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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Question and Answers

Question # 4

Malware has recently affected an organization. The MOST effective way to resolve this situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform:

A.

a gap analysis

B.

a root cause analysis.

C.

an impact assessment.

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

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Question # 5

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

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Question # 6

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Question # 7

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?

A.

Risk response plans are documented

B.

Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.

C.

Key risk indicators are defined.

D.

Risk ownership is assigned

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Question # 8

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?

A.

To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors

B.

To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk

C.

To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance

D.

To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions

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Question # 9

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

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Question # 10

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

A.

Control chart

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Decision tree

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Question # 11

A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 12

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

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Question # 13

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?

A.

Percentage of changes with a fallback plan

B.

Number of changes implemented

C.

Percentage of successful changes

D.

Average time required to implement a change

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Question # 14

Which of the following would BEST ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed?

A.

Reviewing the implementation of the risk response

B.

Creating a separate risk register for key business units

C.

Performing real-time monitoring of threats

D.

Performing regular risk control self-assessments

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Question # 15

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office

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Question # 16

Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

residual risk.

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk tolerance

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Question # 17

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of promoting a risk-aware culture within an organization?

A.

Better understanding of the risk appetite

B.

Improving audit results

C.

Enabling risk-based decision making

D.

Increasing process control efficiencies

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Question # 18

Which of the following helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions?

A.

Digital signatures

B.

Encrypted passwords

C.

One-time passwords

D.

Digital certificates

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Question # 19

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization's user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:

A.

accounts without documented approval

B.

user accounts with default passwords

C.

active accounts belonging to former personnel

D.

accounts with dormant activity.

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Question # 20

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?

A.

impact due to failure of control

B.

Frequency of failure of control

C.

Contingency plan for residual risk

D.

Cost-benefit analysis of automation

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Question # 21

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

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Question # 22

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:

A.

establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.

B.

compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.

D.

alignment of business goals with IT objectives.

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Question # 23

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

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Question # 24

An organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Develop a compensating control.

B.

Allocate remediation resources.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Identify risk responses

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Question # 25

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Threat analysis

C.

Risk response analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 26

A global organization is considering the acquisition of a competitor. Senior management has requested a review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization. Which of the following components of this review would provide the MOST useful information?

A.

Risk appetite statement

B.

Enterprise risk management framework

C.

Risk management policies

D.

Risk register

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Question # 27

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

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Question # 28

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

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Question # 29

When reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management's PRIMARY focus should be placed on the:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

investment portfolio.

C.

key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

alignment with risk appetite.

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Question # 30

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?

A.

Frequency of anti-virus software updates

B.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

C.

Number of false positives detected over a period of time

D.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

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Question # 31

Which of the following would be MOST important for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process?

A.

Closed management action plans from the previous audit

B.

Annual risk assessment results

C.

An updated vulnerability management report

D.

A list of identified generic risk scenarios

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Question # 32

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

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Question # 33

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure is MOST likely an example of:

A.

low risk tolerance.

B.

corporate culture misalignment.

C.

corporate culture alignment.

D.

high risk tolerance

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Question # 34

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

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Question # 35

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

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Question # 36

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?

A.

Complexity of the IT infrastructure

B.

Value of information assets

C.

Management culture

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 37

Which of the following is the BEST method to identify unnecessary controls?

A.

Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls

B.

Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements

C.

Reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes

D.

Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 38

Which of the following would provide the BEST guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan?

A.

Risk mitigation budget

B.

Business Impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Return on investment

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Question # 39

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

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Question # 40

Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?

A.

Perform an m-depth code review with an expert

B.

Validate functionality by running in a test environment

C.

Implement a service level agreement.

D.

Utilize the change management process.

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Question # 41

A risk practitioner has observed that there is an increasing trend of users sending sensitive information by email without using encryption. Which of the following would be the MOST effective approach to mitigate the risk associated with data loss?

A.

Implement a tool to create and distribute violation reports

B.

Raise awareness of encryption requirements for sensitive data.

C.

Block unencrypted outgoing emails which contain sensitive data.

D.

Implement a progressive disciplinary process for email violations.

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Question # 42

Which of the following will BEST mitigate the risk associated with IT and business misalignment?

A.

