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CTFL-Foundation ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Question and Answers

Question # 4

A live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it.

Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live implementation?

A.

Dynamic analysis tool

B.

Monitoring tool

C.

Configuration management tool

D.

Coverage measurement tool

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Question # 5

The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire.

What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?

* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart

* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

A.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

B.

TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

C.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

D.

TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

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Question # 6

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.

What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

A.

Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B.

Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

C.

Provide support for the test team using the tool

D.

Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

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Question # 7

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

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Question # 8

Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

A.

They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete

B.

They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available

C.

They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level

D.

They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

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Question # 9

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:

1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times

2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60

Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?

A.

Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60

B.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second

C.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

D.

Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

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Question # 10

You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.

Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

A.

Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects

B.

Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script

C.

Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance

D.

Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results

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Question # 11

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

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Question # 12

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

A.

Test Implementation and Execution

B.

Test Planning and Control

C.

Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting

D.

Test Analysis and Design

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Question # 13

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

A.

The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B.

The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action

C.

The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring

D.

The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

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Question # 14

Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of following is MOST likely to impact the amount of effort required?

A.

The predicted number of defects and the amount of rework required

B.

The ratio of developers to testers in the project team

C.

The planned use of a project management tool to schedule tasks

D.

The responsibilities for testers and developers being clearly defined

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Question # 15

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

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Question # 16

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

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Question # 17

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

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Question # 18

Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?

A.

Exploratory testing can replace black box techniques when testing time is very limited

B.

Test execution scheduling should give priority to experienced based testing

C.

Specification based techniques can be used as a substitute for a poorly defined test basis

D.

Experienced based techniques are systematic and produce detailed test documentation

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Question # 19

Your task is to compile a test execution schedule for the current release of software.

The system specification states the following logical dependencies:

• An admin user must create/amend/delete a standard user.

• A standard user is necessary to perform all other actions.

The test plan requires that re-tests must be performed first, followed by the highest priority tests. To save time, the test plan states that tests should be scheduled to create test data for the subsequent tests in the schedule.

The following test cases have been designed, with an indication of priority (1 being the highest priority) and whether the test has previously failed.

Which test execution schedule meets the test plan requirements and logical dependencies?

A.

a, d, c, b, e

B.

a, c, b, d, e

C.

e, a, b, c, d

D.

e, a, d, c, b

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Question # 20

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

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Question # 21

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

A.

Number of Test cases passed and failed

B.

Percentage of planned test cases designed

C.

Number of test plan review comments

D.

Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

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Question # 22

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

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Question # 23

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

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Question # 24

Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

A.

Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute

B.

Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company

C.

Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests

D.

Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias

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Question # 25

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

A.

Omission of a major requirement

B.

Inadequate decision coverage

C.

Component memory leakage

D.

Variables that are not used improperly declared

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Question # 26

Which of the following optionsBESTexplain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

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Question # 27

Which of the following would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure?

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Structure based testing

C.

Specification based testing

D.

Use Case testing

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Question # 28

You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.

What is the correct definition of this document?

A.

Test design specification

B.

Test condition

C.

Test procedure specification

D.

Test case specification

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Question # 29

What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

A.

To know when a specific test has finished its execution

B.

To ensure that the test case specification is complete

C.

To set the criteria used in generating test inputs

D.

To know when test planning is complete

E.

To plan when to stop testing

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Question # 30

Acceptance test cases are based on what?

A.

Requirements

B.

Design

C.

Code

D.

Decision table

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Question # 31

Which of the following statements about risks is most accurate?

A.

Project risks rarely affect product risk.

B.

Product risks rarely affect project risk.

C.

A risk-based approach is more likely to be used to mitigate product rather than project risks.

D.

A risk-based approach is more likely to be used to mitigate project rather than product risks.

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Question # 32

Which of the following has the typical formal review activities in the correct sequence?

A.

Kick-off, review meeting, planning, follow-up.

B.

Kick-off, planning, review meeting, re-work.

C.

Planning, kick-off, individual preparation, review meeting.

D.

Planning, individual preparation, follow-up, re-work.

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Question # 33

Which of the following terms is used to describe the management of software components comprising an integrated system?

A.

Configuration management

B.

Incident management

C.

Test monitoring

D.

Risk management

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Question # 34

What test roles (or parts in the testing process) is a developer most likely to perform?

(i) Executing component integration tests.

(ii) Static analysis.

(iii) Setting up the test environment.

(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated.

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

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Question # 35

Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?

a. Variables that are never used.

b. Security vulnerabilities.

c. Poor performance.

d. Unreachable code.

e. Business processes not followed.

