CS0-002 CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam (CS0-002) Question and Answers

 The analyst should check for change tickets as the next step, given that the firewall is reporting different firmware versions on scans than were reported in previous scans. Change tickets are records of any authorized changes made to a system or a network, such as updating firmware, installing patches, or modifying configurations. Checking for change tickets can help verify if the firmware change was intentional and approved, or if it was unauthorized or malicious.

Disabling the Telnet service would harden the server by removing an insecure protocol that transmits data in cleartext and could allow unauthorized access to the server. Changing the SSH port to a non-standard port would harden the server by reducing the exposure to brute-force attacks or port scans that target the default SSH port (22). Uninstalling the DNS service, performing a vulnerability scan, changing the server’s IP to a private IP address, or blocking port 80 with the host-based firewall would not harden the server or could affect its functionality as a web server. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/access-lists/13608-21.html

The output shows an entry from a system log that indicates a user was trying to download a password file from a remote system using PsExec. PsExec is a command-line tool that allows users to execute processes on remote systems. The entry shows that the user “administrator” tried to run PsExec with the following parameters: \192.168.1.100 -u administrator -p P@ssw0rd -c cmd.exe /c type c:\windows\system32\config\SAM > \192.168.1.101\c$\temp\sam.txt This means that the user tried to connect to the remote system with IP address 192.168.1.100 using the username “administrator” and password “P@ssw0rd”, copy cmd.exe to the remote system, and execute it with the command “type c:\windows\system32\config\SAM > \192.168.1.101\c$\temp\sam.txt”. This command attempts to read the SAM file, which contains hashed passwords of local users, and write it to a file on another system with IP address 192.168.1.101. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 8; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/downloads/psexec

Promiscuous mode is the mode that must be supported by the scanner’s NIC to assist with the company’s request of passive network monitoring. Promiscuous mode is a mode of operation for a network interface controller (NIC) that causes the controller to pass all traffic it receives to the central processing unit (CPU) rather than passing only the frames that the controller is specifically programmed to receive. This mode is normally used for packet sniffing, the practice of collecting and logging packets that pass through the network for further analysis, such as the analysis of traffic or bandwidth usage1. Promiscuous mode makes sure all transmitted data packets are received and read by network adapters.

 The order of priority for risk mitigation from highest to lowest is C, B, A, D. This order is based on applying the risk mitigation policies of the organization. According to the first policy, risks without compensating controls will be mitigated first if the risk value is greater than $50,000. Risk C has no compensating controls and a risk value of $75,000, so it is the highest priority. Risk B also has no compensating controls, but a risk value of $40,000, so it is the second priority. According to the second policy, other risk mitigation will be prioritized based on risk value. Risk A has a risk value of $60,000 and a compensating control of encryption, so it is the third priority. Risk D has a risk value of $50,000 and a compensating control of backup power supply, so it is the lowest priority.

The correct answer is B. The analyst should block requests to no-thanks.invalid. The log snippet shows a DNS query from host 192.168.1.67 to the public resolver 8.8.8.8 for the domain name no-thanks.invalid, which is resolved to the IP address 102.100.20.20. This is a possible indicator of compromise (IOC), as no-thanks.invalid is a known malicious domain that is used by attackers to exfiltrate data or execute commands on compromised hosts1. The analyst should block requests to this domain to prevent further communication with the attacker’s server and investigate the host 192.168.1.67 for signs of infection.

A. The analyst should disable DNS recursion is not correct. DNS recursion is a process where a DNS server queries other DNS servers on behalf of a client until it finds the authoritative answer for a domain name2. Disabling DNS recursion would prevent the DNS server from resolving any domain names that are not in its cache or zone files, which would affect the normal functionality of the network and the internet access of the clients.

C. The analyst should disconnect host 192.168.1.67 is not correct. Disconnecting host 192.168.1.67 would stop the communication with the malicious domain, but it would also disrupt the legitimate activities of the host and its user. Moreover, disconnecting the host would not remove the malware or root cause of the compromise, and it would not prevent the host from reconnecting to the malicious domain once it is online again.

D. The analyst should sinkhole 102.100.20.20 is not correct. Sinkholing is a technique that redirects malicious or unwanted traffic to a controlled destination, such as a fake or isolated server3. Sinkholing 102.100.20.20 would prevent the communication with the malicious domain, but it would also require access and control over the public resolver 8.8.8.8, which is not owned or managed by the analyst or the company.

E. The analyst should disallow queries to the 8.8.8.8 resolver is not correct. Disallowing queries to the 8.8.8.8 resolver would prevent the communication with the malicious domain, but it would also affect the resolution of other legitimate domain names that are not in the local DNS server’s cache or zone files.

1: DNS Tunneling: how DNS can be (ab)used by malicious actors 2: What Is DNS Recursion? 3: What Is a Sinkhole Attack?

Logical segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller, isolated segments based on logical criteria, such as function, role, or application. Logical segmentation can be implemented using various technologies, such as VLANs, subnets, virtual firewalls, or software-defined networking (SDN). Logical segmentation can enhance the security of a network by reducing the attack surface, limiting the lateral movement of threats, enforcing the principle of least privilege, and facilitating the monitoring and auditing of network traffic12.

Firewall is a device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Firewall can be deployed at the network perimeter or within the network to create internal zones or segments. Firewall can protect a network from unauthorized access, malicious attacks, or data exfiltration by allowing or blocking traffic based on the source, destination, port, protocol, or application3 .

To best provide the protection that meets the requirements of the security engineer, each product line should be logically segmented and firewalled to control inbound and outbound connectivity. This way, each product line can be secured using a single posture that is consistent and manageable. Each product line can also communicate with the other lines in a least privilege method by allowing only the necessary traffic and blocking the rest. Access to each product line from the rest of the network can be strictly controlled by applying firewall rules that restrict or limit the traffic based on the business needs.

Change Management

o The process through which changes to the configuration of information systems are

monitored and controlled, as part of the organization's overall configuration

management efforts

o Each individual component should have a separate document or database record that

describes its initial state and subsequent changes

â–ª Configuration information

â–ª Patches installed

â–ª Backup records

â–ª Incident reports/issues

o Change management ensures all changes are planned and controlled to minimize risk of

a service disruption

Change management is a process that ensures changes to systems or processes are introduced in a controlled and coordinated manner. Change management helps to minimize the impact of changes on the business operations and avoid unintended consequences or errors3 Change management can help prevent the issue of utility installation affecting the web server cluster by ensuring that the utility is properly planned, tested, approved, documented, communicated, and monitored.

SIEM software is a tool that provides a single centralized platform for the collection, monitoring, and management of security-related events and log data from across the enterprise1. SIEM software can help security analysts detect, investigate, and respond to threats, as well as comply with regulations and standards.

IPS stands for Intrusion Prevention System. It is a device or software that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets before they reach their destination2. IPS can help security analysts prevent attacks, protect sensitive data, and reduce network downtime.

A security analyst working for a biotechnology lab that is planning to release details about a new cancer treatment would most likely be monitoring for A. Intellectual property loss. Intellectual property (IP) refers to the creations of the mind, such as inventions, designs, artistic works, or trade secrets3. IP loss occurs when someone steals, leaks, or misuses the IP of an organization without authorization.

The biotechnology lab’s new cancer treatment is an example of IP that has high value and potential impact on the market and society. Therefore, the security analyst would want to protect it from competitors, hackers, or other malicious actors who might try to access it illegally or sabotage it. The security analyst would use SIEM software and IPS to monitor for any signs of unauthorized access, data exfiltration, or tampering with the lab’s network or systems.