Establishing business key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Introducing an established framework for IT architecture

C.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Involving the business process owner in IT strategy

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Question # 43

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in the service level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center?

A.

Percentage of systems included in recovery processes

B.

Number of key systems hosted

C.

Average response time to resolve system incidents

D.

Percentage of system availability

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Question # 44

Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Directives from legal and regulatory authorities

B.

Audit reports from internal information systems audits

C.

Automated logs collected from different systems

D.

Trend analysis of external risk factors

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Question # 45

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 46

Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Engaging sponsorship by senior management

B.

Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization

C.

Including input from risk and business unit management

D.

Developing in collaboration with internal audit

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Question # 47

During a control review, the control owner states that an existing control has deteriorated over time. What is the BEST recommendation to the control owner?

A.

Implement compensating controls to reduce residual risk

B.

Escalate the issue to senior management

C.

Discuss risk mitigation options with the risk owner.

D.

Certify the control after documenting the concern.

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Question # 48

The PRIMARY purpose of a maturity model is to compare the:

A.

current state of key processes to their desired state.

B.

actual KPIs with target KPIs.

C.

organization to industry best practices.

D.

organization to peers.

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Question # 49

Which of the following should be initiated when a high number of noncompliant conditions are observed during review of a control procedure?

A.

Disciplinary action

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

A review of the awareness program

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 50

A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?

A.

Risk forecasting

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 51

Which of the following BEST enables a proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure?

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Data backups

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 52

Which of the following will MOST improve stakeholders' understanding of the effect of a potential threat?

A.

Establishing a risk management committee

B.

Updating the organization's risk register to reflect the new threat

C.

Communicating the results of the threat impact analysis

D.

Establishing metrics to assess the effectiveness of the responses

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Question # 53

Before implementing instant messaging within an organization using a public solution, which of the following should be in place to mitigate data leakage risk?

A.

A data extraction tool

B.

An access control list

C.

An intrusion detection system (IDS)

D.

An acceptable usage policy

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Question # 54

Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?

A.

Assigning control ownership

B.

Assigning appropriate resources

C.

Assigning a quality control review

D.

Performing regular independent control reviews

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Question # 55

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization's IT systems via personal or public computers?

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 56

Deviation from a mitigation action plan's completion date should be determined by which of the following?

A.

Change management as determined by a change control board

B.

Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects

C.

Project governance criteria as determined by the project office

D.

The risk owner as determined by risk management processes

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Question # 57

As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:

A.

align IT processes with business objectives.

B.

communicate the enterprise risk management policy.

C.

stay current with existing control status.

D.

understand the organizational risk profile.

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Question # 58

Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering?

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Multifactor authentication

D.

Employee sanctions

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Question # 59

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase of the project management life cycle?

A.

To deliver projects on time and on budget

B.

To assess inherent risk

C.

To include project risk in the enterprise-wide IT risk profit.

D.

To assess risk throughout the project

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Question # 60

When reporting risk assessment results to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to include to enable risk-based decision making?

A.

Risk action plans and associated owners

B.

Recent audit and self-assessment results

C.

Potential losses compared to treatment cost

D.

A list of assets exposed to the highest risk

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Question # 61

An organization has engaged a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. This is an example of risk:

A.

mitigation.

B.

avoidance.

C.

transfer.

D.

acceptance.

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Question # 62

A large organization is replacing its enterprise resource planning (ERP) system and has decided not to deploy the payroll module of the new system. Instead, the current payroll system will continue to be

used. Of the following, who should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected?

A.

The business owner

B.

The ERP administrator

C.

The project steering committee

D.

The IT project manager

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Question # 63

A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Report it to the chief risk officer.

B.

Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.

C.

follow incident reporting procedures.

D.

Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.

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Question # 64

Which of the following should be the MAIN consideration when validating an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Comparison against regulations

B.

Maturity of the risk culture

C.

Capacity to withstand loss

D.

Cost of risk mitigation options

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Question # 65

An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?

A.

Number of business change management requests

B.

Number of revisions to security policy

C.

Number of security policy exceptions approved

D.

Number of changes to firewall rules

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Question # 66

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?

A.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

B.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

C.

Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.

D.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

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Question # 67

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

A.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

B.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

C.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

D.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

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Question # 68

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Question # 69

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?

A.

