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IIA-CIA-Part2 Practice of Internal Auditing Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization's risk management program?

A.

Identify and manage risks in line with the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Ensure that a proper and effective risk management process exists.

C.

Attain an adequate understanding of the organization's key risk mitigation strategies.

D.

Identify and ensure that appropriate controls exist to mitigate risks.

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Question # 5

During an engagement in one of the subsidiaries of an organization, an internal auditor noted the following in the workpapers:

"As a subsidiary of a multinational organization in this particular country, the entity is required to register annually with the

respective ministry. However, the subsidiary did not submit the required documentation for registration during the prior year. Failure

to comply with internal and external regulations could lead to penalties or fines from the respective authorities. It is recommended

that the management of the subsidiary ensures compliance with the relevant legislation. As a recoverable action, management

should register the subsidiary in the current year as soon as possible."

What part of this narrative represents a condition of the observation made by auditors in the final report?

A.

" ... the subsidiary did not submit required documentation for registration in the prior year."

B.

" ... the entity is required to register annually with the respective ministry."

C.

" ... failure to comply with internal and external regulations might lead to penalties or fines from the respective authorities."

D.

" ... management should register the subsidiary in the current year as soon as possible."

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Question # 6

Which of the following statement is consistent with IIA guidance the use of mentoring for internal auditors?

A.

The member and the internal auditor should opt for informal meetings even if it means that no formal documentation will be created.

B.

The mentor relationship is usually not suitable for internal audit staff, as it does not leas to professional development.

C.

The value of mentoring is derived primarily from the personal relationship between the two parties involved, and the mentor’s level of relevant experience should not be a key factor.

D.

The mentor should be the internal auditor’s supervisor to ensure that the auditor performance is assessed in a relevant and meaningful context.

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Question # 7

An internal audit activity plans its engagements based on an organization-wide risk assessment. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the required frequency of the risk assessment?

A.

The risk assessment must be performed at least quarterly.

B.

The risk assessment must be performed at least annually.

C.

The risk assessment must be performed at least once every five years, in alignment with the internal audit activity's quality assurance and improvement program.

D.

There is no specific requirement; a risk assessment should be performed as needed to account for changes in the business environment.

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Question # 8

Which of the following statements is false regarding audit criteria?

A.

Audit criteria should be consistent across audit assignments.

B.

Audit criteria should represent reasonable standards against which to assess existing conditions.

C.

Audit criteria should provide flexibility but allow identification of nonadherence.

D.

Audit criteria should equate to good or acceptable management practices.

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Question # 9

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal control questionnaires?

A.

Internal control questionnaires are useful m evaluating the effectiveness of standard operating procedures

B.

internal control questionnaires provide reliable documents allowing internal auditors to cover many control procedures in little time

C.

Internal control questionnaires can be used by internal auditors as an interview guide

D.

Internal control questionnaires provide direct audit evidence which may need corroboration

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Question # 10

An organization recently acquired a subsidiary in a new industry, and management asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a comprehensive audit of the subsidiary prior to recommencing operations The CAE is unsure her team has the necessary skills and knowledge to accept the engagement According to IIAguidance, which of the following responses by the CAE would be most appropriate?

A.

The CAE should accept the engagement and ensure that an explanation of the expertise limitations is included in the final audit report.

B.

The CAE should ask management to hire an external expert who is familiar with the industry to perform an independent audit for management

C.

The CAE should accept the engagement and hire an external expert to assist the audit team with the audit of the subsidiary

D.

The CAE should recommend postponing the engagement until the internal audit team is able to develop sufficient knowledge of the new industry

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Question # 11

An engagement work program o of greatest value to audit management when which of the following is true?

A.

The work program provides more detailed support for the audit report

B.

The work program helps determined the required amount of audit resources

C.

The work program helps ensure tie achievement of the engagement objectives

D.

The work program assists the auditor n developing and managing audit tests

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Question # 12

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 13

The audit plan requires a review of the testing procedures used in pre-production of a large information system prior to its live launch. If the chief audit executive (CAE) is uncertain that the current audit team has all the required knowledge to conduct the engagement, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take to preserve independence?

A.

Contract with the software vendor to provide an appropriate resource.

B.

Ask for a knowledgeable resource from the IT department.

C.

Make use of an external service provider.

D.

Request audit resources through the external auditor.

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Question # 14

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization's strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization's business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

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Question # 15

Upon concluding the engagement fieldwork an internal auditor discusses the audit findings with operational management There is a greater likelihood that the auditor will obtain a responsive action plan from management when both parties agree on which of the following attributes of the audit finding?

A.

Criteria

B.

Condition

C.

Cause

D.

Effect

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Question # 16

An internal auditor has suspicions that the management of a department splits me number of planned purchases to avoid the approval process required for larger purchases. Which of the following would be the most efficient technique to help the auditor identify the seventy of this malpractice?

A.

Examining the entire population

B.

Asking management about the malpractice

C.

Testing a sample of random transactions.

D.

Using data analytics

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Question # 17

An organization is experiencing a significant risk that threatens its financial well-being Senior management requested that the chief audit executive (CAE) meet with them to discuss the risk. Which of the following would best describe the CAE's responsibility at the meeting?

A.

Inform senior management of the appropriate actions they should take to control the risk

B.

Recommend that the internal audit activity provide consulting services to help minimize the risk

C.

Assume the responsibility of resolving the significant risk that will affect the organization

D.

Determine whether senior management accepted risk that may be deemed unacceptable for the organization

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Question # 18

What is the purpose of an internal control questionnaire?

A.

To gather information from a sample of people who are geographically dispersed

B.

To assess risks that could prevent an audited area from achieving its objectives.

C.

To evaluate tie level of compliance of remote offices with centrally designed procedures

D.

To perform testing of controls more frequently

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Question # 19

When auditing an organization's purchasing function, which of the following appropriately matches an engagement objective and the resulting audit procedure?

A.

Determine whether the purchasing department complies with policy by examining a random selection of purchase orders.

B.

Evaluate whether purchasing requests are properly approved by authorized staff by obtaining independent verification from the vendors.

C.

Ascertain whether material receipts are recorded on a timely basis by reviewing physical inventory stock counts.

D.

Determine whether prices charged for goods received are correct by reviewing the appropriate accounts payable record by vendor.

