Which statement is TRUE regarding the tools used in TPRM risk analyses?
Risk treatment plans define the due diligence standards for third party assessments
Risk ratings summarize the findings in vendor remediation plans
Vendor inventories provide an up-to-date record of high risk relationships across an organization
Risk registers are used for logging and tracking third party risks
Risk registers are tools that help organizations document, monitor, and manage their third party risks. They typically include information such as the risk description, category, source, impact, likelihood, rating, owner, status, and action plan. Risk registers enable organizations to prioritize their risks, assign responsibilities, track progress, and report on their risk posture. According to the CTPRP Study Guide, "A risk register is a tool for capturing and managing risks throughout the third-party lifecycle. It provides a comprehensive view of the organization’s third-party risk profile and facilitates risk reporting and communication."1 Similarly, the GARP Best Practices Guidance for Third-Party Risk states, "A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the risks associated with third parties. It helps to identify, assess, and prioritize risks, as well as to assign ownership, mitigation actions, and target dates."2
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Which approach for managing end-user device security is typically used for lost or stolen company-owned devices?
Remotely enable lost mode status on the device
Deletion of data after a pre-defined number of failed login attempts
Enterprise wipe of all company data and contacts
Remote wipe of the device and restore to factory settings
Remote wipe is a security feature that allows an administrator or a user to remotely erase all the data and settings on a device in case it is lost or stolen. This prevents unauthorized access to sensitive information and reduces the risk of data breaches. Remote wipe is typically used for company-owned devices, as it ensures that no company data remains on the device after it is lost or stolen. Remote wipe also restores the device to its factory settings, making it unusable for the thief or finder. Remote wipe can be performed through various methods, such as using a mobile device management (MDM) solution, a cloud service, or a built-in feature of the device’s operating system. References:
Which policy requirement is typically NOT defined in an Asset Management program?
The Policy states requirements for the reuse of physical media (e.9., devices, servers, disk drives, etc.)
The Policy requires that employees and contractors return all company data and assets upon termination of their employment, contract or agreement
The Policy defines requirements for the inventory, identification, and disposal of equipment “and/or physical media
The Policy requires visitors (including other tenants and maintenance personnel) to sign-in and sign-out of the facility, and to be escorted at all times
 An Asset Management program is a set of policies, procedures, and practices that aim to optimize the value, performance, and lifecycle of the organization’s assets, such as physical, financial, human, or information assets123. An Asset Management program typically defines policy requirements for the following aspects of asset management:
However, option D, a policy requirement that requires visitors (including other tenants and maintenance personnel) to sign-in and sign-out of the facility, and to be escorted at all times, is typically not defined in an Asset Management program. Rather, this requirement is more likely to be defined in a Physical Security program, which is a set of policies, procedures, and practices that aim to protect the organization’s premises, assets, and personnel from unauthorized access, damage, or harm . A Physical Security program typically defines policy requirements for the following aspects of physical security:
Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect a policy requirement that is typically defined in an Asset Management program. References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
Which statement is FALSE when describing the third party risk assessors’ role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework?
The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment
The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls
The Assessor's role is to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls conducted over a period of time in their report
The Assessor's role is to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, the third party risk assessor’s role is to evaluate the design and operating effectiveness of the third party’s controls based on an industry framework, such as ISO, NIST, COBIT, or COSO1. The assessor’s role is not to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls, but rather to report the results of the evaluation in a factual and objective manner2. The assessor’s role is also to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment, to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls, and to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes1. These are all true statements that describe the assessor’s role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework.
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Which factor is less important when reviewing application risk for application service providers?
Remote connectivity
The number of software releases
The functionality and type of data the application processes
APl integration
When reviewing application risk for application service providers, the most important factors are the functionality and type of data the application processes, the remote connectivity options, and the APl integration methods. These factors determine the level of exposure, sensitivity, and complexity of the application, and thus the potential impact and likelihood of a security breach or a compliance violation. The number of software releases is less important, as it does not directly affect the application’s security or functionality. However, it may indicate the maturity and quality of the software development process, which is another aspect of application risk assessment. References:
Which type of external event does NOT trigger an organization ta prompt a third party contract provisions review?