A.

b, c and d are true; a and e are false

B.

a is true; b, c, d and e are false

C.

c, d and e are true; a and b are false

D.

a, b and d are true; c and e are false

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Question # 36

Boundary value testing:

A.

Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests

B.

Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes

C.

Tests combinations of input circumstances

D.

Is used in white box testing strategy

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Question # 37

How can test execution tools be of most benefit during exploratory testing?

A.

They can record user actions so that defects are easier to recreate.

B.

They can be used to perform the regression aspects of exploratory testing.

C.

They can help to mitigate the risk of low test coverage.

D.

They can use data-driven tests to increase the amount of exploratory testing performed.

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Question # 38

Which of the following is true about the V-model?

A.

It has the same steps as the waterfall model for software development.

B.

It is referred to as a cyclical model for software development.

C.

It enables the production of a working version of the system as early as possible.

D.

It enables test planning to start as early as possible.

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Question # 39

Which of the following are most characteristic of structure-based testing?

(i) Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive test cases.

(ii) Statement coverage and/or decision coverage can be measured for existing test cases.

(iii) The knowledge and experience of people are used to derive test cases.

(iv) Test cases are derived from a model or specification of the system.

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(ii) and (iii)

C.

(ii) and (iv)

D.

(i) and (iii)

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Question # 40

What can a risk-based approach to testing provide?

A.

The types of test techniques to be employed.

B.

The total tests needed to provide 100 per cent coverage.

C.

An estimation of the total cost of testing.

D.

Only that test execution is effective at reducing risk.

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Question # 41

For which of the following activities in the fundamental test process would an incident management tool be most useful?

A.

Test planning and control

B.

Test analysis and design

C.

Test implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Question # 42

The purpose of requirement phase is:

A.

To freeze requirements

B.

To understand user needs

C.

To define the scope of testing

D.

All of the above

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Question # 43

According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

A.

To verify the success of corrective actions.

B.

To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.

C.

To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.

D.

To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.

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Question # 44

Which of the following is not true of regression testing?

A.

It can be carried out at each stage of the life cycle.

B.

It serves to demonstrate that the changed software works as intended.

C.

It serves to demonstrate that software has not been unintentionally changed.

D.

It is often automated.

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Question # 45

How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment?

Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -if (Condition 1)then statement 1else statement 2if (Condition 2)then statement 3

A.

2 Test Cases

B.

3 Test Cases

C.

4 Test Cases

D.

Not achievable

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Question # 46

For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?

A.

Correction of defects during the development phase.

B.

Planned enhancements to an existing operational system.

C.

Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing.

D.

Integrating functions during the development of a new system.

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Question # 47

Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same. B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved. C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation. D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects. E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.

A.

A, C and D and E are true; B is false.

B.

A, C and E are true; B and D are false.

C.

C and D are true; A, B and E are false.

D.

B and E are true; A, C and D are false.

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Question # 48

Which of the following could be a reason for a failure?

1) Testing fault

2) Software fault

3) Design fault

4) Environment Fault

5) Documentation Fault

A.

2 is a valid reason; 1, 3, 4 & 5 are not

B.

1, 2, 3, 4 are valid reasons; 5 is not

C.

1, 2, 3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not

D.

All of them are valid reasons for failure

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Question # 49

Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

A.

Defects

B.

Trends analysis

C.

Test Effectiveness

D.

Time Spent Testing

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Question # 50

What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?

A.

To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed

B.

To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met

C.

To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects

D.

To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time

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Question # 51

Which of the following defects is most likely to be found by a test harness?

A.

Variance from programming standards.

B.

A defect in middleware.

C.

Memory leaks.

D.

Regression defects.

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Question # 52

The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

A.

Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects

B.

Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests

C.

Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

D.

Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment

E.

Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

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Question # 53

What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

A.

Use automation tool for testing

B.

Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested

C.

Both a and b

D.

None of the above

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Question # 54

What is the purpose of exit criteria?

A.

To identify how many tests to design.

B.

To identify when to start testing.

C.

To identify when to stop testing.

D.

To identify who will carry out the test execution.

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Question # 55

Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

A.

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

B.

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

C.

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

D.

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

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Question # 56

A bank is developing a new service that will be delivered via the web. The user interactions are defined as a set of use cases and the service is designed to be available continuously 24/7. In view of the challenging characteristics of the service the test manager has decided that the code should be thoroughly tested at component level.

Which of the following test types will be required during the development? [K2]

A.

Functional testing to test security at the system level, load testing at the system level to ensure the system availability is acceptable, regression testing at all levels, structure based testing at the component level only

B.