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Question # 20

Which of The following best describes a risk that is deemed "unacceptable" to the organization?

A.

A risk where likelihood and impact are high

B.

A risk where inherent risk exceeds its residual risk

C.

A risk where inherent risk exceeds the tolerance level

D.

A risk where residual risk exceeds the tolerance level

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Question # 21

Which of the following is most likely to be judged as a significant residual risk that would exceed the organization's acceptable risk level?

A.

Any risk involving organizational expansion into a new geographical area with an unstable political environment.

B.

Any risk involving investments into bitcoin and suspicious derivatives

C.

Any risk that can cause material or financial loss

D.

Any risk that could cause injuries or pollute the environment

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Question # 22

What is the primary reason that audit supervision includes approval of the engagement report?

A.

To ensure the objectives of the area under review are met.

B.

To ensure senior management supports the report's conclusions.

C.

To ensure report style and grammar are appropriate.

D.

To ensure report findings are substantiated.

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Question # 23

When auditing an organization's cash-handling activates which of the following is the most reliable form of testimonial evidence an internal auditor can obtain?

A.

Testimony from the cashier who performs the processes being reviewed

B.

Testimony from me cashier's supervisor who knows how processes should be performed

C.

Testimony from a knowledgeable person who is independent of the cashiering duty

D.

Testimony from a manager who oversees all cashiering activities being reviewed

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Question # 24

Internal audit staff lacks the expertise to perform a fraud investigation engagement stemming from a whistleblowing incident. Which of the following is the most appropriate

option for the chief audit executive?

A.

Appoint an independent fraud investigation specialist to work with the selected internal auditors.

B.

Organize in-house fraud investigation training sessions for selected internal auditors.

C.

Assign an experienced auditor to the engagement for a development opportunity.

D.

Hire a new internal auditor who possesses fraud investigation experience.

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Question # 25

An internal auditor is conducting a preliminary survey of the investments area, and sends an internal control questionnaire to the management of the function. (An extract of the survey is provided below).

1. Are there any restrictions for any company's investments?

2. Are there any written policies and procedures that document the flow of investment processing?

3. Are investment purchases recorded in the general ledger on the date traded?

4. Is the documentation easily accessible to an persons who need in to perform their job?

Which of the following is a drawback of testing methods like this?

A.

They ore kitted as they do not allow the auditor to test many controls.

B.

They do not highlight control gaps

C.

They are not useful for identifying areas on which the auditor should locus.

D.

They are limited as there is a risk that management may not answer fairly.

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Question # 26

A code of business conduct should include which of the following to increase its deterrent effect?

1. Appropriate descriptions of penalties for misconduct.

2. A notification that code of conduct violations may lead to criminal prosecution.

3. A description of violations that injure the interests of the employer.

4. A list of employees covered by the code of conduct.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 27

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding audit workpapers?

A.

Review notes on audit workpapers must be retained to provide a record of questions raised by the reviewer.

B.

Audit workpaper documentation policies are reviewed and approved by the audit committee.

C.

Management of the department being audited should review the prepared workpapers for accuracy.

D.

Audit workpaper preparation contributes to the professional development of the internal audit staff.

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Question # 28

Which of the following should the chief audit executive do when evaluating the possibility of relying on external auditors' work?

A.

Perform comprehensive background checks on all independent auditors on the engagement.

B.

Recalculate all financial calculations to confirm competency.

C.

Examine objectivity and any perceived or actual conflicts of interest.

D.

Review audit tests employed in all previous audits.

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Question # 29

Internal control questionnaires are used to achieve which of the following objectives?

A.

To ascertain the operating effectiveness of a procedure

B.

To verify the accuracy of Information in a report

C.

To assess the controls mitigating major risks

D.

To determine whether specified contra procedures are in place

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Question # 30

According to the MA guidance, which of the following does the engagement work program test in a review of an organizational process?

A.

Process objectives.

B.

Process risks

C.

Process controls.

D.

Process scope

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Question # 31

An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?

A.

Testing controls where operating procedures vary.

B.

Testing controls in decentralized offices.

C.

Testing controls in high risk areas.

D.

Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.

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Question # 32

According to IIA guidance,which of the following is true about the supervising internal auditor's review notes?

• They are discussed with management prior to finalizing the audit.

• They may be discarded after working papers are amended as appropriate.

• They are created by the auditor to support her fieldwork in case of questions.

• They are not required to support observations issued in the audit report.

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Question # 33

An audit client responded to recommendations from a recent consulting engagement. The client indicated that several recommended process improvements would not be implemented. Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take in response?

A.

Escalate the unresolved issues to the board, because they could pose significant risk exposures to the organization.

B.

Confirm the decision with management and document this decision in the audit file.

C.

Document the issue in the audit file and follow up until the issues are resolved.

D.

Initiate an assurance engagement on the unresolved issues.

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Question # 34

Which of the following best describes external benchmarking using trend analysis for a subsidiary of an international company?

A.

Comparing the current ratio of the subsidiary with the current ratio of another company for the same period

B.

Comparing common-size financial statements of the subsidiary with the averages of the industry for the last two periods

C.

Comparing the sales of the subsidiary with the sales of another subsidiary for the last two periods.

D.

Comparing the sales of the subsidiary with the budgeted figures for the last two periods

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Question # 35

During a review of data privacy an internal auditor is tasked with testing management's identification and prioritization of critical data collected by the organization. Which of the following steps would accomplish this objective?

A.

interview management to determine what types of data are collected and maintained

B.

Trace data from storage to the collection sources to determine how critical data is collected and organized

C.

Review a sample of data to determine whether the risk classification is reasonable

D.

Document and test a data inventory and classification program by determining the data classification levels and framework

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Question # 36

The chief audit executive can illustrate the value of the internal audit activity by reporting which of the following to the board?

A.

The overall performance resulting from the internal audit balanced scorecard

B.

The number of outstanding and overdue management actions

C.

The experience of the organization's internal auditors

D.

The number of audits in the annual audit plan relative to similar organizations

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Question # 37

During an internal audit engagement, which of the following is true regarding the decision to use statistical sampling or nonstatistical sampling?

A.

The decision affects the test procedures performed.

B.

The auditor's response to errors detected will be influenced.

C.