Change in company point of contact
Business continuity event
Data breach/privacy incident
Change in regulations
A change in company point of contact does not necessarily trigger an organization to prompt a third party contract provisions review, unless the contract specifically requires such a notification or approval. A change in company point of contact may affect the communication and relationship between the parties, but it does not affect the legal terms and obligations of the contract. However, other types of external events, such as business continuity events, data breaches/privacy incidents, and changes in regulations, may have a significant impact on the performance, compliance, and risk of the contract, and therefore may require a review of the contract provisions to ensure that they are still valid, enforceable, and aligned with the parties’ expectations and objectives. For example, a business continuity event may disrupt the delivery of goods or services, a data breach/privacy incident may expose confidential or personal information, and a change in regulations may impose new obligations or liabilities on the parties. These events may trigger clauses such as force majeure, termination, indemnification, or dispute resolution, and may require the parties to renegotiate or amend the contract accordingly. References:
Which statement BEST describes the use of risk based decisioning in prioritizing gaps identified at a critical vendor when defining the corrective action plan?
The assessor determined that gaps should be analyzed, documented, reviewed for compensating controls, and submitted to the business owner to approve risk treatment plan
The assessor decided that the critical gaps should be discussed in the closing meeting so that the vendor can begin to implement corrective actions immediately
The assessor concluded that all gaps should be logged and treated as high severity findings since the assessment was performed on a critical vendor
The assessor determined that all gaps should be logged and communicated that if the gaps were corrected immediately they would not need to be included in the findings report
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, risk based decisioning is the process of applying risk criteria to prioritize and address the gaps identified during a third-party risk assessment1. The assessor should analyze the gaps based on the impact, likelihood, and urgency of the risk, and document the findings and recommendations in a report. The assessor should also review the existing or proposed compensating controls that could mitigate the risk, and submit the report to the business owner for approval of the risk treatment plan. The risk treatment plan could include accepting, transferring, avoiding, or reducing the risk, depending on the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization1.
The other statements do not reflect the best use of risk based decisioning, as they either ignore the risk analysis and documentation process, or apply a uniform or arbitrary approach to prioritizing and addressing the gaps. The assessor should not decide or conclude on the risk treatment plan without consulting the business owner, as the business owner is ultimately responsible for the third-party relationship and the risk management decisions1. The assessor should also not communicate that the gaps would not be included in the report if they were corrected immediately, as this could compromise the integrity and transparency of the assessment process and the report2.
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Your company has been alerted that an IT vendor began utilizing a subcontractor located in a country restricted by company policy. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?
Notify management to approve an exception and ensure that contract provisions require prior “notification and evidence of subcontractor due diligence
inform the business unit and recommend that the company cease future work with the IT vendor due to company policy
Update the vender inventory with the mew location information in order to schedule a reassessment
Inform the business unit and ask the vendor to replace the subcontractor at their expense in “order to move the processing back to an approved country
This answer is the best approach because it aligns with the principles of third-party risk management, which include ensuring compliance with company policies, contractual obligations, and regulatory requirements. By asking the vendor to replace the subcontractor, the company is exercising its right to terminate or modify the relationship if the vendor fails to meet the agreed-upon standards or poses unacceptable risks. This also minimizes the potential impact of the vendor’s non-compliance on the company’s reputation, operations, and data security. The other options are less effective because they either ignore the issue, compromise the company’s policy, or rely on the vendor’s self-assessment without verification. References:
Which of the following changes to the production environment is typically NOT subject to the change control process?
Change in network
Change in systems
Change to administrator access
Update to application
Changes to administrator access are typically not subject to the traditional change control process, as they often pertain to user access management rather than modifications to the production environment's infrastructure or applications. Administrator access changes involve granting, altering, or revoking administrative privileges to systems, which is managed through access control policies and procedures rather than through change control. Change control processes are primarily concerned with changes to the network, systems, and applications that could affect the production environment's stability, security, and functionality. In contrast, managing administrative access is part of identity and access management (IAM), which focuses on ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to specific levels of information and system functionality.
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Which factor is MOST important when scoping assessments of cloud-based third parties that access, process, and retain personal data?
