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CTFL_Syll2018 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Question and Answers

Question # 4

“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

A.

Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B.

Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.

C.

Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.

D.

Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

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Question # 5

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

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Question # 6

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

A.

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

B.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

C.

A form of white-box testing.

D.

A method to reduce test coverage.

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Question # 7

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

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Question # 8

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

A.

Correcting defects

B.

Locating defects in the code

C.

Preventing defects

D.

Ensuring no defects are present

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Question # 9

Before an invoice can be created, an account is required. Before an account can be set up, an account user is required (in order to set up the account). The software is delivered with a master user only, who can only create other types of users. The following test cases have been written to test the high-level structure of the software

a. Create an invoice

b. Amend an invoice

c. Process an invoice (send to customer)

d. Delete an invoice

e. Create an account

f. Create an account user

g. Amend an account user

h. Delete an account user

i. Amend an account

j. Delete an account

Which of the following test procedures would enable all tests to be run? [K3]

A.

f, g, a, c, b, d, e, i, j, h

B.

e, i, a, c, b, d, f, g, h, j

C.

e, i, f, g, a, c, b, d, h, j

D.

f, g, e, i, a, b, c, d, j, h

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Question # 10

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]

A.

Test planning ensures the level of detail in test procedures is appropriate for test execution

B.

Test planning schedules test execution but does not assign resources

C.

Test planning defines the overall approach to testing but does not schedule specific activities such as test execution

D.

Test planning identifies test objectives related to scope and risk but does not define the level of detail for test procedures used in test execution

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Question # 11

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?

(i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.

(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.

(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.

(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.

(v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.

(vi)Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

A.

ii, iii, iv, v

B.

i, iii, v, vi

C.

i, ii, iv, v

D.

iii, iv, v, vi

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Question # 12

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

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Question # 13

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

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Question # 14

Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

A.

Spelling mistake on an error message

B.

A potential infinite loop

C.

Memory leakage

D.

A variable set to the wrong value

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Question # 15

Which of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

A.

Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.

B.

Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.

C.

Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.

D.

Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

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Question # 16

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

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Question # 17

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

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Question # 18

The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. [K4]

The following test cases have been run:

Test Case 1 covering path P,Q,R,U

Test Case 2 covering path P,Q,S,V

Test Case 3 covering path P,Q,S,W,X

Test case 4 covering path P,Q,S,W,Y

Refer to the exhibit

A.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%

B.

Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.

C.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%

D.

Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%

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Question # 19

What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

A.

Use case testing

B.

Boundary value testing

C.

Statement testing and coverage

D.

State transition testing

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Question # 20

Consider the following pseudo code:

1. Begin

2. Input X, Y

3. If X > Y

4. __Print (X, ‘is greater than’, Y)

5. Else

6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to’, X)

7. EndIf

8. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

A.

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

C.

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

D.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

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Question # 21

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

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Question # 22

Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]

a. Test data preparation tools

b. Test harness

c. Review tools

d. Test comparators

e. Configuration management tools

A.

a and b

B.

c and d

C.

c and e

D.

b and d

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Question # 23

Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]

A.

Planning and control

B.

Analysis and design

C.

Implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Question # 24

Refer to the exhibit

The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed before the end of the test window

The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests.

Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account of the prioritisation and other constraints? [K3]

A.

b, c, g, d, e, i, a, f, h

B.

a, c, d, b, g, e, i, f, h

C.

c, a, d, b, e, g, i, h, f

D.

d, c, a, e, b, g, i, f, h

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Question # 25

Which of the following risks represents the highest level of risk to the project?

A.

Likelihood of failure = 1%, potential cost of impact = $1m.

B.

Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

C.

Likelihood of failure = 20%, potential cost of impact = $150,000.

D.

Likelihood of failure = 5%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

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Question # 26

Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]

A.

The 4 stage V model is always the best choice of software development model for any project

B.

The agile development model is usually most appropriate for short projects

C.

The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics

D.

The 2 stage V model is the most appropriate development model for simple products

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Question # 27

Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

A.

Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

B.

Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use

C.

Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

D.

Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

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Question # 28

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

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Question # 29

Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

A.

Executing the software work product

B.

Manually examining the code or project documentation

C.

Automated analysis of the code or project documentation

D.

Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation

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Question # 30

Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing? [K2]

A.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to delivered software and uses impact analysis to minimise the amount of regression testing needed

B.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to software under development before initial delivery and uses the test plan to determine how much regression testing to do

C.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the test environment and uses testing tools to perform regression testing

D.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the software environment and uses structural testing to ensure the changes function correctly

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Question # 31

Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

A.

Migration of software onto a new platform

B.

Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system

C.

Purchase of a new software tool

D.

Updating of a regression suite

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Question # 32

What is a test condition?

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

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Question # 33

A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: E1, E4, E5, E7. What will be the finishing state and the output(s) from the test case? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

A.

S2 and O4

B.

S4 and O2

C.

S4 and O4

D.

S2 and O2

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Question # 34

When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

A.

Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.

B.

Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.

C.

Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.

D.

Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

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Question # 35

Which one of the following is an example of how product risk analysis can influence the testing approach?

A.

The complex business rules could result in costly failures, so decision table testing will be used for test case design.

B.

Performance failures were much lower than expected, so more test analysis will be conducted in this area.

C.

There is a lack of automation skills in the test team, so training for the automation tool will be rolled out.

D.

There are no product risks recorded around security, so security testing will be given priority as a contingency measure.

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Question # 36

Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4, which are shown below:

Given the following additional test cases:

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve fill coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules a and 4?

A.

DT1, DT2

B.

DT2, DT3

C.

DT3, DT4

D.

DT1, DT4

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Question # 37

Given the following decision tables, what is the expected result for the test case listed below?

Test Case: Purchase a Toaster weighing 9kg for £10.

A.

No need to pay in cash, no free delivery.

B.

Must pay in cash, no free delivery.

C.

No need to pay in cash, free delivery.

D.

Must pay in cash, free delivery.

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Question # 38

Which of the following can be a common objective of testing?

A.

Gaining confidence about the level of the system's quality

B.

Fixing defects to improve the system's quality characteristics

C.

Providing information as part of the debugging activity

D.

Making sure the system performs as fast and as efficient as needed

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Question # 39

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

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Question # 40

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage.

B.

100% statement coverage means 100% branch coverage.

C.

100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage and vice-versa.

D.

It is impossible to achieve 100% statement coverage

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Question # 41

A supermarket rewards its customers with discounts on certain products depending on how much the customer spends over a twelve-month period. The discounts are:

• 5% discount - once £500 has been spent.

• 10% discount - once a further £500 has been spent.

• 15% discount - once a further £1000 has been spent.

• 20% discount - once a further £2000 has been spent.

The following test cases have been written: TC1 -£500 spent TC2 - £2000 spent

How many more test cases must be written to achieve 100% 2-pomt boundary value analysis for the discount scheme?

A.

4

B.

6

C.

7

D.

8

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Question # 42

An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states Open. Assigned. Solved. Closed.

Consider the following defect report:

Id: T000561

Test Object: "Warehouse Management" application

Tester name : John Bishop

Date: 10th, April 2010

Test Case MRT5561

Status: OPEN

Severity Serious

Priority:

Problem : After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen . the system shows an unexpected Error message = 47

Correction:

Developer name:

Closing date

Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?

A.

The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing

B.

The description is not highlighting the source of the problem

C.

The version of the application is missing

D.

There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)

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Question # 43

Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

Which of the following lest execution schedules BEST takes into account the priorities and technical and logical dependencies?

A.

TC3 - TC4 - TC2 - TC6 - TC1 - TC5

B.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC6 - TC5

C.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC5 - TC6

D.

TC2 - TC4 - TC1 - TC3 - TC5 - TC6

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Question # 44

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

A.

Test cases are derived based on non-functional requirements such as usability

B.