The competence of the evidence obtained is greater with statistical sampling.

D.

Nonstatistical sampling may be more cost effective.

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Question # 38

An internal auditor suspects that employee turnover is unusually high at the organization's primary manufacturing plant To investigate this potential issue which of the following analytical approaches is the auditor likely to use?

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Vertical analysis

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost-benefit analysis.

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Question # 39

Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization's risk management program?

A.

Identifying and managing risks in line with the entity's risk appetite.

B.

Ensuring that a proper and effective risk management process exists.

C.

Attaining an adequate understanding of the entity's key mitigation strategies.

D.

Identifying and ensuring that appropriate controls exist to mitigate risks.

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Question # 40

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the annual audit plan?

A.

The annual audit plan should only be adjusted in response to problems with resourcing, scope, and data availability.

B.

The chief audit executive (CAE) may incorporate risk information, including risk appetite levels from management for the audit plan at her discretion.

C.

In an immature risk management environment it is preferable for the CAE to rely solely on her judgment regarding risk identification and assessment to develop the audit plan.

D.

The CAE may make adjustments to the annual audit plan as needed without senior management or board approval.

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Question # 41

Which of the following internal audit procedures commonly involves sampling?

A.

Confirmation and financial statement analysis

B.

Reperformance and inspection

C.

Vouching and tracing

D.

Trend analysis and benchmarking

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Question # 42

An internal auditor is conducting an initial risk assessment of an audit area and wants to assess management's compliance with privacy laws for safeguarding customer information stored on the organization's servers. Which course of action is appropriate for this phase of the engagement?

A.

Solicit the services of a specialist information systems auditor

B.

Obtain the most current approved copies of the organization's privacy policy

C.

Consult with legal counsel about new privacy laws to establish appropriate criteria

D.

Consider the detection risk of noncompliance with the laws

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Question # 43

The chief audit executive (CAE) should determine whether the internal audit activity has confirmed the status of all of management's corrective actions Doing so would help the CAE assess which of the following?

A.

Disclosure risk.

B.

Residual risk

C.

Compliance risk

D.

Inherent risk

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Question # 44

According to IIA guidance which of the following represents sufficient information?

A.

Information that is factual adequate and convincing

B.

Information that is best attainable through the use of appropriate engagement techniques

C.

Information that supports engagement objectives and recommendations

D.

Information that helps the organization meet its goals

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Question # 45

An internal audit team leader is having difficulties completing the planning phase of an assurance engagement because the business unit lacks a system of internal controls. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal audit team leader?

A.

Defer the engagement until a system of internal control has been established

B.

Change the scheduled engagement from assurance to consulting to help correct the shortcomings

C.

Add a consulting component to the already scheduled assurance engagement

D.

Seek the involvement of the external auditor to assist with improving the internal controls

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Question # 46

How do internal auditors generally determine the priority of the areas within the engagement scope?

A.

By calculating the period of time when the area was last audited try internal auditors

B.

By totaling the monetary value of the processes within the organization in the scope of the engagement

C.

By counting the number of red flags indicating the potential fraudulent activities within the area.

D.

By estimating the likelihood of a risks occurring and the potential impact of that risk on the organization

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Question # 47

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) plans to test conformance with the Standards through a quality assurance review. According to the Standards, which of the following are acceptable practice for this review?

1. Use an external service provider.

2. Conduct a self-assessment with independent validation.

3. Arrange for a review by qualified employees outside of the IAA.

4. Arrange for reciprocal peer review with another CAE.

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 4

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Question # 48

An organization buys crude oil on the open market and refines it into a high-quality gasoline. The price of crude oil is extremely volatile. Which of the following is the most appropriate risk management technique to protect the organization against these price fluctuations?

A.

Enter into long-term gasoline purchase agreements with end customers.

B.

Trade crude oil derivatives at financial markets in order to benefit from price fluctuations

C.

Purchase crude oil-related derivatives such as futures or options

D.

Stock as much raw materials as possible and consider Investing into additional facilities

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Question # 49

Which of the following statements about internal audit's follow-up process is true?

A.

The nature, timing, and extent of follow-up for assurance engagements is standardized to ensure quality performance.

B.

The actions of external auditors and other external assurance providers is not encompassed by internal audit's follow-up process.

C.

Internal auditors have responsibility for determining if management and the board have implemented the recommended action or otherwise accepted the risk.

D.

The follow-up process must be complete and documented in the working papers in order to conclude the engagement.

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Question # 50

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using flowcharts during a risk assessment?

A.

People cannot quickly understand the processes via flowcharts

B.

Flowcharts are not applicable for evaluating the design of controls

C.

Some serious risks that are not part of the linear process can be missed

D.

Flowcharts do not enable auditors to identify missing controls

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Question # 51

While reviewing the workpapers and draft report from an audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) found that an important compensating control had not been considered adequately by the audit team when it reported a major control weakness. Therefore, the CAE returned the documentation to the auditor in charge for correction. Based on this information, which of the following sections of the workpapers most likely would require changes?

Effect of the control weakness.

Cause of the control weakness.

Conclusion on the control weakness.

Recommendation for the control weakness.

A.

1, 2, and 3.

B.

1, 2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Question # 52

In which of the following populations would the internal auditor most likely choose to use a stratified sampling approach?

A.

Inventory comprised of the same items stored in different warehouses

B.

Batches of materials that must be confirmed as meeting quality standards

C.

Revenue that is earned by an organization through cash receipts or as receivable.

D.

Tax reports submitted to meet the requirements of the local taxation authority

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Question # 53

An internal auditor is conducting a review of the procurement function and uncovers a potential conflict of interest between the chief operating officer and a significant supplier of IT software development services. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

A.

Inform the audit supervisor.

B.

Investigate the potential conflict of interest.

C.

Inform the external auditors of the potential conflict of interest.

D.

Disregard the potential conflict, because it is outside the scope of the audit assignment.

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Question # 54

Which of the following would be most useful for an internal auditor to obtain during the preliminary survey of an engagement on internal controls over user access management?

A.

The policy for granting, modifying, and deleting user access to ensure processing requirements are clearly articulated.

B.

A sample of change request forms to verify whether the forms bear the required approval for the user access change.

C.

User access reports that were reviewed by management to ensure that access rights are appropriate for employee roles.