DNS sinkholing is a mechanism that can prevent internal network ranges from communicating with a list of IP addresses of known command-and-control domains by returning a false or controlled IP address for those domains. This can reduce the load on the firewall by intercepting the DNS requests before they reach the firewall and diverting them to a sinkhole server. The other options are not relevant or effective for this purpose. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 9; https://www.enisa.europa.eu/topics/incident-response/glossary/dns-sinkhole

A firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. A firewall can help prevent unauthorized or malicious traffic from entering or leaving a network, and protect network resources from external threats. Placing a firewall in between the corporate network and the guest network can help prevent a guest device from infecting machines on the corporate network or taking down the company’s single internet connection, as it can block or filter any unwanted or harmful traffic from the guest network.

A cipher suite is a set of algorithms that defines how the encryption, authentication, and integrity of data are performed during a secure communication session. Some cipher suites are considered vulnerable or weak because they use outdated or insecure algorithms that can be easily broken or compromised by attackers. The vulnerability scan results show that the web server accepts several vulnerable cipher suites, such as RC4, MD5, or DES. The best action for the analyst to recommend to developers is to change the web server so it no longer accepts the vulnerable cipher suites and only accepts the secure ones. Changing the web server so it only accepts TLSv1.2, only accepts cipher suites using AES and SHA, or offloading SSL/TLS to a WAF and load balancer are other possible actions, but they are not as specific or effective as changing the web server so it no longer accepts the vulnerable cipher suites. Reference: https://www.acunetix.com/blog/articles/tls-ssl-cipher-hardening/

This is the best method to operationalize these loCs to detect future attacks because it allows the company to collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on the indicators of compromise (loCs) from various sources and systems. A SIEM stands for security information and event management, which is a software or service that provides centralized visibility and management of security events and data.

A Diamond Model analysis of an incident is a framework that identifies the four essential features of an attack: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim1 By analyzing these features and their relationships, a security analyst can gain insights into the attack’s objectives, methods, sources, and targets. A potential benefit of this activity is that it can identify detection and prevention capabilities to improve, such as gaps in security controls, indicators of compromise, or mitigation strategies2

References: 1 What is the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis? 2 How to use the MITRE ATT&CK® framework and diamond model of intrusion analysis together

The Internet usage trend report shows that User 4 has an unusually high amount of data downloaded compared to other users. User 4 downloaded 2.5 GB of data in one day, while the average data downloaded by other users was around 0.2 GB. This could indicate that User 4 is engaged in some suspicious or malicious activity, such as downloading unauthorized or illegal content, exfiltrating sensitive data, or installing malware. Therefore, the security analyst should investigate User 4 further to determine the nature and source of the data downloaded.

The correct answer is C. Corrective. A corrective control is a type of control that is used to restore normal operations after a security incident or event has occurred. A corrective control can include actions such as restoring a backup, applying patches, reconfiguring settings, or replacing damaged components. A corrective control can help to mitigate the impact of an incident and prevent further damage or loss1.

A. Technical is not correct. A technical control is a type of control that is implemented using hardware, software, or firmware to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and systems. A technical control can include mechanisms such as encryption, authentication, firewalls, antivirus, or intrusion detection systems. A technical control can be preventive, detective, or responsive, depending on its function2.

B. Responsive is not correct. A responsive control is a type of control that is used to react to a security incident or event in real time and stop or contain the attack. A responsive control can include actions such as blocking traffic, isolating systems, terminating processes, or alerting users. A responsive control can help to reduce the severity and duration of an incident and limit its spread3.

D. Preventive is not correct. A preventive control is a type of control that is used to deter or avoid a security incident or event from happening in the first place. A preventive control can include measures such as policies, procedures, training, awareness, or physical security. A preventive control can help to reduce the likelihood and frequency of an incident and minimize its potential impact.

1: 24.3 Control Types - CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) CS0-002 [Video] 2: OVERVIEW - CompTIA 3: 24.3 Control Types - CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) CS0-002 [Video] : OVERVIEW - CompTIA

A communications plan is a document that outlines how information will be communicated during an incident response process. It defines who will communicate what information, when, how, and to whom4 A communications plan can identify who is the liaison between multiple lines of business and the public, as well as other stakeholders such as senior management, legal counsel, law enforcement, or media. A liaison is a person who acts as a link or intermediary between different parties or groups to facilitate communication and coordination.

Modbus is a communication protocol that is widely used in industrial control systems (ICS). Modbus does not have any built-in security features, such as authentication or encryption, which makes it vulnerable to various attacks. One of the most common and effective attack techniques against Modbus assets is to send unauthenticated commands to manipulate or disrupt the operation of the devices. Remote code execution, buffer overflow, and certificate spoofing are other attack techniques, but they have less likelihood of quick success against Modbus assets. Reference: https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S2405959517300045

A honeypot is a decoy system that is designed to attract and trap attackers, by mimicking a real system or network, but containing fake or harmless data. A honeypot can be used to collect IoCs from multiple geographic regions, by deploying it in different locations or networks, and monitoring the activities or attacks that target it. A honeypot can also provide valuable threat intelligence data that can be sold to customers.

A jump box is a secure computer that can be used to access a remote server or network. It acts as an intermediary between the user and the target system, and can limit access to specific IP addresses. A jump box can also provide logging and auditing of the user’s actions on the remote system. A jump box is a common solution for accessing highly sensitive servers or networks1.

Anti-tamper is a process that protects a system or device from unauthorized changes or modifications. It can also log and report any attempts to alter the system or device. The company is using anti-tamper to ensure the appliance is not altered from its original configured state. CI/CD, software assurance, and change management are not processes that specifically deal with unauthorized changes. Reference: https://www.acq.osd.mil/se/briefs/16943-DoD-AT-Overview-Brief.pdf

Threat intelligence can be used to identify likely attack scenarios within an organization based on the organization’s specific vulnerabilities, assets, and threat landscape. Threat intelligence can help security teams anticipate and prepare for potential attacks, as well as detect and respond to ongoing attacks more effectively1. Threat intelligence can also provide insights into the threat actors, their motivations, and their tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs)2.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a security technology designed to detect, prevent, and respond to the unauthorized disclosure of confidential data. By updating the DLP rules and metadata, it is possible to better define what types of confidential information can be shared and limit access to any sensitive documents.

DLP rules and metadata can help to identify, classify and label sensitive data based on its content and context. DLP rules and metadata can also help to enforce actions or policies on sensitive data, such as blocking, encrypting or alerting .

Setting up a warm disaster recovery site with the same cloud provider in a different region can help to achieve a recovery time objective (RTO) of 12 hours while keeping the costs low. A warm disaster recovery site is a partially configured site that has some of the essential hardware and software components ready to be activated in case of a disaster. A warm site can provide faster recovery than a cold site, which has no preconfigured components, but lower costs than a hot site, which has fully configured and replicated components. Using the same cloud provider can help to simplify the migration and synchronization processes, while using a different region can help to avoid regional outages or disasters .

Data privacy policy is the organization’s policy that defines how it collects, uses, stores, and shares personal data of its customers, employees, or other stakeholders. Data privacy policy also covers how the organization complies with relevant data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA). The policy statements listed in the question are examples of data privacy policy provisions that aim to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of personal data.

A directory traversal attack is a type of web application attack that exploits insufficient input validation or improper configuration to access files or directories that are outside the intended scope of the web server. The log entries given in the question show several requests that contain “…/” sequences in the URL, which indicate an attempt to move up one level in the directory structure. For example, the request “/images/…/…/etc/passwd” tries to access the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information on Linux systems. If successful, this attack could allow an attacker to read, modify, or execute files on the web server that are not meant to be accessible.