The geographic location of the vendor's outsourced datacenters since assessments are only required for international data transfers
The identification of the type of cloud hosting deployment or service model in order to confirm responsibilities between the third party and the cloud hosting provider
The definition of requirements for backup capabilities for power generation and redundancy in the resilience plan
The contract terms for the configuration of the environment which may prevent conducting the assessment
The most important factor when scoping assessments of cloud-based third parties that access, process, and retain personal data is to identify the type of cloud hosting deployment or service model. This is because different cloud models have different implications for the allocation of security responsibilities between the third party and the cloud hosting provider. For example, in a Software as a Service (SaaS) model, the cloud provider is responsible for most of the security controls, while in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, the third party is responsible for securing its own data and applications. Therefore, it is essential to understand the type of cloud model and the corresponding security roles and responsibilities before conducting an assessment. This will help to avoid gaps, overlaps, or conflicts in security controls and expectations. References:
When measuring the operational performance of implementing a TPRM program, which example is MOST likely to provide meaningful metrics?
logging the number of exceptions to existing due diligence standards
Measuring the time spent by resources for task and corrective action plan completion
Calculating the average time to remediate identified corrective actions
Tracking the number of outstanding findings
One of the key objectives of a TPRM program is to identify and mitigate the risks posed by third parties throughout the relationship life cycle. Therefore, measuring the operational performance of implementing a TPRM program requires tracking the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and activities. Among the four examples given, calculating the average time to remediate identified corrective actions is the most likely to provide meaningful metrics for this purpose. This metric indicates how quickly and consistently the organization and its third parties can resolve the issues and gaps that are discovered during the risk assessment and monitoring phases. It also reflects the level of collaboration and communication between the parties, as well as the alignment of expectations and standards. A lower average time to remediate implies a higher operational performance of the TPRM program, as it demonstrates a proactive and responsive approach to risk management12.
The other three examples are less likely to provide meaningful metrics for measuring the operational performance of implementing a TPRM program, as they do not directly measure the outcomes or impacts of the risk management activities. Logging the number of exceptions to existing due diligence standards may indicate the level of compliance and consistency of the TPRM program, but it does not show how the exceptions are handled or justified. Measuring the time spent by resources for task and corrective action plan completion may indicate the level of effort and resource allocation of the TPRM program, but it does not show how the tasks and plans contribute to the risk reduction or mitigation. Tracking the number of outstanding findings may indicate the level of exposure and vulnerability of the TPRM program, but it does not show how the findings are prioritized or addressed. References:
Which cloud deployment model is focused on the management of hardware equipment?
Function as a service
Platform as a service
Software as a service
Infrastructure as a service
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a cloud deployment model that provides users with access to virtualized hardware resources, such as servers, storage, and network devices. Users can install and run their own operating systems and applications on the cloud infrastructure, and have full control over the configuration and management of the hardware equipment. IaaS is suitable for organizations that need high scalability, flexibility, and customization of their cloud environment. IaaS is different from other cloud deployment models, such as function as a service (FaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), and software as a service (SaaS), which provide users with higher-level services and abstract away the underlying hardware details. References:
Physical access procedures and activity logs should require all of the following EXCEPT:
Require multiple access controls for server rooms and data centers
Require physical access logs to be retained indefinitely for audit purposes
Record successful and unsuccessful attempts including investigation of unsuccessful access attempts
Include a process to trigger review of the logs after security events
Physical access procedures and activity logs are important components of third-party risk management, as they help to ensure the security and integrity of the physical assets and data of the organization and its third parties. However, requiring physical access logs to be retained indefinitely for audit purposes is not a best practice, as it may pose legal, regulatory, and operational challenges. According to the Supplemental Examination Procedures for Risk Management of Third-Party Relationships, physical access logs should be retained for a reasonable period of time, consistent with the organization’s policies and procedures, and in compliance with applicable laws and regulations1. Retaining physical access logs indefinitely may increase the risk of unauthorized access, data breaches, privacy violations, and litigation2. Therefore, the statement B is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect a best practice for physical access procedures and activity logs.
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Which statement is FALSE when describing the differences between security vulnerabilities and security defects?
A security defect is a security flaw identified in an application due to poor coding practices
Security defects should be treated as exploitable vulnerabilities
Security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous
A security defect can become a security vulnerability if undetected after migration into production
 Security vulnerabilities and security defects are not synonymous, but rather different concepts that relate to the security of software products or services. A security vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in the software that can be exploited by an attacker to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or data12. A security defect is a mistake or error in the software code that causes the software to behave in an unexpected or incorrect way34. A security defect may or may not lead to a security vulnerability, depending on the context and impact of the defect. For example, a security defect that causes a buffer overflow may result in a security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary code on the system. However, a security defect that causes a spelling error in the user interface may not pose a security risk at all.