D.

A current listing of system users and an employee listing to determine whether system users are active employees of the organization.

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Question # 55

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

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Question # 56

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be considered necessary for a one-person audit function?

A.

A formalized technical audit manual

B.

A written administrative audit manual

C.

A memorandum stating policies and procedures

D.

A comprehensive policy and procedure manual

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Question # 57

The chief audit executive (CAF) determined that the residual risk identified in an assurance engagement is acceptable. When should this be communicated to senior management?

A.

When the CAE reports the audit outcome to senior management.

B.

When the residual risk is identified before the engagement is complete.

C.

Immediately, as residual risk should be communicated as soon as possible

D.

When management of the area under review has resolved and mitigated the residual risk

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Question # 58

According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following is an appropriate reason for issuing an interim report?

To keep management informed of audit progress when audit engagements extend over a long period of time.

To provide an alternative to a final report for limited-scope audit engagements.

To communicate a change in engagement scope for the activity under review.

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

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Question # 59

Flowcharts are useful during audit planning because they contain information that may help internal auditors with which of the following?

A.

Understanding management's risk tolerance.

B.

Understanding business processes.

C.

Determining the size of the audit team needed to perform the review.

D.

Understanding organizational objectives.

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Question # 60

Following an IT systems audit, management agreed to implement a specific control in one of the IT systems. After a period, the internal auditor followed up and learned that management had not implemented the agreed management action due to the decision to move to another IT system that has built-in controls, which may address the risks highlighted by the internal audit. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to address the outstanding audit recommendation?

A.

The auditor examines the system documentation of the new system to verify that the risk has been addressed in the new system, then reports to senior management the closure of the issue.

B.

The auditor accepts management's explanation that the previously identified issue is adequately addressed by the new IT system, as management understands the concern and is most knowledgeable about the new system, and closes the outstanding issue.

C.

The auditor advises management that replacing the IT system does not dismiss the prior obligation to implement the agreed action plan, and escalates the issue to senior management and the board.

D.

The auditor requires management to provide details regarding the process for selecting the new IT system and whether other systems were evaluated, and closure of the issue would depend on the new information provided.

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Question # 61

An internal auditor develops an engagement observation related to an organization's accumulation of large travel advances. The auditor observes that the organization's procedures do not require justification for travel advances greater than a specific amount Which of the following best describes the organization's procedures?

A.

A criterion of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

B.

A condition of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

C.

A consequence of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

D.

A cause of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

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Question # 62

What type of audit engagement would be the most appropriate to determine how an organization could be more profitable in the long term?

A.

Operational audit

B.

Compliance and financial audit

C.

Performance audit

D.

Quality audit

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Question # 63

When presenting an observation m writing which or the Mowing is usually true regarding the level of detail provided?

1. The description of the observation in the final audit report contains more detail then the description m the engagement workpapers

2. The description of the observation m the engagement workpapers contains more detail than the descriptor n a preliminary observation document

3. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the final audit report

4. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the engagement workpapers

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and3

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 64

Which of the following would most likely prompt special notification from the chief audit executive to same management?

A.

Operational management has decried to weigh an audit issue against the organization's risk tolerance

B.

A controls inaccurate operation has materially impacted the accuracy of the poor year's financial statements

C.

Occurrences of asset misappropriation have been identified as a result of an ineffective operational control design

D.

The controls that management performed to confirm compliance with health and safety standards were not systematically documented

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Question # 65

What is the best course of action for a chief audit executive if an internal auditor identifies in the early stage of an audit that some employees have inappropriate access to a key system?

A.

Contact the audit committee chair to discuss the finding

B.

Obtain verbal assurance from management that the inappropriate access will be removed

C.

Issue an interim audit report so that management can implement action plans

D.

Ask the auditor to create a ticket with the IT help desk requesting to revoke the inappropriate access

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Question # 66

An internal auditor s examination of accounts receivable generates the following results:

What is the projected misstatement for the population if ratio estimation is used?

A.

$84,000

B.

$238,095

C.

$700,000

D.

$2100.000

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Question # 67

Which of the following is the most appropriate approach for the internal audit activity to follow up on management action plans?

A.

Create a tracking system for follow up

B.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed at least weekly.

C.

Delegate follow-up activities to qualified administrative staff within the business unit

D.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed by the most senior auditor on staff

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Question # 68

An internal auditor wanted to determine whether the organization's 200 employees are charging their work hours accurately to the correct project. The internal auditor selected a sample of 30 employee time reports for testing. Based on the testing, the internal auditor determined the following:

- 5 Time reports were incorrect.

- 21 Time reports were correct.

- 4 Time reports were not supported.

A.

The organization has significant flaws in its reporting of employee time, which could lead to the overstatement of project labor costs. The organization's failure to report accurate and complete employee time could lead to potential fraud and abuse.

B.

The organization needs to ensure that all reporting of employee time is accurate and complete for each of its projects By dang so the organization can minimize potential issues related to overstating employee tames and labor project costs.

C.

The organization overstated project costs due to inaccurate and incomplete reporting of employee time charged to the affected accounts As a result the organization cannot ensure at protects costs are accurately reported to stakeholders

D.

The organization generally ensured that employee hours charged to each project were accurate and complete. However, there were instances of employee time reports that were incorrect or not supported to justify the multiple project labor coats

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Question # 69

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding the exit conference for an internal audit engagement?

A.

A primary purpose of the exit conference is to provide for the timely communication of observations that call for immediate management action.

B.

Both the chief audit executive and the chief executive over the activity or function reviewed must attend the exit conference to validate the findings.

C.

The exit conference provides only anticipated results for inclusion in the final audit communication.

D.

During the exit conference, the performance of the internal auditors who executed the engagement is reviewed.

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Question # 70

Below is a flowchart detailing an organization's bank reconciliation process. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the flowchart?

A.

There is a conflict in the segregation of duties between preparing bank reconciliations and posting payments to the accounting books.

B.

There is an appropriate segregation of duties in the treasury department during the bank reconciliation process.

C.

There is a large workload for the treasury accountant during the bank reconciliation process.

D.

Bank statements should be obtained at a higher level, such as through the treasury supervisor.

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Question # 71

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations.

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagement’s planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques.