Test cases are designed to cover various user behaviors, including basic, exceptional or alternative and error behaviors associated with human users or systems

C.

Test cases are created using white-box test techniques to execute scenarios of use cases

D.

Test cases are derived based on pair testing between a user and a tester to find defects

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Question # 45

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

A.

Review Leader - Creates the work product under review

B.

Scribe — Collates potential defects found during the individual review activity

C.

Author — Identify potential defects in the work product under review

D.

Facilitator — Fixes defects in the work product under review

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Question # 46

A tester thinks of a likely cause for a specific bug Should the tester make a comment about this in the bug report?

A.

No. A bug r^&ort must only include factual information, and not unsupported hypothesis

B.

No. Such addition may bias the developers' attitude when they attempt to fix the bug

C.

Yes It will reduce the risk that the bug fix will cause a regression

D.

Yes Observations that may help correct a bug should be included in the bug report

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Question # 47

Which type of software development product can undergo static testing?

A.

Any software development product can undergo static testing, including requirements specifications, design specifications and code

B.

Static testing is done only on the requirements. You need to execute the software in order to find defects in the code

C.

Static testing is done only on the code as part of the "code review" sessions Other documents are reviewed, but not by static testing Static tests

D.

should be performed on the installation and user guide documents as these documents are used by the end user

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Question # 48

Which of the following sentences about testing and debugging is correct?

A.

Re-testing checks that debugging has found and analyzed the failure

B.

Dynamic testing finds defects, while debugging removes failures

C.

Dynamic testing reveals failures, while debugging removes defects

D.

Like most development activities, debugging is usually done before testing starts

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Question # 49

Which of the following options BEST explain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

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Question # 50

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

A.

The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B.

The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action

C.

The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring

D.

The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

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Question # 51

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of test automation?

A.

Availability of the test automation tool vendor

B.

Negligible effort to maintain the test assets generated by the tool

C.

Reduction in repetitive manual work

D.

More subjective assessment

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Question # 52

Given the following types of testing and testing scenarios:

a. Regression testing

b. Confirmation testing

1. Testing to ensure the application of a new version of the operating system does not have any unintended side-effects on the system

2. Testing due to the application of a security patch

3. Testing due to the application of a new version of the database management system

4. Testing to ensure the fix to the payroll system truly works

Which of the following BEST matches the type of testing with the testing scenario?

A.

1-a, 2-a, 3-b, 4-b

B.

4-a, 3-a, 1-b, 2-b

C.

1-a, 2-a, 3-a, 4-b

D.

4-a, 3-a, 2-b, 1-b

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Question # 53

Which of the following BEST describes a test summary report for executive-level employees?

A.

The report Is detailed and Includes specific information on defects and trends

B.

The report is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

C.

The report is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends

D.

The report is high-level and includes a status summary of detects by priority or budget

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Question # 54

Tests have been specified for the latest software release and users have prioritised these

However, there are some dependencies between tests as shown in the table below (e.g. Test ID. X cannot be run until Test ID. Y has been successfully completed).

Which test execution schedule best meets the prioritisation and dependency conditions?

A.

5,2,3,4 1

B.

1,5,3,1,2.

C.

1,2,3,4,5

D.

5,1,2,3,4

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Question # 55

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Regression testing is a technique for system testing and acceptance testing only.

B.

Regression testing can be used in any level of testing, but must be done after white-box testing has been finished.

C.

Regression testing is an alternative term for re-testing

D.

Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to the system under test.

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Question # 56

A system sets new users' password to a temporary password

The temporary password is a random number based on the first sft: characters of the username.

If the username is shorter than 6 characters, the system displays an error message.

Which of the following is a possible representation of equivalence classes for the username string?

A.

{Random number}

{Error message}

B.

{Error message displayed}

{Error message not displayed}

C.

{Username shorter than 6 characters}

{Username equal to or longer than 6 characters}

D.

{Username with a permanent password}

{Username with a temporary password}

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Question # 57

Which of the following Is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

A.

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

B.

The project manager's preference

C.