Security vulnerabilities and security defects have different causes, consequences, and solutions. Security vulnerabilities are often caused by design flaws, logic errors, or insufficient security controls in the software12. Security defects are often caused by poor coding practices, lack of testing, or human mistakes in the software development process34. Security vulnerabilities can have severe consequences for the software users, providers, and stakeholders, such as data breaches, identity theft, fraud, or sabotage12. Security defects can have various consequences for the software functionality, performance, or usability, such as crashes, glitches, or bugs34. Security vulnerabilities require proactive and reactive measures to prevent, detect, and mitigate the potential attacks, such as security testing, patching, monitoring, and incident response12. Security defects require corrective and preventive measures to identify, resolve, and avoid the errors, such as code review, debugging, refactoring, and quality assurance34.
Therefore, the statement that security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous is FALSE. They are distinct but related aspects of software security that require different approaches and techniques to address them. References: 1: What is a Software Vulnerability? | Veracode 2: Software Security: differences between vulnerabilities and Defects 3: What is a Software Defect? - Definition from Techopedia 4: Are vulnerabilities discovered and resolved like other defects? - Springer
Select the risk type that is defined as: “A third party may not be able to meet its obligations due to inadequate systems or processesâ€.
Reliability risk
Performance risk
Competency risk
Availability risk
 Performance risk, defined as the risk that a third party may not be able to meet its obligations due to inadequate systems or processes, accurately describes the situation. This type of risk involves concerns about the third party's ability to deliver services or products at the required performance level, potentially due to limitations in their technology infrastructure, operational procedures, or management practices. Identifying and managing performance risk is essential in Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) to ensure that third-party vendors can reliably meet contractual and service-level agreements, thereby minimizing the impact on the organization's operations and service delivery.
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Which of the following BEST reflects components of an environmental controls testing program?
Scheduling testing of building access and intrusion systems
Remote monitoring of HVAC, Smoke, Fire, Water or Power
Auditing the CCTV backup process and card-key access process
Conducting periodic reviews of personnel access controls and building intrusion systems
Remote monitoring of HVAC, Smoke, Fire, Water, or Power systems best reflects components of an environmental controls testing program. These systems are critical to ensuring the physical security and operational integrity of data centers and IT facilities. Environmental controls testing programs are designed to verify that these systems are functioning correctly and can effectively respond to environmental threats. This includes monitoring temperature and humidity (HVAC), detecting smoke or fire, preventing water damage, and ensuring uninterrupted power supply. Regular testing and monitoring of these systems help prevent equipment damage, data loss, and downtime due to environmental factors.
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Which type of contract termination is MOST likely to occur after failure to remediate assessment findings?
Regulatory/supervisory termination
Termination for convenience
Normal termination
Termination for cause
Termination for cause is the type of contract termination that is most likely to occur after failure to remediate assessment findings. This is because termination for cause is based on a breach of contract by the third-party, such as non-compliance, poor performance, fraud, or misconduct. Failure to remediate assessment findings indicates that the third-party has not met the contractual obligations or expectations of the entity, and thus exposes the entity to increased risk and liability. Termination for cause allows the entity to end the contract immediately or after a notice period, and to seek damages or remedies from the third-party. Termination for cause is different from other types of contract termination, such as:
Which action statement BEST describes an assessor calculating residual risk?
The assessor adjusts the vendor risk rating prior to reporting the findings to the business unit
The assessor adjusts the vendor risk rating based on changes to the risk level after analyzing the findings and mitigating controls
The business unit closes out the finding prior to the assessor submitting the final report
The assessor recommends implementing continuous monitoring for the next 18 months
When calculating residual risk, the best practice for an assessor is to adjust the vendor risk rating based on the changes to the risk level after analyzing the findings and considering the effectiveness of mitigating controls. Residual risk refers to the level of risk that remains after controls are applied to mitigate the initial (inherent) risk. By evaluating the findings from a third-party assessment and factoring in the mitigating controls implemented by the vendor, the assessor can more accurately determine the remaining risk level. This adjusted risk rating provides a more realistic view of the vendor's risk profile, aiding in informed decision-making regarding risk management and vendor oversight.
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Which statement is FALSE regarding analyzing results from a vendor risk assessment?