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Question # 72

An internal audit manager is planning a contract compliance audit Which of the following should be done prior to developing the audit work program?

A.

Select a sample of invoices for substantive testing

B.

Review the contract for evidence of authorization

C.

Document underlying reasons for noncompliance

D.

Assess the inherent risk of paying duplicate invoices

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Question # 73

According to IIA guidance, which of the following accurately describes the responsibilities of the chief audit executive with respect to the final audit report?

1. Coordinate post-engagement conferences to discuss the final audit report with management.

2. Include management's responses in the final audit report.

3. Review and approve the final audit report.

4. Determine who will receive the final audit report.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 74

Which of the following is not a primary reason for outsourcing a portion of the internal audit activity?

A.

To gain access to a wider variety of skills, competencies and best practices.

B.

To complement existing expertise with a required skill and competency for a particular audit engagement.

C.

To focus on and strengthen core audit competencies.

D.

To provide the organization with appropriate contingency planning for the internal audit function.

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Question # 75

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

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Question # 76

Due to emerging new technologies that greatly affect the organization, the chief audit executive (CAE) wants to conduct frequent IT audit and is particularly focused on improving the quality of these engagements. Which of the following is the most viable solution for the CAE to ensure that IT audit quality is immediately enhanced and maintained long-term?

A.

Each year send a different member of the internal audit staff to an IT audit conference to learn about emerging technologies

B.

Contract an external IT special to offer advice and consult on IT audits

C.

Employ an independent external IT specialist to perform IT audits for the first year

D.

Invite qualified staff from the IT department to serve as guest auditors and lead IT audits

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Question # 77

An engagement team is being assembled to audit of one of the organization's vendors Which of the following statements best applies to this scenario?

A.

The engagement team should include internal auditors who have expertise in investigating vendor fraud

B.

The engagement team should be composed of certified accountants who are proficient In financial statement analysis and local accounting principles

C.

To preserve independence and objectivity, an auditor who worked for the vendor two years prior may not participate on the engagement team

D.

The engagement team may include an auditor who lacks knowledge of the industry in which the vendor operates

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Question # 78

The internal auditor and her supervisor are in dispute about a risk that was not tested during an audit of the procurement function. Which of the following tools would best support the auditor's decision not to test the risk?

A.

A spaghetti map

B.

A heat map.

C.

A process map

D.

An assurance map

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Question # 79

An organization's board would like to establish a formal risk management function and has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to be involved in the process. According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles should the CAE not undertake?

A.

Manage and coordinate risk management processes.

B.

Audit risk management processes.

C.

Become involved in risk oversight committees, monitoring activities, and status reporting.

D.

Accept management's responsibility for risk management without board approval.

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Question # 80

The chief audit executive (CAE) for a manufacturing company included in this year s audit plan a review of the company's laboratory, using an experienced external service provider. The audit plan was approved by the audit committee without any changes At the time of engaging the external service provider, the CAE also secured the approval from the CEO. Who is responsible for ensuring that the conclusions reached for this exercise are adequately supported7

A.

Audit committee

B.

CEO

C.

CAE.

D.

External service provider

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Question # 81

White planning an audit engagement of a procurement card activity. which of the following actions should an internal auditor take to denary relevant risks and controls?

A.

Compare card transaction types against procurement card policy guidelines.

B.

Develop the scope and objectives of the engagement

C.

Determine how many cardholders exceeded their daily limit.

D.

Meet with the procurement card program administrator

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Question # 82

Acceding to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the risk assessment process performed by the internal audit activity?

A.

The assessment of high-level risks is typically a linear process.

B.

Management should create the preliminary risk matrix

C.

The analysis should begin with ne identification of objectives

D.

Likelihood should receive greater consideration than impact

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Question # 83

According to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing statements is true regarding an engagement supervisor's use of review notes?

A.

The engagement supervisor's review notes should be retained m the final documental or even after they are addressed.

B.

The engagement supervisor's review notes cannot be used as evidence of engagement supervision

C.

The engagement supervisor's review notes could be cleared from all final documentation after they are addressed

D.

The engagement supervisor's review notes must be maintained in a checklist separate from tie final documentation

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Question # 84

According to IIA guidance which of the following best describes reliable information?

A.

Reliable information is factual adequate, and convincing so that a prudent informed person would reach the same conclusions as the internal auditor

B.

Reliable information is the best attainable information through the use of appropriate engagement techniques

C.

Reliable information supports engagement observations and recommendations and is consistent with the objectives for the engagement

D.

Reliable information helps the organization and the internal audit activity meet its goals

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Question # 85

According to IIA guidance, organizations have the most influence on which element of fraud?

A.

Opportunity.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Incentives.

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Question # 86

Which of the following manual audit approaches describes testing the validity of a document by following it backward to a previously prepared record?

A.

Tracing

B.

Reperformance

C.

Vouching

D.

Walkthrough

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Question # 87

According to HA guidance on IT, which of the following actions would be performed as part of the "Define IT Universe" stage of the IT audit plan development process?

A.

Identify significant applications that support the business operations

B.

Assess risk and rank subjects using business risk factors

C.

Identify how the organization structures its business operations

D.

Select audit subjects and bundle into distinct audit engagements

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Question # 88

Which of the following statements is true regarding a drawback of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

A.

When internal auditors need to cover many control procedures using ICQs is generally less efficient than conducting observations and inspections

B.

It is generally difficult for internal auditors lo compile appropriate ICQs for business activities that are governed by standardized operating procedures

C.

ICQs are inadequate to provide effective assurance on how organizational processes are executed in practice.

D.

It is generally difficult for internal auditors to process completed questionnaires, because ICQs frequently elicit detailed comments and long answers from management

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Question # 89

An internal audit report includes a recommendation to remove inappropriate user access to an IT application. Which of the following does the recommendation represent?

A.

An agreed action adopted by management.

B.

A condition-based recommendation as an interim solution to correct a current condition.

C.

A cause-based recommendation to prevent inappropriate access being granted again.

D.

A management action plan.

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Question # 90

An internal auditor wants to assess the completeness of sales invoices issued by the organization over a period of time Providing that at the necessary data and analytics software is which of the following types of analyse would be appropriate to satisfy the auditor's objective?

A.

Payment terms analysis

B.

Duplicates analysts

C.

Aging analysis

D.