Functional testing to test the use cases at component level, reliability testing to test availability at the integration level, regression testing at the system testing level only, structure based testing at all levels

C.

Functional testing of the use cases at system level, load testing at component level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the system and acceptance levels only, and structure based testing at the integration level only

D.

Functional testing to test security at the acceptance level, load testing at the acceptance test level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the acceptance level only to ensure late changes are made correctly, and structure based testing at the component level

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Question # 57

What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

A.

Use case testing

B.

Boundary value testing

C.

Statement testing and coverage

D.

State transition testing

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Question # 58

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

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Question # 59

Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition? [K1]

A.

Use of formal techniques requires expensive training

B.

Only experience can ensure all functionality is covered

C.

Tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques

D.

Formal techniques require the use of expensive tools

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Question # 60

Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

A.

Executing the software work product

B.

Manually examining the code or project documentation

C.

Automated analysis of the code or project documentation

D.

Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation

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Question # 61

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

A.

Correcting defects

B.

Locating defects in the code

C.

Preventing defects

D.

Ensuring no defects are present

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Question # 62

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

A.

Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system

B.

Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.

C.

Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system

D.

Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

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Question # 63

What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?

(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system.

(ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed.

(iii)Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident.

(iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.

(v)Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.

Number of correct answers: 1

A.

i, ii, iii

B.

ii, iii

C.

i, iii, iv

D.

i, ii, iii, v

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Question # 64

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

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Question # 65

Of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

A.

Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.

B.

Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.

C.

Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.

D.

Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

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Question # 66

Which of the following factors will MOST affect the testing effort required to test a software product? [K1]

A.

The number of staff available to execute tests

B.

The level of detail in the test plan

C.

The requirements for reliability and security in the product

D.

The test estimation method used

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Question # 67

Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

A.

Spelling mistake on an error message

B.

A potential infinite loop

C.

Memory leakage

D.

A variable set to the wrong value

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Question # 68

What is a test condition?

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

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Question # 69

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

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Question # 70

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?

(i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.

(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.

(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.

(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.

(v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.

(vi)Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

A.

ii, iii, iv, v

B.

i, iii, v, vi

C.

i, ii, iv, v

D.

iii, iv, v, vi

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Question # 71

System testing is:

A.

Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.

B.

The responsibility of the users of a system.

C.

Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development project.

D.

Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.

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Question # 72

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

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Question # 73

Refer to the exhibit

Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions.

(i)X-Z-V-W

(ii)W-Y-U-U

A.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

B.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S4 and (ii) = S2 –S4 – S4 – S4 – S2

C.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

D.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 - S4 – S2 and (ii) = S2 –S3 – S4 –S4 – S4

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Question # 74

When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

A.

Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.

B.

Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.

C.

Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.

D.

Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

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Question # 75

Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

A.

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

C.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

D.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

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Question # 76

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

A.

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

B.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

C.

A form of white-box testing.

D.

A method to reduce test coverage.

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Question # 77

Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

A.

Migration of software onto a new platform

B.

Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system

C.

Purchase of a new software tool

D.

Updating of a regression suite

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Question # 78

When should testers be involved in reviewing a UAT specification? [K1]

A.

At the beginning of the project

B.

As soon as requirements have been approved

C.

As soon as the UAT specification has been drafted

D.

At any time before UAT begins

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Question # 79

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]

A.

Test planning ensures the level of detail in test procedures is appropriate for test execution

B.

Test planning schedules test execution but does not assign resources

C.

Test planning defines the overall approach to testing but does not schedule specific activities such as test execution

D.

Test planning identifies test objectives related to scope and risk but does not define the level of detail for test procedures used in test execution

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Question # 80

Which of the following is a white box testing design characteristic?

A.

To be based on specifications

B.

To be based on an analysis of the test basis documentation

C.

To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system

D.

To include both functional and non-functional testing

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Question # 81

Before an invoice can be created, an account is required. Before an account can be set up, an account user is required (in order to set up the account). The software is delivered with a master user only, who can only create other types of users. The following test cases have been written to test the high-level structure of the software

a. Create an invoice

b. Amend an invoice

c. Process an invoice (send to customer)

d. Delete an invoice

e. Create an account

f. Create an account user

g. Amend an account user

h. Delete an account user

i. Amend an account

j. Delete an account

Which of the following test procedures would enable all tests to be run?[K3]

A.

f, g, a, c, b, d, e, i, j, h

B.

e, i, a, c, b, d, f, g, h, j

C.

e, i, f, g, a, c, b, d, h, j

D.

f, g, e, i, a, b, c, d, j, h

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