The frequency for conducting a vendor reassessment is defined by regulatory obligations
Findings from a vendor risk assessment may be defined at the entity level, and are based o na Specific topic or control
Identifying findings from a vendor risk assessment can occur at any stage in the contract lifecycle
Risk assessment findings identified by controls testing or validation should map back to the information gathering questionnaire and agreed upon framework
The frequency for conducting a vendor reassessment is not necessarily defined by regulatory obligations, but rather by the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as the changes in the vendor’s environment, performance, and controls. Regulatory obligations may provide some guidance or minimum requirements for vendor reassessment, but they are not the sole determinant of the reassessment frequency. According to the Shared Assessments Program Tools User Guide, "The frequency of reassessment should be based on the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as any changes in the vendor’s environment, performance, or controls. Regulatory guidance may also influence the frequency of reassessment."1 Similarly, the CTPRP Study Guide states, "The frequency of reassessment should be based on the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as any changes in the vendor’s environment, performance, or controls. Regulatory guidance may also influence the frequency of reassessment."2
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Which of the following actions is an early step when triggering an Information Security
Incident Response Program?
Implementing processes for emergency change control approvals
Requiring periodic changes to the vendor's contract for breach notification
Assessing the vendor's Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for resuming operations
Initiating an investigation of the unauthorized disclosure of data
According to the NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide1, one of the first steps in responding to an incident is to identify the scope, nature, and source of the incident. This involves gathering evidence, analyzing logs, interviewing witnesses, and performing forensic analysis. The goal is to determine the extent of the compromise, the type of attack, the identity or location of the attacker, and the potential impact on the organization and its stakeholders. This step is essential for containing the incident, mitigating the damage, and preventing further escalation or recurrence. References:
Which statement is TRUE regarding the onboarding process far new hires?
New employees and contractors should not be on-boarded until the results of applicant screening are approved
it is not necessary to have employees, contractors, and third party users sign confidentiality or non-disclosure agreements
All job roles should require employees to sign non-compete agreements
New employees and contactors can opt-out of having to attend security and privacy awareness training if they hold existing certifications
The onboarding process for new hires is a key part of the third-party risk management program, as it ensures that the right people are hired and trained to perform their roles effectively and securely. One of the best practices for onboarding new hires is to conduct applicant screening, which may include background checks, reference checks, verification of credentials, and assessment of skills and competencies. Applicant screening helps to identify and mitigate potential risks such as fraud, theft, corruption, or data breaches that may arise from hiring unqualified, dishonest, or malicious individuals. Therefore, it is important to wait for the results of applicant screening before onboarding new employees and contractors, as this can prevent costly and damaging incidents in the future.
The other statements are false regarding the onboarding process for new hires. It is necessary to have employees, contractors, and third-party users sign confidentiality or non-disclosure agreements, as this protects the company’s sensitive information and intellectual property from unauthorized disclosure or misuse. Non-compete agreements may not be required for all job roles, as they may limit the employee’s ability to work for other companies or in the same industry after leaving the current employer. They may also be subject to legal challenges depending on the jurisdiction and the scope of the agreement. Security and privacy awareness training is essential for all new employees and contractors, regardless of their existing certifications, as it educates them on the company’s policies, procedures, and standards for protecting data and systems from cyber threats. It also helps to foster a culture of security and compliance within the organization. References:
Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to trigger notification obligations in incident response?
Regulatory requirements
Data classification or sensitivity
Encryption of data
Contractual terms
Notification obligations in incident response are the legal or contractual duties to inform relevant parties about a security breach or incident that affects their data or systems. These obligations may vary depending on the type, scope, and impact of the incident, as well as the jurisdiction, industry, and contractual agreements involved. The factors that are most likely to trigger notification obligations are:
The factor that is least likely to trigger notification obligations is:
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Which factor is the LEAST important attribute when classifying personal data?
The volume of data records processed or retained
The data subject category that identifies the data owner
The sensitivity level of specific data elements that could identify an individual
The assignment of a confidentiality level that differentiates public or non-public information
 According to the GDPR, personal data is any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person (data subject). The GDPR does not consider the volume of data records as a relevant factor for classifying personal data, but rather the nature and context of the data. The GDPR requires data controllers and processors to apply appropriate technical and organizational measures to ensure a level of security appropriate to the risk of processing personal data, taking into account factors such as the state of the art, the costs of implementation, the nature, scope, context and purposes of processing, and the risks of varying likelihood and severity for the rights and freedoms of natural persons. Therefore, the volume of data records is not a decisive attribute for classifying personal data, but rather an indicator of the potential impact of a data breach or misuse.