Gap analysis

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Question # 91

Which of the following factors would be the most critical in determining which engagements should be included in the annual internal audit plan?

A.

Whether an audit is explicitly required by the internal audit charter

B.

The extent to which the work to be performed is an assurance or consulting engagement

C.

The organization's annual risk management strategy

D.

Risks that are identified by operations staff or senior management

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Question # 92

An internal auditor is conducting an assessment of the purchasing department. She has worked the full amount of hours budgeted for the engagement; however, the audit objectives are not yet complete. According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate options available to the chief audit executive?

1. Allow the auditor to decide whether to extend the audit engagement.

2. Determine whether the work already completed is sufficient to conclude the engagement.

3. Provide the auditor feedback on areas of improvement for future engagements.

4. Provide the auditor with instructions and directions to complete the audit.

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Question # 93

During a consulting engagement an internal auditor wants to determine whether all principal stakeholders are involved in a project. Which tool should the auditor use?

A.

RACI (responsible, accountable, consult and inform) chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

SWOT{strengths. weaknesses opportunities, and threats) analysis

D.

Workflow analysis

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Question # 94

An organization owns vehicles that are kept off-site by employees to pick up and deliver orders. An internal auditor selects a specific vehicle from the fixed asset register for

testing. Which of the following would best provide sufficient, indirect evidence for the auditor to confirm the existence of the vehicle?

A.

Review logs of the vehicles assigned to employees for the delivery of goods during the engagement period.

B.

Visit the home address of the specific employee to see the selected vehicle.

C.

Compare the registered details of the vehicle in the fixed asset register to a date-stamped photograph of the vehicle.

D.

Seek independent confirmation of the vehicle's details from one of the delivery employees.

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Question # 95

Which of the following is an appropriate documentation of proper engagement supervision?

A.

A completed engagement workpaper review checklist.

B.

The supervisor's review notes on engagement workpapers.

C.

The email exchanges between the audit team and the supervisor.

D.

A supervisor's approval of resources allocated to the engagement

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Question # 96

Some lime after the final audit report was issued, the engagement supervisor teamed that several internal control deficiencies were not remedied, despite management's previous agreement to remedy them According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate response'5

A.

The engagement supervisor must notify the chief audit executive (CAE) that the deficiencies have not been rectified

B.

The engagement supervisor should rely on professional judgment as to whether the CAE should be informed, or the management action plan should be adjusted

C.

The engagement supervisor should rely on his negotiation skills and issue an ultimatum to management to remedy the control deficiencies

D.

Ensure that these deficiencies are captured in the documentation as high-priority areas to be reviewed during the next audit.

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Question # 97

Which informal ion- gathering method would be most efficient for an internal auditor to determine whether specified control procedures are in place?

A.

Interviews

B.

Observations

C.

Reperformance

D.

Internal control questionnaires

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Question # 98

The chief audit executive (CAE) is developing a workpaper preparation policy for a new internal audit activity. The CAE wants to ensure that all workpapers relate directly to the engagement objectives. Which of the following statements should be included in the policy specifically to address this concern?

A.

The workpapers should be understandable.

B.

The workpapers should be relevant.

C.

The workpapers should be economical.

D.

The workpapers should be complete.

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Question # 99

An internal auditor completed a review of expenses related to the launch of a new project. The auditor sampled 45 transactions approved by a senior project manager and identified 30 with questionable vendor documentation. Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the auditor to include in the audit report?

A.

The organization incurred excessive cost overruns that resulted in significant financial and legal risk to the project.

B.

The organization experienced a potential conflict of interest

C.

The organization had weaknesses in its review process which allowed questionable transactions with some vendors

D.

The organization allowed the project to launch without assurance that all transactions were regularly approved

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Question # 100

According to IIA guidance, which of the following typically serves as the basis for an engagement work program?

A.

Past audit findings.

B.

Scope and audit objectives.

C.

Techniques and resources.

D.

Stakeholders' expectations.

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Question # 101

An internal auditor performed a test of controls and found that a statistically selected representative sample of recorded transactions within the account receivables ledger had an error rate that was within management expectations. The associated revenue account was outside the scope of the audit engagement. How should the conclusion to this engagement be reported?

A.

The auditor should state that the error rate was within the selected confidence level.

B.

Negative assurance should be provided, as the associated revenue account was not examined.

C.

The auditor should state that controls over the recording of transactions in the revenue account are operating effectively.

D.

Positive assurance could be provided for the effectiveness of the accounts receivable controls.

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Question # 102

Which of the following is one of the five basic tnanoal statement assertions when an internal auditor evaluates controls over financial reporting?

A.

Reliability or appropriateness

B.

Reasonableness

C.

Existence or occurrence

D.

Relevance

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Question # 103

An internal auditor developed a list of internal and external risk considerations across the organization's processes, developed a scale to assess each risk and allocated the relative importance of each risk. When of the following approaches did the auditor take?

A.

Top-down approach

B.

Process-Metrix approach

C.

Risk-factor approach

D.

Bottom up approach

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Question # 104

According to IIA guidance, which of re following actions should the internal auditor take immediately after having considered fraud scenarios and identified and prioritized fraud risks?

A.

Determine which controls if any are in place to mitigate the fraud risks

B.

Follow protocol for internal reporting and investigating fraud allegations

C.

Research frauds that nave occurred t\ similar organizations

D.

Incorporate the fraud risk assessment into the engagement plan

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Question # 105

Which of the following is not a direct benefit of control self-assessment (CSA)?

A.

CSA allows management to have input into the audit plan.

B.

CSA allows process owners to identify, evaluate, and recommend improving control deficiencies.

C.

CSA can improve the control environment.

D.

CSA increases control consciousness.

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Question # 106

According to HA guidance, the chief audit executive is directly responsible for which of the following?

A.

Maintaining a quality assurance program even in the absence of management support

B.

Periodically reviewing and approving the internal audit charier

C.

Providing opportunities for all staff auditors to satisfy their professional development requirements

D.

Establishing the objectives scope and plan for each engagement

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Question # 107

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

A.

ICQs are most useful in more organic, decentralized organizations with specialized departmental or regional characteristics.

B.

An ICQ can be used effectively either by sending it in advance for management of the area under review to complete or by testing each procedure and recording the results.