The disclosure section of an organization’s incident response plan should cover how the organization handles public or private disclosures of an incident. The disclosure section should contain the organization’s legal and regulatory requirements regarding disclosures, such as the type, content, format, timing, and recipients of the disclosures. The disclosure section should also specify the roles and responsibilities of the personnel involved in the disclosure process, such as who is authorized to make or approve disclosures, who is responsible for communicating with internal and external stakeholders, and who is accountable for ensuring compliance with the disclosure requirements. The disclosure section should not focus on how to reduce the likelihood customers will leave due to the incident (A), as this is a business objective rather than a disclosure requirement. The disclosure section should not include the names and contact information of key employees who are needed for incident resolution ©, as this is an operational detail rather than a disclosure requirement. The disclosure section should not contain language explaining how the organization will reduce the likelihood of the incident from happening in the future (D), as this is a remediation action rather than a disclosure requirement.

Disabling error messaging for authentication would be the best recommendation to decrease the likelihood that a malicious attacker will receive helpful information. Error messaging for authentication is a feature that displays an error message when a user enters an incorrect username or password. However, this feature can also provide useful information to an attacker who is trying to guess or brute-force valid credentials. For example, if the error message says “incorrect password for given username”, then the attacker knows that the username is valid and only needs to focus on cracking the password. Disabling error messaging for authentication can help reduce this information leakage and make it harder for an attacker to succeed.

Requiring the internet portal to be accessible from only the corporate SSO internet endpoint and requiring a smart card and PIN. This option provides the best MFA requirement because it uses two factors of authentication: something you have (smart card) and something you know (PIN). It also restricts access to the portal from a trusted source (corporate SSO internet endpoint).

SCAP is a protocol designed to assess the security compliance of computers and other devices. It works by scanning systems against security policies, and can help verify that the scanned device meets security requirements. Here is a link to the CompTIA CySA+ Guide's Chapter 5 - Access Controls for more information: https://certification.comptia.org/docs/default-source/exam-objectives/cs0-002.pdf

This is most likely occurring based on the symptoms observed after a recent sales meeting. An insider threat is a person who has legitimate access to an organization’s network or data and uses it for malicious purposes, such as stealing, leaking, or sabotaging information. The symptoms suggest that someone from the sales team or someone who attended the meeting has copied sensitive corporate documents and uploaded them to the dark web using large data packets.

Insecure application programming interfaces (APIs) can lead to data compromise when using a PaaS solution. APIs are interfaces that allow applications to communicate with each other and with the underlying platform. APIs can expose sensitive data or functionality to unauthorized or malicious users if they are not properly designed, implemented, or secured. Insecure APIs can result in data breaches, denial of service, unauthorized access, or code injection .

PII (Personally Identifiable Information) is any information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate a specific individual, either by itself or when combined with other information1. PII by itself is information that can uniquely identify an individual without any additional information. Examples of PII by itself are:

• Government ID. A government ID is a number or code that is issued by a government authority to an individual for identification purposes. Examples of government IDs are social security numbers, passport numbers, driver’s license numbers, etc. A government ID can uniquely identify an individual without any additional information.
• Birth certificate. A birth certificate is a document that records the birth of an individual and contains information such as name, date of birth, place of birth, parents’ names, etc. A birth certificate can uniquely identify an individual without any additional information.

Other examples of PII by itself are biometric data, DNA profile, fingerprints, etc. Examples of information that are not PII by themselves are:

• Job title. A job title is a name or description of a position or role in an organization. A job title does not uniquely identify an individual without any additional information, as many individuals can have the same job title.
• Employment start date. An employment start date is the date when an individual began working for an organization. An employment start date does not uniquely identify an individual without any additional information, as many individuals can have the same employment start date.
• Employer address. An employer address is the location of an organization where an individual works. An employer address does not uniquely identify an individual without any additional information, as many individuals can work at the same employer address.
• Mother’s maiden name. A mother’s maiden name is the surname that a woman had before she married. A mother’s maiden name does not uniquely identify an individual without any additional information, as many individuals can have the same mother’s maiden name.

Other examples of information that are not PII by themselves are gender, race, ethnicity, age, etc.

These servers should be patched first because they have vulnerabilities with CVSS scores of 9.0 and 8.9 respectively, which fall under the policy of remediating within 48 hours and 96 hours for production environment servers. The other servers either have lower CVSS scores, are in lower environments, or do not contain highly sensitive information.

The DMARC record’s policy tag is incorrectly configured and explains why the company’s requirements are not being processed correctly by mailbox providers. The policy tag (p) specifies how mailbox providers should handle messages from the domain that fail DMARC checks. The possible values for the policy tag are none, quarantine, or reject1. None means that no action is taken on failed messages and only reports are sent. Quarantine means that failed messages are treated as suspicious and may be filtered or marked as spam. Reject means that failed messages are rejected and not delivered. In this case, the company’s DMARC record has a policy tag value of none, which means that mailbox providers will not ignore any email that fails DMARC as required by the company. Instead, mailbox providers will deliver all messages from the domain regardless of their DMARC status and only send reports to the company. To fix this issue, the company should change its policy tag value to reject, which means that mailbox providers will reject and ignore any email that fails DMARC as required by the company. The DMARC record’s DKIM alignment tag (A) is not incorrectly configured and does not explain why the company’s requirements are not being processed correctly by mailbox providers. The DKIM alignment tag (adkim) specifies how strictly mailbox providers should match DKIM identifiers with From domain identifiers2. The possible values for DKIM alignment tag are s or r. S means strict alignment, which means that DKIM identifiers must exactly match From domain identifiers. R means relaxed alignment, which means that DKIM identifiers must match From domain identifiers at an organizational level (e.g., subdomain.example.com and example.com are considered aligned). In this case, the company’s DMARC record has a DKIM alignment tag value of r, which means that mailbox providers will use relaxed alignment for DKIM verification. 

Sanitizing the workstation and verifying countermeasures are restored are part of the eradication and recovery processes that the security analyst should perform next. Eradication is the process of removing malware or other threats from the affected systems, while recovery is the process of restoring normal operations and functionality to the affected systems. Sanitizing the workstation can involve deleting or wiping any malicious files or programs, while verifying countermeasures are restored can involve checking and updating any security controls or settings that may have been compromised .

The software development life cycle (SDLC) is a process that consists of several phases that guide the development of software applications or systems. Security should be involved in every phase of the SDLC, but especially in the planning phase, which is the first phase where the scope, objectives, requirements, and resources of the project are defined. By involving security in the planning phase, potential risks and threats can be identified and mitigated early in the process, which can save time, money, and effort later on. Design, maintenance, implementation, analysis, and testing are other phases of the SDLC, but they are not the first phase where security should be involved. Reference: https://www.bmc.com/blogs/software-development-life-cycle-phases/

The CySA+ exam outline calls out “trusted firmware updates,” but trusted firmware itself is more commonly described as part of trusted execution environments (TEEs). Trusted firmware is signed by a chip vendor or other trusted party, and then used to access keys to help control access to hardware. TEEs like those used by ARM processors leverage these technologies to protect the hardware by preventing unsigned code from using privileged features."

Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with secure code signing, distribution, installation, and attestation for embedded devices. Embedded devices are devices that have a dedicated function and are part of a larger system or network, such as routers, cameras, sensors, etc. Embedded devices often run on firmware, which is a type of software that controls the device’s hardware and functionality. Firmware updates are essential for improving the performance, security, and reliability of embedded devices. However, firmware updates also pose risks of introducing vulnerabilities or malware into the devices if they are not properly secured. Trusted firmware updates are firmware updates that use cryptographic techniques to ensure the integrity, authenticity, and confidentiality of the firmware code and data. Trusted firmware updates typically involve four steps1:

• Code signing: The firmware code is digitally signed by the firmware developer or provider using a private key. The digital signature proves that the firmware code is from a trusted source and has not been tampered with.
• Distribution: The signed firmware code is securely transmitted to the embedded device or a trusted intermediary (such as a cloud service or a gateway) using encryption or other methods. The transmission ensures that the firmware code is not intercepted or modified by unauthorized parties.
• Installation: The embedded device verifies the digital signature of the firmware code using a public key that is stored in a secure location (such as a trusted platform module or TPM). The verification ensures that the firmware code is from a trusted source and has not been tampered with. The embedded device then installs the firmware code and reboots to apply the update.
• Attestation: The embedded device reports its firmware status and configuration to a trusted verifier (such as a cloud service or a gateway) using a cryptographic proof. The proof ensures that the embedded device has installed the correct firmware update and has not been compromised.

Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with several benefits for hardware assurance, such as2:

• Preventing unauthorized or malicious firmware updates that could compromise the security or functionality of embedded devices
• Detecting and mitigating firmware attacks or incidents that could affect the availability or performance of embedded devices
• Complying with regulatory or industry standards or best practices for firmware security
• Enhancing customer trust and satisfaction with embedded devices

Trusted firmware updates do not provide organizations with development, compilation, remote access, or customization for embedded devices (A), as these are software engineering tasks that are not directly related to firmware security. Trusted firmware updates do not provide organizations with security specifications, open-source libraries, or custom tools for embedded devices (B), as these are software resources that are not directly related to firmware security. Trusted firmware updates do not provide organizations with remote code execution, distribution, maintenance, or extended warranties for embedded devices ©, as these are software features or services that are not directly related to firmware security.

References: 1: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24771/technical-controls  2: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/25888/security-development-lifecycle-sdl

An active scan is a type of system vulnerability scan that involves sending probes or packets to the target system, and analyzing the responses or behaviors of the system. An active scan can help obtain critical information about the system, such as open ports, running services, operating system, software versions, etc. An active scan can also use OVAL XML language to review and calculate the discovered risk. OVAL stands for Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language, and it is a standard for describing and exchanging information about system vulnerabilities and configurations.

Enabling the browser’s XSS filter would be the most likely solution to the listed vulnerability. The vulnerability is a reflected cross-site scripting (XSS) attack, which occurs when a malicious script is injected into a web page that reflects user input back to the browser without proper validation or encoding. The malicious script can then execute in the browser and perform various actions, such as stealing cookies, redirecting to malicious sites, or displaying fake content2. Enabling the browser’s XSS filter can help prevent reflected XSS attacks by detecting and blocking malicious scripts before they execute in the browser3.

The security analyst should recommend replacing the strcpy function with a safer alternative. The strcpy function is a C library function that copies a string from one buffer to another. However, this function does not check the size of the destination buffer, which can lead to buffer overflow vulnerabilities if the source string is longer than the destination buffer. Buffer overflow vulnerabilities can allow attackers to execute arbitrary code or crash the program. A safer alternative to strcpy is strncpy, which limits the number of characters copied to the size of the destination buffer.

Encapsulated traffic may evade security monitoring and defenses by hiding or obfuscating the actual content or source of the traffic. Encapsulation is a technique that wraps data packets with additional headers or protocols to enable communication across different network types or layers. Encapsulation can be used for legitimate purposes, such as tunneling, VPNs, or NAT, but it can also be used by attackers to bypass security controls or detection mechanisms that are not able to inspect or analyze the encapsulated traffic .

Port triggering is a technique that allows inbound traffic to access certain ports on a device only after an outbound traffic request has been made from those ports. It can enhance the security and performance of a device by opening ports only when needed and closing them when not in use. The output from the network enumeration activities shows that port 21 (FTP) and port 22 (SSH) are open only after port 80 (HTTP) has been accessed, which indicates that port triggering is most likely being used. A web application firewall, an intrusion prevention system, port isolation, or port address translation are other techniques that can affect network traffic, but they do not match the description of the output from the network enumeration activities. Reference: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/3846/port-triggering

The vulnerability scan report shows that the workstation has a high-risk vulnerability (CVE-2019-0708) that affects Remote Desktop Services on Windows systems. This vulnerability allows remote code execution without authentication or user interaction, and can be exploited by sending specially crafted requests to the target system1 As part of the detection and analysis procedures, the analyst should confirm the workstation’s signatures against the most current signatures. This can help verify if the workstation has been patched or updated to address the vulnerability, or if it is still vulnerable and needs remediation. The analyst can use tools such as Windows Update or Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer to check the workstation’s patch level and compare it with the latest available signatures.

IaC stands for infrastructure as code, which is a practice of using code or configuration files to automate the provisioning and management of cloud resources. IaC templates can help ensure consistency, repeatability, and scalability of cloud deployments, as well as reduce human errors and misconfigurations. However, IaC templates need to be validated and tested before deployment, and any changes to the templates should be controlled and monitored. This can help minimize the occurrence of vulnerabilities introduced by unintentional misconfigurations in the cloud

Automating the use of a hashing algorithm after verified users make changes to their data is an appropriate course of action to verify that a user’s data is not altered without the user’s consent. Hashing is a technique that produces a unique and fixed-length value for a given input, such as a file or a message. Hashing can help to verify the data integrity by comparing the hash values of the original and modified data. If the hash values match, then the data has not been altered without the user’s consent. If the hash values differ, then the data may have been tampered with or corrupted .

If an analyst observes evidence of an attack but cannot find an exploit that adequately explains the observations, it may indicate the presence of a zero-day vulnerability, which is an unknown vulnerability that attackers can exploit to gain unauthorized access to systems. In such cases, traditional security tools may not be able to detect or prevent the attack. Therefore, the analyst should investigate further to identify and mitigate the vulnerability to prevent further exploitation.

Building the chain-of-custody document is the procedure that must be completed first for this type of evidence acquisition. The chain-of-custody document is a record that tracks the handling and custody of digital evidence from the time it is collected until it is presented in court. The chain-of-custody document should include information such as the media model, serial number, size, vendor, date, and time of acquisition, as well as the names and signatures of the persons who handled, transferred, or examined the evidence. The chain-of-custody document helps to preserve the integrity and admissibility of the evidence by preventing tampering, alteration, or loss1.

SCAP stands for Security Content Automation Protocol, which is a set of standards and specifications that allows automated configuration and vulnerability management of systems. SCAP provides an automated approach to checking a system configuration by using standardized expressions and formats to evaluate the system’s compliance with predefined policies or benchmarks. CI/CD, OVAL, scripting, or SOAR are other terms related to automation or security, but they do not provide an automated approach to checking a system configuration. Reference: https://csrc.nist.gov/projects/security-content-automation-protocol

A hash is a mathematical function that produces a unique value for a given input. A hash can be used to verify that a bit-level image copy of a hard drive is an exact clone of the original hard drive by comparing the hash values of both drives. If the hash values match, then the drives are identical. If the hash values differ, then there is some discrepancy between the drives. Inserting the hard drive on a test computer and booting the computer, recording the serial numbers of both hard drives, or comparing the file-directory listing of both hard drives are not reliable methods to verify that a bit-level image copy of a hard drive is an exact clone of the original hard drive. Reference: https://www.forensicswiki.org/wiki/Hashing

The IDS signature should be updated next after receiving a new IoC (Indicator of Compromise) from an ISAC (Information Sharing and Analysis Center) that follows a threat actor’s profile and activities. An IoC is a piece of evidence or artifact that suggests a system or network has been compromised or attacked by a threat actor4. An IoC can be an IP address, domain name, URL, file hash, email address, registry key, etc. An ISAC is a nonprofit organization that collects, analyzes, and shares threat intelligence and best practices among its members within a specific sector or industry5. An ISAC can help to improve the security awareness and preparedness of its members by providing timely and relevant information about emerging threats and incidents.