The other factors listed in the question are more important attributes for classifying personal data, as they relate to the identification, protection, and rights of the data subjects. The data subject category that identifies the data owner refers to the type of natural person whose personal data is processed, such as customers, employees, patients, students, etc. This factor is important for determining the purpose and legal basis of processing, as well as the data subject’s rights and expectations1. The sensitivity level of specific data elements that could identify an individual refers to the degree of harm or discrimination that could result from the disclosure or misuse of such data, such as racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, trade union membership, genetic or biometric data, health data, sex life or sexual orientation, or criminal convictions or offenses2. The GDPR imposes stricter rules and obligations for the processing of such special categories of personal data, as they pose a higher risk to the data subject’s fundamental rights and freedoms. The assignment of a confidentiality level that differentiates public or non-public information refers to the degree of access and disclosure that is permitted or required for the personal data, depending on the data subject’s consent, the legitimate interests of the data controller or processor, or the applicable laws and regulations1. The GDPR requires data controllers and processors to implement data protection by design and by default, meaning that they should only process the personal data that is necessary for the specific purpose and limit the access to those who need to know.
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Which of the following components is NOT typically included in external continuous monitoring solutions?
Status updates on localized events based on geolocation
Alerts on legal and regulatory actions involving the vendor
Metrics that track SLAs for performance management
Reports that identify changes in vendor financial viability
External continuous monitoring solutions are tools or services that provide objective and timely data on the cybersecurity posture and performance of third-party vendors. They typically include components such as:
However, metrics that track SLAs for performance management are not typically included in external continuous monitoring solutions, as they are more relevant for internal monitoring and reporting. SLAs are service level agreements that define the expected quality, availability, and reliability of the vendor’s services or products, as well as the penalties or remedies for non-compliance. SLAs are usually measured and reported by the vendor itself, or by a third-party auditor or assessor, based on the specific criteria and frequency agreed upon by the parties . Therefore, option C is the correct answer. References:
Which of the following is NOT a key component of TPRM requirements in the software development life cycle (SDLC)?
Maintenance of artifacts that provide proof that SOLC gates are executed
Process for data destruction and disposal
Software security testing
Process for fixing security defects
In the context of Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) requirements within the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), a process for data destruction and disposal is not typically considered a key component. The primary focus within SDLC in TPRM is on ensuring secure software development practices, which includes maintaining artifacts to prove that SDLC gates are executed, conducting software security testing, and having processes in place for fixing security defects. While data destruction and disposal are important security considerations, they are generally associated with data lifecycle management and information security management practices rather than being integral to the SDLC process itself.
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For services with system-to-system access, which change management requirement
MOST effectively reduces the risk of business disruption to the outsourcer?
Approval of the change by the information security department
Documenting sufficient time for quality assurance testing
Communicating the change to customers prior ta deployment to enable external acceptance testing
Documenting and legging change approvals
For services with system-to-system access, ensuring sufficient time for quality assurance (QA) testing before implementing changes is crucial to reducing the risk of business disruption to the outsourcer. This requirement ensures that any modifications to the system are thoroughly vetted for potential issues that could impact the outsourcer's operations. QA testing allows for the identification and remediation of bugs, compatibility issues, and other potential problems that could lead to operational disruptions or security vulnerabilities. By allocating adequate time for QA testing, organizations can ensure that changes are fully functional and secure, thereby maintaining the integrity and availability of services provided to the outsourcer. This practice is aligned with industry standards for change management, which advocate for comprehensive testing and validation processes to ensure the reliability and stability of system changes.
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Which type of contract provision is MOST important in managing Fourth-Nth party risk after contract signing and on-boarding due diligence is complete?
Subcontractor notice and approval
Indemnification and liability
Breach notification
Right to audit
Fourth-Nth party risk refers to the potential threats and vulnerabilities associated with the subcontractors, vendors, or service providers of an organization’s direct third-party partners12. After contract signing and on-boarding due diligence is complete, the most important type of contract provision to manage Fourth-Nth party risk is subcontractor notice and approval. This provision requires the third party to inform the organization of any subcontracting arrangements and obtain the organization’s consent before engaging any Fourth-Nth parties345. This provision enables the organization to have visibility and control over the extended network of suppliers and service providers, and to assess the potential risks and impacts of any outsourcing decisions. Subcontractor notice and approval also helps the organization to ensure that the Fourth-Nth parties comply with the same standards and expectations as the third party, and to hold the third party accountable for the performance and security of the Fourth-Nth parties345. References:
In which phase of the TPRM lifecycle should terms for return or destruction of data be defined and agreed upon?
