they subscribed?

B.

Fixed-price-incentive-fee contracts (FPIF)

C.

Firm-fixed-price-contracts (FFP)

D.

Fixed price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)

E.

Time and material contracts (T&M)

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Question # 57

Which of the following is the LEAST effective way to influence the factors that create changes to the cost baseline?

A.

Review the project scope with the functional manager responsible for the greatest number of requested changes.

B.

Explain to those requesting changes the negative impact of change to the project.

C.

Eliminate the scope causing the most changes.

D.

Notify all stakeholders that no more changes will be allowed.

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Question # 58

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

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Question # 59

A project manager for a small construction company has a project that was budgeted for US $130,000 over a six-week period. According to her schedule, the project should have cost US $60,000 to date. However, it has cost US $90,000 to date. The project is also behind schedule, because the original estimates were not accurate.

Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to solve this problem?

A.

Project manager

B.

Senior management

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Manager of the project management office

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Question # 60

The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes?

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Perform Quality Control

D.

Identify Stakeholders

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Question # 61

Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?

A.

Flowcharting

B.

Earned value

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Pareto analysis

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Question # 62

Most project (and non-project) managers prefer _____ communications.

A.

Lateral

B.

Oral

C.

Downward

D.

Written

E.

Upward

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Question # 63

While project work is being done, conflicts can arise between the procurement officer and the project manager because the procurement officer:

A.

Is the only one who can change the contract.

B.

Works for a different department.

C.

Needs to obtain the project manager's approval to make project changes.

D.

Has a different approach to creating a contract.

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Question # 64

Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?

A.

Network reserve analysis

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Lead and lag adjustment

D.

Critical path method

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Question # 65

Formal written correspondence is mandated in which of the following situations:

A.

Client requests additional work not covered under contract

B.

None of the other alternatives apply

C.

Both 1) Client requests additional work not covered under contract, and 2) Project manager calls a meeting.

D.

Project manager calls a meeting

E.

Product undergoes casual in-house testing

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Question # 66

Many companies self-insure against some risk. Problems which can arise from self-insurance include:

A.

confusion of business risks with insurable risks.

B.

Both 1) failure to reserve funds to handle worst case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in severe financial damage to the company, and 2) confusion of business risks with insurable risks.stiff competition from insurance companies

C.

All of the other alternatives apply.

D.

failure to reserve funds to handle worst case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in severe financial damage to the company

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Question # 67

The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following?

A.

Subdivide the estimated costs of individual activities

B.

Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components

C.

Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units

D.

Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed

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Question # 68

As the project manager, you are preparing your methods for quality management. You are looking for a method that can demonstrate the relationship between events and their resulting effects. You want to use a method to depict the events that cause a negative effect on quality.

Which of the following is the BEST choice for accomplishing your objective?

A.

Histogram

B.

Pareto chart

C.

Ishikawa diagram

D.

Control chart

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Question # 69

What is the definition of project plan execution?

A.

Integrating all planned activities.

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan.

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan.

D.

Execution of deliverables.

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Question # 70

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 71

You are a project manager for Dutch Harbor Consulting. Your latest project involves the upgrade of an organization's operating system on 236 servers. You performed this project under contract.

You are in the Closing process and know that product verification is for what purpose?

A.

To verify that all the work was completed correctly and satisfactorily

B.

To evaluate project goals and ensure that the product of the project meets the requirements

C.

To verify the goals of the project and ensure that the product of the project is complete

D.

To evaluate all the work of the project and compare the results to project scope

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Question # 72

A project may be defined as ________.

A.

an integrated approach to managing projects

B.

a coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities.

C.

a group of activities directed by a project manager over a life cycle

D.

All of the other alternatives apply.

E.

an undertaking with a defined starting point and defined objectives

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Question # 73

The customer's expectations for quality are shown on a control chart as the:

A.

Mean.

B.

Specification limits.

C.

Rule of seven.

D.

Upper and lower control limits.

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Question # 74

How is the process of collecting requirements defined?

A.

Defining and documenting project sponsors' needs to meet the project objectives

B.

Defining and documenting stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectives

C.

Defining and documenting the project teams' needs to meet the project objectives

D.

Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives

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Question # 75

Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Question # 76

Employee unions would most likely satisfy which level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

A.

Empowerment

B.

Self-actualization

C.

Belonging

D.

Esteem

E.

Safety

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Question # 77

Which of the following must not performed in the project initiation process?

A.

Evaluate historical information

B.

List down business need

C.

List down stakeholders

D.

Create scope statement

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Question # 78

Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.

What is the total float on path BEG?

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

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Question # 79

Which of the following is NOT a reason to measure variances from the baseline?

A.

To catch deviations early

B.

To allow early corrective action

C.

To determine if there are any wild fluctuations

D.

To create a project control system

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Question # 80

A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?

A.

Project manager is appointed

B.

Stakeholders approve the project

C.

Project charter is approved

D.

Project sponsor approves the project

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Question # 81

Which of the following techniques uses historical information to estimate the activity duration?

A.

Three-point estimating

B.

Organizational process asset

C.

Analogous estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

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Question # 82

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 Principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control Chart

C.

Run Chart

D.

Pareto Chart

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Question # 83

Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.

What is the critical path duration for the given schedule network?

A.

22

B.

23

C.

24

D.

25

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Question # 84

A non-critical path activity is completed in half the time. Then, ___________.

A.

All of the other alternatives apply.

B.

The slack in the path containing this activity will increase.

C.

The total cost for this activity has decreased.

D.

The critical path is also reduced.

E.

Manpower from this activity can be assigned to other activities.

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Question # 85

What does a SPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A.

More work was completed than planned

B.

Less work was completed than planned

C.

Cost overrun for completed work has occurred

D.

Cost underrun for completed work has occurred

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Question # 86

Which one of the following is not an acquisition method?

A.

negotiation

B.

invitation

C.

purchase

D.

advertising

E.

all are acquisition methods

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Question # 87

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A.

Requested changes

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Approved change requests

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Question # 88

A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved project charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:

A.

Create a project scope statement.

B.

Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.

C.

Analyze project risk.

D.

Begin work on a project management plan.

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Question # 89

Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which process?

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Risks

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Question # 90

The project manager has performed schedule network analysis, compressed the schedule, and completed a Monte Carlo analysis.

What time management activity should be done NEXT?

A.

Update resource requirements

B.

Recommend corrective actions

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Create a milestone list

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Question # 91

All of the following statements about acceptance sampling are true except:

A.

Acceptance sampling plans do not directly control the quality of a series of lots; they instead specify the risk of accepting lots of given quality.

B.

Acceptance sampling plans are never effective at rejecting nonconforming units as 100 percent inspection, even when the inspection process is very tedious.

C.

Acceptance sampling plans are not very effective for inspecting small lots of custom-made products.

D.

Acceptance sampling plans are beneficial when the cost of inspection is high and the resulting loss of passing nonconforming units is not great.

E.

Acceptance sampling plans are necessary when destructive inspections are required.

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Question # 92

During which process would you obtain stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

A.

Quality control

B.

Scope verification

C.

Scope control

D.

Close project

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Question # 93

Rolling wave planning is used as a tool and a technique in which of the following processes?

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Sequence Activities

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