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.

The type of product being developed

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Question # 58

A "functional test" is...

A.

... a test focused on the efficiency of the system

B.

... a dynamic test for which the tests are based on the specification of the test object.

C.

... a static comparison of test and requirements specification of a test object

D.

... a test for which the test cases and test data are based on the structure of the test object

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Question # 59

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

A.

Risk level Is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

B.

Risk level Is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

C.

Risk level Is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

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Question # 60

When a test case is created based on a Use Case, what type of test is created?

A.

Structural Test

B.

Functional Test

C.

Performance test

D.

Regression Test

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Question # 61

Which of the following software development models BEST exemplifies a model that does NOT support the principle of early testing?

A.

The Waterfall model

B.

The V-model

C.

The Incremental development model

D.

The Iterative development model

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Question # 62

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1. A defined level of code coverage has been achieved

2. The test automation tool has been installed and properly configured

3. The number of unresolved defects is within the predefined limit

4. The performance test environment has been set-up and is available

5. The user stones hove proper acceptance criteria defined

6. The testing budget has been spent and the project sponsor bears the risk of not testing any further

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

A.

Entry criteria - 1, 3. 4; Exit criteria - 2. 5. 6

B.

Entry criteria - 2. 4. 5; Exit criteria - 1. 3, 6

C.

Entry criteria - 2. 4: Exit criteria - 1. 3. 5. 6

D.

Entry criteria - 2, 4. 5, 6; Exit criteria -1.3

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Question # 63

Which of the following processes is related to ensuring the integrity of the testware?

A.

Configuration management

B.

Test automation

C.

Build release

D.

Project management

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Question # 64

During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

A.

The system will fail, causing a defect

B.

If the contained in a small, the system may fail

C.

Loss of money, time, or business reputation

D.

Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

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Question # 65

Which of the following is NOT a common objective of testing?

A.

Providing information on the status of the system

B.

Preventing defects

C.

Finding defects in the software

D.

Debugging the software to find the reason for defects

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Question # 66

What is the order in which the specifications for test cases, test conditions and test procedures are developed as a part of the test development process?

A.

Test Procedure --> Test Condition -> Test Case

B.

Test Condition --> Test Case --> Test Procedure

C.

Test Procedure -> Test Case -> Test Condition

D.

Test Condition --> Test Procedure --> Test Case

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Question # 67

Which of the following options describe the chain of events in the correct sequence?

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug. mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

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Question # 68

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15.8.2010

Defect detected by. Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1,1 click ENTER to continue to screen 2. Nothing happens, no system response at all.

A.

Add an impact analysis

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add information about which web browser was used

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Question # 69

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

A.

0-1999-2000-5000

B.

1-2000-5001-10000

C.

0-100-2000-6000

D.

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

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Question # 70

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

A.

Budget to do testing

B.

A particular tester involved in testing

C.

Level of risk of the product or features

D.

Time available to do testing

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Question # 71

"Statement Testing" is part of;

A.

Experience based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Specification Based testing

D.

Structured based testing

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Question # 72

Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

A.

Defect debugging and resolution

B.

The outcome of testing of previous test cycle

C.

Characteristics of the development process

D.

Characteristics of the product

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Question # 73

Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

A.

0,1,8,21,22

B.

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

C.

2,3,19,20

D.

1,2,20,21

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Question # 74

When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved. Which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage?

A.

multiple condition coverage

B.

decision table

C.

use case testing

D.

statement coverage

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Question # 75

A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?

A.

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

B.

Review test plans and set up test environments.

C.

Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers

D.

Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

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Question # 76

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

A.

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B.

Average number of expected defects per requirement

C.

Number of test cases run

D.

Deviation from test milestone dates

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Question # 77

The following test cases for a Library Management System are available to test changes made to the functions and data structures associated with borrowers

1. Add a new borrower to the system

2. Update a borrower's data

3. Remove a borrower from the system

4. Loan a book to a borrower

5. Return a book from a borrower

6. Reserve a book for a borrower

7. Send "reservation ready" message to a borrower

Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case? (a test sequence always start with test #1)

A.