During contract negotiation
At third party selection and initial due diligence
When deploying ongoing monitoring
At termination and exit
Terms for return or destruction of data should be defined and agreed upon during contract negotiation, as this is the phase where the organization and the third party establish the expectations, obligations, and responsibilities for the relationship, including the handling of data. According to the Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, contract negotiation is the phase where "the organization and the third party negotiate and execute a contract that clearly defines the expectations and responsibilities of both parties, including the scope of work, service level agreements, performance measures, reporting requirements, compliance obligations, security and privacy controls, incident response procedures, dispute resolution mechanisms, termination rights, and other relevant terms and conditions."1 One of the key contractual terms that should be addressed is the return or destruction of data, which specifies how the third party will return or dispose of the organization’s data at the end of the relationship, or upon request, in a secure and timely manner. This term is important for ensuring the organization’s data protection, confidentiality, and compliance, as well as reducing the risk of data breaches, leaks, or misuse by the third party or unauthorized parties.
The other phases of the TPRM lifecycle are not the best choices for defining and agreeing upon terms for return or destruction of data, because:
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Which of the following would be a component of an arganization’s Ethics and Code of Conduct Program?
Participation in the company's annual privacy awareness program
A disciplinary process for non-compliance with key policies, including formal termination or change of status process based on non-compliance
Signing acknowledgement of Acceptable Use policy for use of company assets
A process to conduct periodic access reviews of critical Human Resource files
An organization’s Ethics and Code of Conduct Program is a set of policies, procedures, and practices that define the expected standards of behavior and ethical values for all employees and stakeholders. A key component of such a program is a disciplinary process that outlines the consequences and actions for violating the code of conduct or any other relevant policies. A disciplinary process helps to enforce the code of conduct, deter unethical behavior, and protect the organization’s reputation and integrity. A disciplinary process should include clear criteria for determining the severity and frequency of violations, the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved, the steps and timelines for investigation and resolution, and the range of sanctions and remedies available. A disciplinary process should also be fair, consistent, transparent, and respectful of the rights and dignity of the accused and the accuser. A disciplinary process may involve formal termination or change of status of the employee, depending on the nature and impact of the violation. Therefore, option B is a correct component of an organization’s Ethics and Code of Conduct Program.
The other options are not necessarily components of an Ethics and Code of Conduct Program, although they may be related or supportive of it. Option A, participation in the company’s annual privacy awareness program, is more likely to be a component of a Privacy Program, which is a specific area of ethics and compliance that deals with the protection and use of personal information. Option C, signing acknowledgement of Acceptable Use policy for use of company assets, is more likely to be a component of an Information Security Program, which is another specific area of ethics and compliance that deals with the safeguarding and management of data and systems. Option D, a process to conduct periodic access reviews of critical Human Resource files, is more likely to be a component of an Internal Control Program, which is a general area of ethics and compliance that deals with the design and implementation of controls to ensure the reliability and accuracy of financial and operational information. References:
Which activity reflects the concept of vendor management?
Managing service level agreements
Scanning and collecting information from third party web sites
Reviewing and analyzing external audit reports
Receiving and analyzing a vendor's response to & questionnaire
Vendor management is the process of coordinating with vendors to ensure excellent service to your customers12. It involves activities such as selecting vendors, negotiating contracts, controlling costs, reducing vendor-related risks and ensuring service delivery12. One of the key activities of vendor management is managing service level agreements (SLAs), which are contracts that define the expectations and obligations of both parties regarding the quality, quantity, and timeliness of the goods or services provided3. SLAs help to monitor and measure vendor performance, identify and resolve issues, and enforce penalties or rewards based on the agreed-upon metrics3. The other options are not correct because they do not reflect the concept of vendor management as a whole, but rather specific aspects or tools of vendor management. Scanning and collecting information from third party web sites, reviewing and analyzing external audit reports, and receiving and analyzing a vendor’s response to a questionnaire are all examples of methods or sources of information that can be used to conduct vendor due diligence, risk assessment, or performance evaluation, but they are not the only or the most important activities of vendor management. References:
The set of shared values and beliefs that govern a company’s attitude toward risk is known as:
Risk tolerance
Risk treatment
Risk culture
Risk appetite
 Risk culture is the term used to describe the collective way that an organization thinks about, manages, and responds to risk. It is influenced by the organization’s values, beliefs, norms, and practices, as well as the external environment and stakeholders. Risk culture affects how employees perceive, communicate, and act on risk issues, and how they balance risk and reward in their decision making. A strong risk culture is one that supports the organization’s strategic objectives, fosters accountability and transparency, and promotes learning and improvement. A weak risk culture is one that undermines the organization’s risk management framework, creates silos and conflicts, and exposes the organization to excessive or unnecessary risks. References:
Which risk treatment approach typically requires a negotiation of contract terms between parties?