To provide data for establishing the risk profile

B.

To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies

C.

To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur

D.

To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness

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Question # 70

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Collaborating with IT audit

C.

Conducting vulnerability assessments

D.

Obtaining input from key stakeholders

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Question # 71

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address an organization's need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources?

A.

Apply available security patches.

B.

Schedule a penetration test.

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Perform a vulnerability analysis.

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Question # 72

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

A.

Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

B.

Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

C.

Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

D.

Testing the DLP rule change control process

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Question # 73

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Question # 74

Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?

A.

The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.

B.

The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

The risk response is accounted for in the budget.

D.

The risk response aligns with the organization's risk appetite.

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Question # 75

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

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Question # 76

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

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Question # 77

A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

invoke the established incident response plan.

B.

Inform internal audit.

C.

Perform a root cause analysis

D.

Conduct an immediate risk assessment

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Question # 78

During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?

A.

Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk.

B.

Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk.

C.

Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes.

D.

Educate business executives on IT risk concepts.

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Question # 79

The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?

A.

Escalate to senior management

B.

Require a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Sanitize portions of the register

D.

Determine the purpose of the request

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Question # 80

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 81

The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?

A.

Perform a root cause analysis

B.

Perform a code review

C.

Implement version control software.

D.

Implement training on coding best practices

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Question # 82

A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:

A.

reduces risk to an acceptable level

B.

quantifies risk impact

C.

aligns with business strategy

D.

advances business objectives.

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Question # 83

It is MOST appropriate for changes to be promoted to production after they are:

A.

communicated to business management

B.

tested by business owners.

C.

approved by the business owner.

D.

initiated by business users.

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Question # 84

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

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Question # 85

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?

A.

User provisioning

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Security log monitoring

D.

Entitlement reviews

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Question # 86

During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?

A.

Data validation

B.

Identification

C.

Authentication

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 87

When using a third party to perform penetration testing, which of the following is the MOST important control to minimize operational impact?

A.

Perform a background check on the vendor.

B.

Require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Require the vendor to have liability insurance.

D.

Clearly define the project scope

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Question # 88

The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:

A.

risk assessment methodology.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

capabilities

D.

asset value.

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Question # 89

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?

A.

Obtaining management sign-off

B.

Demonstrating effective risk mitigation

C.

Justifying return on investment

D.

Providing accurate risk reporting

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Question # 90

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department's recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

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Question # 91

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

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Question # 92

From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

A.

The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

B.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.

C.

All business-critical systems are successfully tested.

D.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Question # 93

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

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Question # 94

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

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Question # 95

It is MOST important that security controls for a new system be documented in:

A.

testing requirements

B.

the implementation plan.

C.

System requirements

D.

The security policy

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Question # 96

Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to minimize risk?

A.

Industry best practice review

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Control-effectiveness evaluation

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Question # 97

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Management approval

B.

Annual review

C.

Relevance

D.

Automation

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Question # 98

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 99

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

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Question # 100

An IT operations team implements disaster recovery controls based on decisions from application owners regarding the level of resiliency needed. Who is the risk owner in this scenario?

A.

Business resilience manager

B.

Disaster recovery team lead

C.

Application owner

D.

IT operations manager

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Question # 101

A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:

A.

mitigated

B.

accepted

C.

avoided

D.

deferred

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Question # 102

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?

A.

Seek approval from the control owner.

B.

Update the action plan in the risk register.

C.

Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.

D.

Validate that the control has an established testing method.

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Question # 103

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

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Question # 104

An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:

A.

data aggregation

B.

data privacy

C.

data quality

D.

data validation

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Question # 105

When reporting on the performance of an organization's control environment including which of the following would BEST inform stakeholders risk decision-making?

A.

The audit plan for the upcoming period

B.

Spend to date on mitigating control implementation

C.

A report of deficiencies noted during controls testing

D.

A status report of control deployment

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Question # 106

Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business

B.

Cost of regulatory compliance

C.

Projected impact of current business on future business

D.

Expected costs for recovering the business

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Question # 107

Who should be responsible (of evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Risk practitioner

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Question # 108

In order to efficiently execute a risk response action plan, it is MOST important for the emergency response team members to understand:

A.

system architecture in target areas.

B.

IT management policies and procedures.

C.

business objectives of the organization.