1-4-2-7-5-6-3

B.

1-6-2-5-7-4-3

C.

1-6-4-7-5-3-2

D.

1-2-6-7-4-5-3

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Question # 78

Which of the following test techniques is structure-based?

A.

Control flow testing

B.

Use case testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Decision table testing

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Question # 79

Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B.

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

C.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

D.

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

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Question # 80

Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

A.

Implementation and execution

B.

Requirements specification

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D.

Analysis and design

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Question # 81

Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

A.

Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared

B.

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases

C.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

D.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

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Question # 82

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

A.

Incident Management Tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Test Execution tool

D.

Backup tool

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Question # 83

Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

A.

Memory is leaking

B.

Features are only partially implemented

C.

Data structures that are used before initialization

D.

Division by zero

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Question # 84

Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

A.

The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects

B.

The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected

C.

Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system

D.

Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier

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Question # 85

What does the term Pesticide paradox' refer to?

A.

The phenomena where a piece of code that has a lot of bugs is likely to have more hidden, yet unfound

B.

The decreasing efficiency of debugging when done in code that has many bugs

C.

Reduced effectiveness of test cases that are repeated and focused on the same scenarios

D.

The redundancy of testing the same objects in both black and white box techniques

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Question # 86

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

A.

I, Ill

B.

II, Ill

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

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Question # 87

Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?

A.

How to fix the defect

B.

Severity and priority

C.

Test environment details

D.

How to reproduce the defect

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Question # 88

Which of the following is correct?

A.

Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect

B.

Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers

C.

Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

D.

Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

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Question # 89

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Incident management tools are used by testers only

B.

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

C.

Test management tools are used by managers only

D.

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

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Question # 90

Given the following requirement:

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

B.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

C.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

D.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

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Question # 91

The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

A.

11

B.

5

C.

45

D.

3

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Question # 92

Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?

A.

Reliability Testing

B.

Confirmation Testing

C.

Maintainability Testing

D.

Regression Testing

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Question # 93

Which statement about use case testing is true?

A.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

B.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow

C.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

D.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

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Question # 94

Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

A.

Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

B.

Bugs found during system testing

C.

Bugs found during unit testing

D.

Bugs found during integration testing

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Question # 95

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

A.

Code inspection

B.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Coverage analysis

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Question # 96

Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Experience-based testing

D.

Component testing

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Question # 97

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects

C.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system

D.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

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Question # 98

Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

A.

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B.

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

C.

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

D.

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

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Question # 99

The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

a very high number

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Question # 100

A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?

A.

Regression tests

B.

Non-functional tests

C.

Structural tests

D.

Unit tests

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Question # 101

In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

A.

Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

B.

For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

C.

A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free

D.

With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing.

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Question # 102

Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?

A.

Modeling tool

B.

Static analysis tool

C.

Coverage measurement tool

D.

Defect tracking tool

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Question # 103

Component testing may include:

A.

Sociability testing.

B.

User acceptance testing.

C.

Beta testing.

D.

The use of stubs and drivers.

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Question # 104

Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

A.

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

B.

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

C.

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

D.

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

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Question # 105

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

A.

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

B.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

C.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

D.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

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Question # 106

Which of the following statements about Use Case Testing is FALSE?

A.

Use case generally has a mainstream scenario and may have many alternate or exceptional scenarios.

B.

A use case can be defined at the abstract level, detached from the implementation, or at the system level, describing a set of executed functions

C.

Use case testing does not find defects caused by interaction of different components

D.

Each use case has preconditions which need to be met for the use case to work successfully

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Question # 107

Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

A.

They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete

B.

They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available

C.

They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level

D.

They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

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Question # 108

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

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Question # 109

Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of non-functional testing?

A.

It covers the evaluation of the interaction of various specified components.

B.

It tests "how’’ the system works.

C.

It may include testing the ease of modification of systems.

D.

It may be performed at unit, integration system and acceptance test levels.

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