Monitor the risk
Mitigate the risk
Accept the risk
Transfer the risk
Risk treatment is the process of selecting and implementing measures to modify risk, according to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. There are four main risk treatment options: avoid, reduce, transfer, or retain the risk123. Among these options, risk transfer typically requires a negotiation of contract terms between parties, as it involves shifting the responsibility or burden of the risk to another entity, such as an insurer, a supplier, a partner, or a customer1234. Risk transfer can be achieved through various contractual arrangements, such as insurance policies, indemnity clauses, warranties, guarantees, service level agreements, or outsourcing agreements1234. These arrangements usually involve a cost-benefit analysis, a due diligence process, and a mutual agreement on the terms and conditions of the risk transfer1234. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the only one that reflects a risk treatment approach that typically requires a negotiation of contract terms between parties. References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be included in an organization's mobile device policy?
Language on restricting the use of the mobile device to only business purposes
Language to require a mutual Non Disclosure Agreement (NDA)
Language detailing the user's responsibility to not bypass security settings or monitoring applications
Language detailing specific actions that an organization may take in the event of an information security incident
A mobile device policy is a set of rules and guidelines that define how an organization’s employees and contractors can use and secure their mobile devices, such as laptops, smartphones, and tablets, to access the organization’s data and network1. A mobile device policy typically covers aspects such as device configuration, authentication, encryption, backup, remote wipe, malware protection, acceptable use, and incident response23.
A mutual NDA is a legal agreement that binds both parties to protect the confidentiality of the information they share with each other. A mutual NDA is usually signed before engaging in a business relationship with a third party, such as a vendor, partner, or customer. A mutual NDA is not directly related to the use and security of mobile devices, and therefore is less likely to be included in an organization’s mobile device policy. A mutual NDA may be part of a broader contract or agreement with a third party, but it is not specific to mobile devices.
The other options are more likely to be included in an organization’s mobile device policy, as they address the risks and responsibilities associated with mobile devices. For example:
References:
Which example BEST represents the set of restrictive areas that require an additional authentication factor for access control?
Datacenters; telecom rooms; server rooms; exterior building entrance
Datacenters; telecom rooms; security operations centers; loading docks
Telecom rooms; parking garage; security operations centers; exterior building entrance
Exterior building entrance; datacenters; telecom rooms; printer rooms
Restrictive areas are those that contain sensitive or critical assets, systems, or information that require additional protection from unauthorized access or tampering. Access control is the process of granting or denying access to these areas based on predefined policies, rules, and criteria. An additional authentication factor is a method of verifying the identity or authorization of a user or device that is used in conjunction with another factor, such as a password, a token, or a biometric feature. Additional authentication factors enhance the security and reliability of access control by reducing the risk of impersonation, compromise, or theft of credentials.
The example that best represents the set of restrictive areas that require an additional authentication factor for access control is A. Datacenters; telecom rooms; server rooms; exterior building entrance. These areas contain vital infrastructure, equipment, and data that are essential for the organization’s operations, performance, and security. Unauthorized access to these areas could result in significant damage, disruption, or loss of data, services, or resources. Therefore, these areas should be protected by multiple layers of access control, including physical and logical barriers, as well as additional authentication factors, such as smart cards, biometrics, or one-time passwords.
The other examples are less likely to represent the set of restrictive areas that require an additional authentication factor for access control, because they either contain less sensitive or critical assets, systems, or information, or they are more accessible or visible to the public or other authorized users. For example:
References:
TESTED 22 Dec 2024