D.

defined roles and responsibilities.

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Question # 109

Which of the following BEST reduces the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information?

A.

Cable lock

B.

Data encryption

C.

Periodic backup

D.

Biometrics access control

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Question # 110

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure new IT policies address the enterprise's requirements?

A.

involve IT leadership in the policy development process

B.

Require business users to sign acknowledgment of the poises

C.

involve business owners in the pokey development process

D.

Provide policy owners with greater enforcement authority

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Question # 111

What should be the PRIMARY consideration related to data privacy protection when there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information?

A.

Do not collect or retain data that is not needed.

B.

Redact data where possible.

C.

Limit access to the personal data.

D.

Ensure all data is encrypted at rest and during transit.

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Question # 112

Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls?

A.

Data classification policy

B.

Emerging technology trends

C.

The IT strategic plan

D.

The risk register

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Question # 113

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes?

A.

Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR) during the disaster recovery test

B.

Percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time

C.

Percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope

D.

Percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test

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Question # 114

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

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Question # 115

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

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Question # 116

An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.

C.

Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.

D.

Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained

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Question # 117

Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:

A.

risk register

B.

risk catalog

C.

risk scenario

D.

RACI matrix

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Question # 118

A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization's defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.

B.

Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.

C.

Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.

D.

Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.

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Question # 119

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an antivirus program?

A.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

B.

Number of false positives defected over a period of time

C.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

D.

Frequency of anti-vinjs software updates

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Question # 120

What is the PRIMARY benefit of risk monitoring?

A.

It reduces the number of audit findings.

B.

It provides statistical evidence of control efficiency.

C.

It facilitates risk-aware decision making.

D.

It facilitates communication of threat levels.

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Question # 121

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

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Question # 122

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 123

Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.

B.

Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.

C.

Gather scenarios from senior management.

D.

Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.

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Question # 124

The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact

B.

the magnitude of an impact

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat

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Question # 125

Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

Transaction logging

D.

Benchmarking against peers

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Question # 126

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

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Question # 127

Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?

A.

A robust risk aggregation tool set

B.

Clearly defined roles and responsibilities

C.

A well-established risk management committee

D.

Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures

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Question # 128

Which of the following attributes of a key risk indicator (KRI) is MOST important?

A.

Repeatable

B.

Automated

C.

Quantitative

D.

Qualitative

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Question # 129

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

A.

a root cause analysis is required

B.

controls are effective for ensuring continuity

C.

hardware needs to be upgraded

D.

no action is required as there was no impact

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Question # 130

After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The business process owner

C.

The risk owner

D.

The control owner

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Question # 131

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

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Question # 132

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization's risk appetite.

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Question # 133

An organization that has been the subject of multiple social engineering attacks is developing a risk awareness program. The PRIMARY goal of this program should be to:

A.

reduce the risk to an acceptable level.

B.

communicate the consequences for violations.

C.

implement industry best practices.

D.

reduce the organization's risk appetite

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Question # 134

The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:

A.

gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization

B.

gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization

C.

adjust the controls prior to an external audit

D.

reduce the dependency on external audits

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Question # 135

During the risk assessment of an organization that processes credit cards, a number of existing controls have been found to be ineffective and do not meet industry standards. The overall control environment may still be effective if:

A.

compensating controls are in place.

B.

a control mitigation plan is in place.

C.

risk management is effective.

D.

residual risk is accepted.

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Question # 136

Which of the following roles would provide the MOST important input when identifying IT risk scenarios?

A.

Information security managers

B.

Internal auditors

C.

Business process owners

D.

Operational risk managers

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Question # 137

IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:

A.

for compliance with laws and regulations

B.

as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.

C.

as input for decision-making

D.

to measure organizational success.

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Question # 138

The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:

A.

reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.

B.

identify compensating controls.

C.

minimize residual risk.

D.

reduce risk factors.

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Question # 139

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

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Question # 140

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

A.

The team that performed the risk assessment

B.

An assigned risk manager to provide oversight

C.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

D.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

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Question # 141

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

A.

Internal audit reports

B.

Access reviews

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 142

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

A.

Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

B.

Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

C.

Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D.

Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

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Question # 143

An organization wants to assess the maturity of its internal control environment. The FIRST step should be to:

A.

validate control process execution.