What is the difference between VPN and VPC?

Just as a virtual private network (VPN) provides secure data transfer over the public Internet, a VPC provides secure data transfer between a private enterprise and a public cloud provider.

VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology that provides secure connectivity from the corporate network to a cloud environment. VPN creates an encrypted tunnel between the two networks, allowing developers to access servers in all three tiers of the cloud environment without exposing their traffic to interception or tampering. VPN can also provide authentication and authorization mechanisms to verify the identity and permissions of the developers.

A virtualized system is a system that runs on a software layer called a hypervisor that emulates the hardware resources of a physical machine. A virtualized system can have its own operating system, applications, and data that are isolated from other virtualized systems or the host machine3 A virtualized system can be a solution for a small organization that has proprietary software that is used internally but cannot be updated with the rest of the environment. By virtualizing the system and decommissioning the physical machine, the organization can achieve several benefits, such as:

• Reducing hardware costs and maintenance
• Improving performance and scalability
• Enhancing security and compliance
• Simplifying backup and recovery
• Enabling portability and compatibility

Option C shows a device that can perform a forensic copy of a hard drive. A forensic copy, also known as a forensic image or a bit-stream image, is an exact, unaltered digital copy of a piece of digital evidence. A forensic copy captures everything on the hard drive, including active and latent data, and preserves the integrity of the original evidence. A forensic copy can be used for forensic analysis without risking any changes to the original drive1. Option C shows a device that can connect to two hard drives and create a forensic copy from one drive to another using a write-blocker. A write-blocker is a tool that prevents any data from being written to the destination drive, ensuring that only a read-only copy is made2.

Automated security controls testing is a method that uses tools or scripts to verify that the security controls of a system or device are configured correctly and comply with the organization’s policies and standards. Performing automated security controls testing of expected configurations prior to production would help prevent a recurrence of the risk exposure caused by missing antivirus, unnecessary ports enabled, and insufficient password complexity. Performing password-cracking attempts, Nmap scans, or antivirus scans on all devices before they are released to production are other methods that can help detect some security issues, but they are not as comprehensive or efficient as automated security controls testing. Reference: https://www.nist.gov/system/files/documents/2017/04/28/sp800-115.pdf

An eFuse, or electronic fuse, is a microscopic fuse put into a computer chip that can be blown by applying a high voltage or current. Once blown, an eFuse cannot be reset or repaired, and its state can be read by software or hardware2 An eFuse can be used by a hardware manufacturer to prevent firmware downgrades on a system-on-chip (SoC) that will be used by mobile devices. An eFuse can store information such as the firmware version, security level, or device configuration on the chip. When a newer firmware is installed, an eFuse can be blown to indicate the update and prevent reverting to an older firmware. This can help protect the device from security vulnerabilities, compatibility issues, or unauthorized modifications.

Use data-at-rest scans to locate and identify sensitive data. This option is the best DLP consideration for addressing the sensitive data on the file servers. Data-at-rest scans are performed on data that is stored on a device or a network, such as file servers, and can help identify and classify sensitive data based on predefined policies or rules. The other options are not relevant for this scenario, as they either deal with data in transit (network DLP appliances), data in use (endpoint DLP agents), or cloud-based data (CASB device).

RBAC helps organizations manage access to critical infrastructure networks by assigning access based on roles. This allows organizations to control who can access specific resources and helps eliminate weak credentials that attackers could exploit. Manual reviews and endpoint detection and response can also help to mitigate risk, but role based access control is the best solution for this scenario.

Requests identified by a threat intelligence service with a bad reputation are likely to be malicious or suspicious, as they originate from sources that are known to be involved in cyberattacks or other malicious activities. These requests may indicate that an attacker is trying to exploit a vulnerability or perform reconnaissance on the web server.

Requests sent from the same IP address using different user agents are also likely to be malicious or suspicious, as they indicate that an attacker is trying to evade detection or bypass security controls by changing their browser or device identification. These requests may indicate that an attacker is using automated tools or scripts to scan or attack the web server.

EDR stands for endpoint detection and response, which is a type of security solution that monitors and protects all devices that are connected to a network, such as laptops and mobile phones. EDR can help to ensure that all devices are patched and running some sort of protection against malicious software by providing continuous visibility, threat detection, incident response, and remediation capabilities. EDR can also help to enforce security policies and compliance requirements across all devices .

The strings command is a Linux utility that can extract human-readable content from any file or partition3. It can be used to analyze a Linux swap partition by finding text strings that may indicate malicious activity or compromise4. The head command (B) can only display the first few lines of a file or partition, which may not contain any useful information. The fsstat command © can only display file system statistics such as size, type, and layout, which may not reveal any human-readable content. The dd command (D) can only copy or convert a file or partition, which may not extract any human-readable content.

References: 3: https://linux.die.net/man/1/strings  4: https://www.linuxjournal.com/content/using-strings-command

https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/Password_Spraying_Attack

A credential stuffing attack would be using the full credentials and most likely being used across many common platforms. A credential stuffing attack depends on the reuse of passwords. With so many people reusing their passwords for multiple accounts, just one set of credentials is enough to expose most or all of their accounts.

Data enrichment is the result that the security team hopes to accomplish by adding these sources to the SIEM. Data enrichment is a process that enhances, refines, or otherwise improves raw data by adding context, meaning, or value to it. Data enrichment can help security analysts gain more insights from the events processed by the SIEM, such as identifying the root cause, severity, or impact of an incident3. Data enrichment can also help security analysts correlate events from different sources and reduce false positives or negatives.

The correct answer is C. Detection and monitoring. Detection and monitoring is a function that involves collecting, analyzing, and correlating data from various sources, such as threat feeds, logs, alerts, or events, to identify and respond to potential or ongoing threats. Detection and monitoring can help the organization to consume multiple threat feeds simultaneously and to provide actionable intelligence to various teams, such as security operations center (SOC) analysts, incident responders, or threat hunters. Detection and monitoring can also help the organization to leverage the intelligence to enrich security event data, such as adding context, severity, or priority to the events1.

A. Vulnerability management is not correct. Vulnerability management is a function that involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating the weaknesses or flaws in systems, applications, or networks that could be exploited by attackers. Vulnerability management can help the organization to reduce its attack surface and prevent potential breaches, but it does not directly involve consuming multiple threat feeds simultaneously or providing actionable intelligence to various teams.

B. Risk management is not correct. Risk management is a function that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that could affect the organization’s assets, operations, or objectives. Risk management can help the organization to prioritize and implement appropriate controls or mitigation strategies to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risks, but it does not directly involve consuming multiple threat feeds simultaneously or providing actionable intelligence to various teams.

D. Incident response is not correct. Incident response is a function that involves preparing for, detecting, containing, analyzing, and recovering from security incidents that compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the organization’s assets or operations. Incident response can help the organization to minimize the damage and restore normal operations as quickly as possible, but it does not directly involve consuming multiple threat feeds simultaneously or providing actionable intelligence to various teams.

1: Cybersecurity Analyst+ - CompTIA

The security analyst needs to investigate further the source IP address 10.50.180.49. This IP address belongs to a private network that is not routable on the internet. However, the firewall usage report shows that this IP address has sent traffic to an external destination on port 443 (HTTPS). This could indicate that the IP address is spoofed or compromised by an attacker who is using it to exfiltrate data or communicate with a command-and-control server.

Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM) is an email authentication method that uses a digital signature to let the receiver of an email know that the message was sent and authorized by the owner of a domain1 DKIM helps prevent phishing emails that spoof or impersonate other domains by verifying the identity and integrity of the sender. DKIM works by adding a DKIM signature header to each outgoing email message, which contains a hash value of selected parts of the message and the domain name of the sender. The sender’s domain also publishes a public key in its DNS records, which can be used by the receiver to decrypt the DKIM signature and compare it with its own hash value of the message. If they match, it means that the message was not altered in transit and that it came from the claimed domain.

This is the best method to review and assess the security of the cloud service models used by a company on multiple CSPs. CSP stands for cloud service provider, which is a company that offers cloud-based services such as infrastructure, platform, or software. CASB stands for cloud access security broker, which is a software or service that acts as a gateway between the company and the CSPs, and provides visibility, control, compliance, and threat protection for the cloud services.

Integrating the security benchmarks of the CSPs with a CASB means that the company can use a common set of standards and metrics to measure and compare the security posture and performance of different cloud service models, such as IaaS, PaaS, or SaaS. Security benchmarks are predefined criteria or best practices that define the minimum level of security required for a cloud service model. For example, some security benchmarks may include encryption, authentication, logging, auditing, patching, backup, etc. By integrating these benchmarks with a CASB, the company can monitor and enforce them across multiple CSPs, and identify any gaps or risks in their cloud security.

The server violates the policy of no network access to the internet because it has an established connection to an external IP address (216.58.194.174) on port 443, which is used for HTTPS traffic. This indicates that the server is communicating with a web server on the internet, which is not allowed by the policy. The other policies are not violated because SSH is only used for management of the server (not for accessing other devices), users are utilizing their own accounts (not logging in as an administrator), and unnecessary services are not enabled (only SSH and HTTPS are running). References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 9; https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jump_server

The analyst should disclose details regarding the findings of the vendor’s latest penetration test summary as the first recommendation, as this can help assess the vendor’s security posture and identify any potential risks or issues that may affect the organization. The analyst should review the findings and ask for more information about the scope, methodology, and remediation actions of the penetration test, as well as any evidence or artifacts that support the findings.

This should be addressed to ensure potential vulnerabilities are identified because it indicates that the vulnerability scan was not able to access some resources or perform some actions that require higher privileges on the target system. This could result in missing or inaccurate findings, as some vulnerabilities may not be detected or verified.

A compensating control, also called an alternative control, is a mechanism that is put in place to satisfy the requirement for a security measure that is deemed too difficult or impractical to implement at the present time.

"Compensating controls are additional security measures that you take to address a vulnerability without remediating the underlying issue."

A compensating control is a control that reduces the risk of an existing or potential control weakness2 In this case, the lack of segregation of duties in the accounting department is a control weakness that increases the risk of fraud or error. The quarterly reviews by a different officer are a compensating control that reduces this risk by providing an independent verification of the transactions recorded by the controller.

A security analyst is reviewing the network security monitoring logs listed below and is most likely observing that 10.1.1.129 sent potential malicious requests to the web server and that 10.1.1.130 can potentially obtain information about the PHP version. The logs show that 10.1.1.129 sent two requests to the web server with suspicious parameters, such as “union select” and “or 1=1”, which are commonly used for SQL injection attacks. The logs also show that 10.1.1.130 sent a request to the web server with a parameter “phpinfo”, which is a function that displays information about the PHP configuration and environment, which can be useful for attackers to find vulnerabilities or exploit them. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 8; https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection; https://www.php.net/manual/en/function.phpinfo.php

According to the CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam (CS0-002) study guide, a tabletop exercise can be executed by internal managers to simulate and validate changes to the risk management plan, incident response plan, and system security plan. In a tabletop exercise, participants discuss and work through a simulated scenario, usually in a classroom or conference room setting, to evaluate their readiness and understanding of the proposed changes. This type of exercise can help to identify any potential issues or gaps in the proposed changes and can provide valuable insights for refining and improving the plans.

The security analyst should review the known Apache vulnerabilities to determine if a compromise actually occurred. The SIEM alert indicates that an IDS signature detected an attempt to exploit a vulnerability in Apache Struts 2 (CVE-2017-5638), which allows remote code execution via a crafted Content-Type header4. The packet capture and TCP stream show that the attacker sent a malicious request with a Content-Type header containing an OGNL expression that executes the command “whoami” on the target server. However, this does not necessarily mean that the attack was successful, as it depends on whether the target server was running a vulnerable version of Apache Struts 2 or not. Therefore, the security analyst should review the known Apache vulnerabilities and compare them with the version of Apache Struts 2 running on the server to confirm if a compromise actually occurred or not.

The security analyst should review the message in a secure environment first. This will help determine if the message is indeed spam or if it contains any malicious content, such as malware attachments or phishing links. Reviewing the message in a secure environment means using a sandbox or an isolated system that can prevent any potential harm to the analyst’s system or network. If the message is confirmed to be spam or malicious, then the analyst can take further actions, such as blocking the sender, deleting the email, or notifying the users3.

Static analysis is a method of analyzing software code without executing it, by using tools or techniques that check for syntax errors, logic errors, vulnerabilities, coding standards, and other quality issues. Static analysis can help software developers to correct the error-handling capabilities of an application before pushing it to production, as it can detect potential errors and bugs at an early stage of development. A web-application vulnerability scan (A) is a method of testing web applications for security flaws by simulating attacks and analyzing responses. It can be useful for finding vulnerabilities in web applications, but not for validating the error-handling capabilities of an application. A packet inspection © is a method of monitoring network traffic by examining the data packets that are sent and received over a network. It can be useful for detecting malicious or unauthorized activity on a network, but not for validating the error-handling capabilities of an application. A penetration test (D) is a method of evaluating the security of a system or network by simulating real-world attacks and exploiting vulnerabilities. It can be useful for assessing the overall security posture of a system or network, but not for validating the error-handling capabilities of an application.

References: : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/14436/static-analysis : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/4160/web-application-security-scanner-was : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/4010/packet-inspection : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/13493/penetration-testing

A daemon is a program that runs in the background on a system and performs certain tasks or services without user intervention. A daemon’s binary is the executable file that contains the code and instructions for the daemon to run. The server log shows that the daemon’s binary was changed on Aug 1 2020 at 00:00:01 by an unknown user with UID 0 (root). This is the greatest security concern, because it could indicate that an attacker has gained root access to the system and modified the daemon’s binary with malicious code that could compromise the system’s security or functionality. Four consecutive days of monitoring being skipped in the log, the process identifiers for the running service changing, or the PIDs continuously changing are not security concerns, but rather normal events that could occur due to system maintenance, updates, restarts, or scheduling. Reference: https://www.linux.com/training-tutorials/what-are-linux-daemons/

Creating a data minimization plan would be the most cost-effective solution to the current data privacy and protection gap found in the last security assessment. Data minimization is a principle that states that organizations should collect, store, process, and retain only the minimum amount of personal data that is necessary for their legitimate purposes. Data minimization can help reduce the risk of data breaches, data leaks, or data misuse by limiting the exposure and access to sensitive data. Data minimization can also help comply with data protection regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), that require organizations to justify their data collection and processing activities. Data minimization can be achieved by implementing various measures, such as deleting or anonymizing unnecessary data, applying retention policies, or using encryption or pseudonymization techniques.

A buffer overflow is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in an application or program that does not properly check the size or boundaries of an input. A buffer overflow occurs when an attacker supplies more data than the buffer can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can result in unpredictable behavior, such as crashes, errors, data corruption, or execution of malicious code2 The tool that the analyst ran against the executable supplied an input that was too long for the buffer allocated by the executable. This caused a buffer overflow in the executable’s memory, as indicated by the error message “Segmentation fault (core dumped)”.