C.

An ICQ is not an efficient tool, as it can only inquire about controls and it does not test them.

D.

ICQs are also known as checklist audits and encourage management of the area under review to answer "no" or "yes" more accurately.

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Question # 108

An internal auditor and engagement client are deadlocked over the auditor's differing opinion with management on the adequacy of access controls for a major system. Which of the following strategies would be the most helpful in resolving this dispute?

A.

Conduct a joint brainstorming session with management.

B.

Ask the chief audit executive to mediate.

C.

Disclose the client's differing opinion in the final report.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management for a decision.

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Question # 109

An internal auditor wants to determine whether employees are complying with the information security policy, which prohibits leaving sensitive information on employee desks overnight. The auditor checked a sample of 90 desks and found eight that contained sensitive information. How should this observation be reported, if the organization tolerates 4 percent noncompliance?

A.

The matter does not need to be reported, because the noncompliant findings fall within the acceptable tolerance limit.

B.

The deviations are within the acceptable tolerance limit, so the matter only needs to be reported to the information security manager.

C.

The incidents of noncompliance fall outside the acceptable tolerance limit and require immediate corrective action, as opposed to reporting.

D.

The incidents of noncompliance exceed the tolerance level and should be included in the final engagement report.

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Question # 110

Which of the following describes the primary objective of an internal audit engagement supervisor?

A.

Uphold the quality of the internal audit actively

B.

Provide engagement progress updates to management of the area under review

C.

Assure risks and controls are identified and assessed

D.

Ensure timely completion of the engagement

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Question # 111

After concluding a preliminary assessment, the engagement supervisor prepared a draft work program According to HA guidance which of the following would be tested by this program?

A.

The process objectives.

B.

The process risks

C.

The process controls

D.

The process scope

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Question # 112

Which of the following reasonably represents best practices regarding what should be the level of internal audit resource investment in monitoring and following up on engagement outcomes?

A.

Limited resources should be employed since the actual engagement is already completed and the onus of corrective actions rests with management

B.

No resources should be exclusively deployed for that at all rather it should be planned as part of future engagements in the same area

C.

Resources should only be provided towards this if doing so does not result in depletion of resources for new engagements planned in the current period

D.

Resources should be allocated to this without conditions as long as doing so meets the expectations of management and the judgment of the chief audit executive.

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Question # 113

Which of the following would be the most helpful to a chief audit executive when developing a talent management strategy?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Staff preferences

C.

Maturity analysis

D.

Extent of external audit coverage

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Question # 114

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the authority of the chief audit executive (CAE) to release previous audit reports to outside parties?

A.

The CAE can release prior internal audit reports with the approval of the board and senior management.

B.

The CAE can employ judgment and release prior audit results as they deem appropriate and necessary.

C.

The CAE can only release prior information outside the organization when mandated by legal or statutory requirements.

D.

The CAE can release prior information provided it is as originally published and distributed within the organization.

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Question # 115

Which of the following should be described in the recognition element of a typical internal audit repot?

A.

Positive aspects of the process or area under review

B.

A brief synopsis of the process of area under review

C.

Outcomes and ratings of the process or area under review

D.

Report issuance and the communication process of the engagement.

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Question # 116

Which of the following would be most likely found in an internal audit procedures manual?

A.

A summary of the strategic plan of the area under review.

B.

Appropriate response options for when findings are disputed by management.

C.

An explanation of the resources needed for each engagement.

D.

The extent of the auditor's authority to collect data from management.

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Question # 117

According to HA guidance, which of the following is the Key planning step internal auditors should perform to establish appropriate engagement objectives prior to starting an audit engagement?

A.

Review the organizational structure, management roles and responsibilities and operating procedures

B.

Evaluate management's risk assessment and the internal audit activity's risk assessment

C.

Assess process How and control documents used to meet regulatory requirements

D.

Review meeting notes from discussions involving management of the area to be reviewed.

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Question # 118

An internal auditor observes a double payment transaction on a supplier invoice during an accounts payable engagement. Which of the following steps would be the most effective in helping the auditor determine whether fraud exists?

A.

Switch the existing assurance engagement into a fraud investigation engagement

B.

Extend the audit scope and perform additional testing of controls on other related areas

C.

Review the poor year's transaction volume and amounts paid compared to the poor year's budget

D.

Perform data analytics on the supplier's information, invoiced amounts, and payments performed

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Question # 119

An internal auditor was assigned to review controls in the accounts payable function. Most of tie accounts payable processes are performed by a third-party service provider. The auditor included in the audit report a number of control deficiencies involving processes performed by the service provider. The service provider requested a copy of the report Which of Vie following would be the most appropriate response from the chief audit executive (CAE)?

A.

The CAE would automatically sand a copy of the report to the service provider as many of the findings relate to Via area managed by the service provider

B.

The CAE may distribute the report to tie service provider at no cost, after consulting with legal counsel and tie chief compliance officer

C.

The CAE may provide a copy of the audit report to the service provider If an agreement & signed and the service provider agrees to reimburse the cost of the audit

D, The CAE should benchmark with other organization in the industry by consorting with colleagues and distribute the report only I it is an acceptable practice m the industry

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Question # 120

Which of the following statements concerning workpapers is the most accurate?

A.

The organization and the format of workpapers is the same for all engagements

B.

The extent of what is included in workpapers is a matter of professional judgment

C.

Workpapers should be complete so that every conceivable question that can be raised should be answered

D.

Copies of operational managements records should not be included, but referenced so that they can be located

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Question # 121

During a fraud interview, it was discovered that unquestioned authority enabled a vice president to steal funds from the organization. Which of the following best describes this condition?

A.

Scheme.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Pressure.

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Question # 122

The human resources (HR) department was last reviewed three years ago and is due for an assurance engagement after undergoing recent process changes. Which of the following would the most effective option identify the HR department's risks and controls?

A.

Meet with the chief operating officer 10 obtain Information about the MR department

B.

Review the previous internal audit report and locus on key audit observations and action plans

C.

Review the organization's risk strategy and risk appetite framework

D.

Discuss the department's present strategies ‘and objectives with the head of the HR department

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Question # 123

The board has asked the internal audit activity (IAA) to be involved in the organization's enterprise risk management process. Which of the following activities is appropriate for IAA to perform without safeguards?