Modbus is an industrial control system (ICS) network protocol that is used for communication between devices such as sensors, controllers, actuators, and monitors. Modbus has no inherent security functions on TCP port 502, which is the default port for Modbus TCP/IP communication. Modbus does not provide any encryption, authentication, or integrity protection for the data transmitted over the network, making it vulnerable to various attacks such as replay, modification, spoofing, or denial-of-service.

Implementing privileged access management (PAM) would be the best countermeasure to prevent the loss of customers’ sensitive data due to a rise in cyberattackers seeking PHI (Protected Health Information). PAM is a solution that helps to control and monitor the access and use of privileged accounts, such as administrator or root accounts, that have elevated permissions or access to sensitive data. PAM can help prevent unauthorized or accidental use of privileged accounts by enforcing strict access policies, such as requiring approval, authentication, or auditing for each access request. PAM can also help rotate or expire the passwords of privileged accounts to reduce the risk of compromise2. PAM can help protect PHI from cyberattackers who may try to exploit privileged accounts to access or exfiltrate sensitive data.

A routine vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing known vulnerabilities in a system or network using automated tools or software3 A vulnerability scan does not necessarily mean that there is an active threat or exploit on the system or network, but rather that there are potential weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. The best next step after a routine vulnerability scan detected a known vulnerability in a critical enterprise web application is to evaluate the risk and criticality of the vulnerability, which means assessing the likelihood and impact of an exploit on the web application, and prioritizing the remediation actions based on the severity and urgency of the vulnerability.

A breach notification is a communication to affected individuals or entities that informs them of a security incident involving their personal or sensitive information. A breach notification may include details such as what information was compromised, when and how the incident occurred, what actions are being taken to mitigate the impact, and what steps the recipients should take to protect themselves3 A breach notification may be required by law or regulation, depending on the type and location of the information involved and the jurisdiction of the affected parties. Different countries or regions may have different breach notification requirements, such as who must be notified, when, how, and what information must be disclosed4 Therefore, the best role to determine the breach notification requirements for a company that experienced a breach of sensitive information affecting customers across multiple geographical regions is legal counsel. Legal counsel can advise the company on its legal obligations and liabilities, as well as help draft and deliver appropriate breach notifications.

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is a legally binding contract that establishes a confidential relationship between two or more parties and prevents them from sharing or using certain information that is deemed sensitive, proprietary, or valuable1. An NDA can be used to protect intellectual property (IP) such as trade secrets, inventions, designs, or business plans from being disclosed to competitors or the public2.

A company that wants to ensure a third party does not take its IP and build a competing product can use an NDA to restrict the access, use, and disclosure of its IP by the third party. For example, if the company hires a contractor to develop a software application, the company can require the contractor to sign an NDA that prohibits the contractor from copying, modifying, selling, or revealing the source code or any other details of the application to anyone else3. The NDA can also specify the duration, scope, and consequences of the confidentiality obligation.

Secure and thorough disposal can involve deleting or wiping all data from the hardware appliances, physically destroying or shredding them, or recycling them through certified vendors or programs. Compliance with company policies can help to ensure that the disposal follows the best practices and standards for data protection and environmental responsibility .

References: : https://www.bestbuy.com/site/services/recycling/pcmcat149900050025.c?id=pcmcat149900050025 : https://www.epa.gov/recycle/electronics-donation-and-recycling : https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatacenter/tip/A-6-step-guide-for-hardware-disposal

An asset inventory is a list of all the hardware, software, data, and other resources that an organization owns or uses. An asset inventory helps to identify what systems are present in an organization, where they are located, what they do, and how they are configured2 Developing an asset inventory is the next step that should be completed to obtain information about the software company’s security posture, as it provides a baseline for further analysis and assessment of the systems’ vulnerabilities and risks.

User access logging (UAL) is a feature on Windows Server operating systems that records the details of remote access and management activities performed by users on the server. UAL can provide information such as the user name, the source IP address, the destination host name, the protocol used, and the time and duration of the connection1. Enabling user access logging on the VPN server can help the security analyst to obtain the best information to identify and investigate the inbound connection originating from an unknown IP address.

Data Sovereignty means that data is subject to the laws and regulations of the geographic location where that data is collected and processed. Data sovereignty is a country-specific requirement that data must remain within the borders of the jurisdiction where it originated. At its core, data sovereignty is about protecting sensitive, private data and ensuring it remains under the control of its owner. You're only worried about that if you're in multiple locations. . https://www.virtru.com/blog/gdpr-data-sovereignty-matters-globally

Geographic access requirements are an appropriate technical control to implement to mitigate data sovereignty issues. Data sovereignty issues arise when data is subject to different laws and regulations depending on where it is stored or processed. For example, some countries may have stricter data protection or privacy laws than others, or may impose restrictions on cross-border data transfers. Geographic access requirements can help ensure that data is only accessed from locations that comply with the applicable laws and regulations, and prevent unauthorized access from locations that do not.

This best describes the utility of the structured loC data contributed by other members of the information sharing and analysis center (ISAC) for its sector. loC stands for indicator of compromise, which is a piece of information that suggests a potential intrusion or attack, such as an IP address, a file hash, a domain name, or a malware signature. By sharing loC data, the ISAC members can benefit from each other’s threat intelligence and improve their security defenses.

Server-side input validation is a solution that can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities by checking and filtering any user input that is sent to the server before rendering it on a web page. Server-side input validation can help to ensure that the user input conforms to the expected format, length and type, and does not contain any malicious characters or syntax that may alter the logic or behavior of the web page. Server-side input validation can also reject or sanitize any input that does not meet the validation criteria .

Reverse engineering is a process of analyzing a system or a component to understand how it works and how it was made. Reverse engineering can be used to examine malicious processes captured from memory and determine their functionality, origin, and purpose. Reverse engineering can help identify the type of malware, its infection vector, its capabilities, its communication methods, and its indicators of compromise2

 Indicator enrichment and research pivoting are steps in the threat intelligence process that involve gathering additional information and context about the indicators of compromise (IoCs) that are related to an incident, and using them to identify other potential sources of threat data or evidence. For example, an analyst can enrich an IoC such as an IP address by looking up its geolocation, reputation, or associated domains, and then pivot to other sources of threat intelligence that may have more information about the IP address or its activities.

Enforcing geofencing to limit data accessibility is the best option to ensure the privacy of the data that is on its systems. Geofencing is a technique that uses GPS or RFID technology to create a virtual geographic boundary around a specific location or area. Geofencing can be used to restrict data accessibility based on the location of the device or user that tries to access it. For example, geofencing can prevent employees from accessing sensitive data when they are outside the office premises or in a different country3. Geofencing can help protect data privacy and comply with data protection regulations that may vary across regions or jurisdictions.

The company is transferring the risk for the vulnerability to the software vendor. Risk transfer is a risk treatment strategy that involves shifting the potential loss or impact of a risk to a third party, such as an insurance company or a vendor. Risk transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the organization’s exposure or liability for the risk1. In this scenario, the company is transferring the risk for the vulnerability in the out-of-support database software to the software vendor by signing an extended support contract. The extended support contract means that the software vendor will continue to provide security patches and updates for the software until the company can complete the software update. This reduces the likelihood and impact of a potential exploit of the vulnerability.

Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data with fictitious but realistic data, thus preventing unauthorized access to the original data. Reencrypting the data sets using AES-256 would provide a stronger level of encryption than Triple DES, which has been deprecated by NIST due to its vulnerability to attacks12

References: 1 What Is AES-256 Encryption? How Does It Work? - MUO 2 Archived NIST Technical Series Publication

Static analysis is a method of analyzing the source code or binary code of an application without executing it. Static analysis can detect vulnerable third-party libraries before code deployment by scanning the code for references to known vulnerable libraries or versions and reporting any issues or risks12.

Impact analysis is a process of assessing the potential effects of a change on a system or service, such as performance, availability, security and compatibility. Impact analysis does not detect vulnerable third-party libraries before code deployment, but rather helps to evaluate and communicate the consequences of a change.

Dynamic analysis is a method of analyzing the behavior or performance of an application by executing it under various conditions or inputs. Dynamic analysis does not detect vulnerable third-party libraries before code deployment, but rather helps to identify any errors or defects that occur at runtime.

Protocol analysis is a method of examining the data exchanged between devices or applications over a network by capturing and interpreting the packets or messages. Protocol analysis does not detect vulnerable third-party libraries before code deployment, but rather helps to monitor and troubleshoot network communication.

The line from this output that most likely indicates that attackers could quickly use brute force and determine the negotiated secret session key is TLS_DHE_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA 128 DH (1024 bits). This line indicates that the cipher suite uses Diffie-Hellman ephemeral (DHE) key exchange with RSA authentication, AES 128-bit encryption with cipher block chaining (CBC) mode, and SHA-1 hashing. The DHE key exchange uses a 1024-bit Diffie-Hellman group, which is considered too weak for modern security standards and can be broken by attackers using sufficient computing power. The other lines indicate stronger cipher suites that use longer key lengths or more secure algorithms. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 9; https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/secauthn/cipher-suites-in-schannel

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a set of policies and tools that aim to prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data. DLP transport rules are rules that apply to email messages that are sent or received by an organization’s mail server. These rules can provide deep content analysis, which means they can scan the content of email messages and attachments for sensitive data patterns, such as client lists or contact information. If a rule detects a violation of the DLP policy, it can take actions such as blocking, quarantining, or notifying the sender or recipient. This would improve security and help prevent sales team members from sending sensitive client lists to their personal accounts. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 14; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/mail-flow-rules/data-loss-prevention

Developing a query to search for the indicators of compromise is the first action the analyst should take in this situation. Indicators of compromise (IOCs) are pieces of information that suggest a system or network has been compromised by an attacker. IOCs can include IP addresses, domain names, file hashes, URLs, or other artifacts that are associated with malicious activity. Developing a query to search for IOCs can help to identify any potential incidents or threats in the environment and initiate further investigation or response .

A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing known vulnerabilities in a system or network using automated tools or software1 A vulnerability scan can help improve the security posture of a vulnerability management program by detecting and prioritizing potential weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. To increase the security posture of a vulnerability scan, the following actions can be taken:

• Expand the ports being scanned to include all ports: This means scanning all possible ports on a system or network, not just the well-known or commonly used ones. This can help discover more vulnerabilities that may be hidden or overlooked on less frequently used ports.
• Increase the scan interval to a number the business will accept without causing service interruption: This means scanning more frequently or regularly, but not so often that it causes performance issues or downtime for the system or network. This can help keep up with new vulnerabilities that may emerge over time and reduce the window of opportunity for attackers.
• Enable authentication and perform credentialed scans: This means using login credentials or SSH keys on an asset to get deeper access to its data, processes, configurations, and vulnerabilities2 This can help discover more vulnerabilities that cannot be seen from the network, such as insecure versions of software or poor security permissions.

Packets with internal source IP addresses do not enter the network from the outside. This firewall rule can prevent external IP spoofing, which is an attack technique that involves forging the source IP address of a packet to impersonate another host or network. By blocking packets with internal source IP addresses from entering the network from the outside, the firewall can filter out spoofed packets that claim to originate from the internal network.

CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, and it is a standard for measuring and describing the severity of security-related software flaws. CVSS provides a numerical score and a vector string that represent the characteristics and impact of a vulnerability. CVSS can help prioritize remediation efforts and communicate risk levels to stakeholders.

VDI means virtual desktop interface. Using VDI, you can maintain a standard image and remove the threat of an infected machine plugging into your network.

A firewalled environment for client devices and a secure VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) for BYOD users would be the most likely recommendation for securing the proposed solution. A firewalled environment can help isolate and protect the client devices from unauthorized network access or attacks. A secure VDI can provide a virtualized desktop environment for BYOD users that can be centrally managed and controlled by the organization. A VDI can also prevent data leakage or malware infection from BYOD devices, as the data and applications are stored on the server side rather than on the device itself5.

A security information and event management (SIEM) system is a tool that collects and analyzes log data from various sources and provides alerts and reports on security incidents and events. A SIEM system can help the IT team to determine which devices are USB enabled by querying the log data for events related to USB device insertion, removal, or usage. The other options are not relevant or effective for this purpose. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 15; https://www.sans.org/reading-room/whitepapers/analyst/security-information-event-management-siem-implementation-33969

An incident communications process is a set of procedures that defines how to communicate with internal and external stakeholders during and after an incident, such as customers, employees, management, regulators and media. An incident communications process can help to provide accurate, timely and consistent information about the incident, its impact and the actions taken to resolve it. An incident communications process can also help to maintain trust and reputation, comply with legal obligations and prevent misinformation or confusion3 .

The correct answer is A. Cloud WAF. A cloud WAF stands for a cloud-based web application firewall, and it is a service that protects web applications from common attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, or denial-of-service. A cloud WAF can inspect and filter HTTP requests and responses between the web application and the internet, and block or allow them based on predefined or custom rules. A cloud WAF can also generate logs with details regarding the threat actor’s requests, such as the source IP address, the destination URL, the payload, the rule triggered, and the action taken1.

B. Internal proxy is not correct. An internal proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between internal clients and external servers. An internal proxy can provide various functions, such as caching, filtering, authentication, or encryption. An internal proxy can also generate logs with details regarding the client’s requests, such as the source IP address, the destination URL, the protocol used, and the response received2. However, an internal proxy would not have logs with details regarding the threat actor’s requests, as they are directed to the web application, not to the internal proxy.

C. TAXII server is not correct. TAXII stands for Trusted Automated eXchange of Intelligence Information, and it is a standard that defines how to exchange cyber threat intelligence (CTI) between different systems or organizations. TAXII uses a client-server model, where a TAXII client can request or send CTI to a TAXII server using predefined services and messages. A TAXII server can store and provide CTI in a structured and standardized format3. However, a TAXII server would not have logs with details regarding the threat actor’s requests, as they are not related to CTI exchange.

D. Hardware security module is not correct. A hardware security module (HSM) is a physical device that provides secure storage and processing of cryptographic keys and operations. An HSM can protect sensitive data and transactions, such as encryption, decryption, signing, or verification, from unauthorized access or tampering. However, an HSM would not have logs with details regarding the threat actor’s requests, as they are not related to cryptographic operations.

1: What Is a Cloud-Based Web Application Firewall (WAF)? 2: What Is a Proxy Server? 3: What Is TAXII? : [What Is a Hardware Security Module (HSM)?]

 A sinkhole is a technique that redirects malicious network traffic to a controlled destination, such as a fake server or a black hole. A sinkhole can be used to stop malicious communications with a command-and-control server by preventing the malware from reaching its intended destination. A high entropy level means that the sinkhole can generate random domain names that match the changing domain name used by the malware for callback. Blocking TCP/443 at the edge router, disabling TCP/53 at the perimeter firewall, or configuring the DNS forwarders to use recursion are other possible actions that could stop malicious communications, but they could also disrupt legitimate services that use those protocols or settings. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/dns-sinkholing.html