A.

Coach management in responding to risks.

B.

Develop risk management strategies for board approval.

C.

Facilitate identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Evaluate risk management processes.

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Question # 124

The internal audit activity has requested that new vendor information be summarized once per week in a single report, and that all invoices each week for these vendors be automatically flagged in the invoice processing system. Which of the following computerized audit techniques is the internal audit activity most likely applying?

A.

Enabling continuous auditing.

B.

Employing generalized audit software.

C.

Facilitating electronic workpapers.

D.

Using machine learning.

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Question # 125

An internal auditor for a regional bank suspects that the head of commercial lending has been granting loans without the required collateral Which of the following sampling techniques will be most effective for investigating the auditor's suspicion?

A.

Variables sampling

B.

Dollar-unit sampling

C.

Judgmental sampling

D.

Discovery sampling

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Question # 126

According to HA guidance, which of the following statements regarding audit workpapers is true?

A.

Audit reports should include the workpapers as a reference for the audit conclusions.

B.

The internal auditor's workpapers are the primary reference for reported control deficiencies.

C.

Ad-hoc communications with management of the area under review should be excluded from the workpapers.

D.

Both draft and final versions of workpapers should be saved at the end of the engagement

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Question # 127

An organization does not have a formal risk management function. According to the Standards, which of the following are conditions where the internal audit activity may provide risk management consulting?

There is a clear strategy and timeline to migrate risk management responsibility back to management.

The internal audit activity has the final approval on any risk management decisions.

The internal audit activity gives objective assurance on all parts of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

The nature of services provided to the organization is documented in the internal audit charter.

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

2 and 3 only.

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Question # 128

Which of the following represents a ratio that measures short term debt-paying ability?

A.

Debt-to-equity ratio.

B.

Profit margin.

C.

Current ratio.

D.

Times interest earned.

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Question # 129

A bakery chain has a statistical model that can be used to predict daily sales at individual stores based on a direct relationship to the cost of ingredients used and an inverse relationship to rainy days. What conditions would an auditor look for as an indicator of employee theft of food from a specific store?

A.

On a rainy day, total sales are greater than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

B.

On a sunny day, total sales are less than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

C.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are greater than expected.

D.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are less than expected.

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Question # 130

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

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Question # 131

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization's risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization's goals.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Question # 132

Which of the following would most Holy reflect the best possible engagement objectives?

A.

Engagement objectives derived from risk assessment results from a company's risk function experts.

B.

Engagement objectives derived from senior management's risk assessment results

C.

Engagement objectives derived from the mental audit activity's own risk assessment results

D.

Engagement objectives derived from risk assessment results from both senior management and the company's risk function experts

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Question # 133

Which of the following is most likely the subject of a periodic report from the chief audit executive to the board?

A.

A complete, accurate, and comprehensive account of engagement observations and recommendations.

B.

Oversight of the coordination between the internal audit activity and independent outside auditors.

C.

The internal audit activity's purpose, authority, responsibility, and performance relative to plan.

D.

Management's assertions regarding the system of internal controls.

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Question # 134

Which of the following is critical to the success of an effective interview?

A.

Present audit evidence and information to support the internal auditor’s line of questioning.

B.

Establish credibility, trust, and rapport.

C.

Develop flowcharts and review them with the interviewee.

D.

Observe the process and discuss it with the interviewee.

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Question # 135

Which of the following statements regarding the risk management process' support of the internal audit activity is true?

A.

The risk management process can provide more extensive internal audit services to the organization if it does not have an internal audit department

B.

The risk management process supports internal audit by evaluating whether critical controls are adequate and effective.

C.

The risk management process can determine whether all significant risks have been identified and are being treated.

D.

The risk management process establishes an organization-specific documented risk management framework.

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Question # 136

The chief audit executive of a medium-sized financial institution is evaluating the staffing model of the internal audit activity (IAA). According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most appropriate strategies to maximize the value of the current IAA resources?

• The annual audit plan should include audits that are consistent with the skills of the IAA.

• Audits of high-risk areas of the organization should be conducted by internal audit staff.

• External resources may be hired to provide subject-matter expertise but should be supervised.

• Auditors should develop their skills by being assigned to complex audits for learning opportunities.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Question # 137

A newly promoted chief audit executive (CAE) is faced with a backlog of assurance engagement reports to review for approval. In an attempt to attach a priority for this review, the CAE scans the opinion statement on each report. According to IIA guidance, which of the following opinions would receive the lowest review priority?

1. Graded positive opinion.

2. Negative assurance opinion.

3. Limited assurance opinion.

4. Third-party opinion.

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 138

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate actions for the chief audit executive regarding management's response to audit recommendations?

A.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

B.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

C.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

D.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

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Question # 139

When a significant finding is noted early during a review of the accounts payable function, which next course of action is best for communicating the issue?

A.

Intern accounting management via an interim memorandum update

B.

Note the item in the workpapers for inclusion in the final audit report

C.

Call a meeting and discuss me issue with the audit committee

D.

Alert the CEO as soon as the issue is discovered

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Question # 140

Which of the following is an inherent risk of issuing an opinion on the overall effectiveness of internal control?

A.

The results of individual engagements do not support a satisfactory opinion on the effectiveness of internal control.

B.

The results of the individual engagements do not support a positive assurance opinion on the effectiveness of internal control

C.

The audit risk and associated legal implications increase

D.

The reliance on other assurance providers increases

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Question # 141

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers.

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management.

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Question # 142

A corporate merger decision prompts the chief audit executive (CAE) lo propose interim changes to the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan''

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval.

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO tor approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CEO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval.

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Question # 143

A senior internal auditor is hired within the internal audit activity for a period of two years before advancing to an operations manager role within the business operations team. When staffing arrangement is being used in this scenario?

A.

Comer of competence

B.

Career model

C.

Rotational model

D.

Cosourcing agreement

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Question # 144

An internal auditor is testing the success of the IT support department in meeting the service levels guaranteed to small, medium and large customers. The customer's size classification is based on its annual expenditures with the organization and the nature and extent of services it receives. Which of the following sampling techniques would be the most suitable to select customers for this test?

A.

Interval sampling

B.

Cluster sampling

C.

Stop-and-go sampling

D.

Stratified sampling

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