B.

determine if controls are effective.

C.

identify key process owners.

D.

conduct a baseline assessment.

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Question # 144

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk trend

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Question # 145

Which of the following BEST provides an early warning that network access of terminated employees is not being revoked in accordance with the service level agreement (SLA)?

A.

Updating multi-factor authentication

B.

Monitoring key access control performance indicators

C.

Analyzing access control logs for suspicious activity

D.

Revising the service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 146

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register?

A.

Aligning risk ownership and control ownership

B.

Developing risk escalation and reporting procedures

C.

Maintaining up-to-date risk treatment plans

D.

Using a consistent method for risk assessment

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Question # 147

The BEST way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to:

A.

align with audit results.

B.

benchmark with competitor s actions.

C.

reference best practice.

D.

focus on the business drivers

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Question # 148

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

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Question # 149

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Question # 150

A cote data center went offline abruptly for several hours affecting many transactions across multiple locations. Which of the to" owing would provide the MOST useful information to determine mitigating controls?

A.

Forensic analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BlA)

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Question # 151

Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?

A.

Risk management framework

B.

Risk register

C.

Global security standards

D.

Recent security incidents reported by competitors

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Question # 152

A highly regulated enterprise is developing a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios What should be done FIRST by IT governance to support this effort?

A.

Request a regulatory risk reporting methodology

B.

Require critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks.

C.

Establish IT-specific compliance objectives

D.

Communicate IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers

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Question # 153

Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:

A.

helping personnel make better-informed decisions

B.

assisting the development of a risk register.

C.

improving the effectiveness of IT controls.

D.

increasing participation in the risk assessment process.

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Question # 154

An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

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Question # 155

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

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Question # 156

An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?

A.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.

B.

Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.

D.

Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).

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Question # 157

When documenting a risk response, which of the following provides the STRONGEST evidence to support the decision?

A.

Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee

B.

List of compensating controls

C.

IT audit follow-up responses

D.

A memo indicating risk acceptance

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Question # 158

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

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Question # 159

Which of the following stakeholders are typically included as part of a line of defense within the three lines of defense model?

A.

Board of directors

B.

Vendors

C.

Regulators

D.

Legal team

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Question # 160

Which of the blowing is MOST important when implementing an organization s security policy?

A.

Obtaining management support

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Assessing compliance requirements

D.

Identifying threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 161

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

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Question # 162

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an organization wants to reduce likelihood in order to reduce a risk level?

A.

Monitor risk controls.

B.

Implement preventive measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Transfer the risk.

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Question # 163

it was determined that replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern1?

A.

The underutilization of the replicated Iink

B.

The cost of recovering the data

C.

The lack of integrity of data

D.

The loss of data confidentiality

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Question # 164

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of stakeholder involvement in risk scenario development?

A.

Ability to determine business impact

B.

Up-to-date knowledge on risk responses

C.

Decision-making authority for risk treatment

D.

Awareness of emerging business threats

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Question # 165

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

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Question # 166

A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment.

B.

Prevent the use of production data in the test environment

C.

De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.

D.

Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.

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Question # 167

Which of the following, who should be PRIMARILY responsible for performing user entitlement reviews?

A.

IT security manager

B.

IT personnel

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

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Question # 168

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.

D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

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Question # 169

An organization control environment is MOST effective when:

A.

control designs are reviewed periodically

B.

controls perform as intended.

C.

controls are implemented consistently.

D.

controls operate efficiently

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Question # 170

The objective of aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite is to ensure that:

A.

exposures are reduced to the fullest extent

B.

exposures are reduced only for critical business systems

C.

insurance costs are minimized

D.

the cost of controls does not exceed the expected loss.

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Question # 171

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

A.

determine the risk appetite.

B.

determine the budget.

C.

define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

optimize resource utilization.

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Question # 172

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

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Question # 173

Using key risk indicators (KRIs) to illustrate changes in the risk profile PRIMARILY helps to:

A.

communicate risk trends to stakeholders.

B.

assign ownership of emerging risk scenarios.

C.

highlight noncompliance with the risk policy

D.

identify threats to emerging technologies.

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Question # 174

Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?

A.

Manual vulnerability scanning processes

B.

Organizational reliance on third-party service providers

C.

Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Risk-averse organizational risk appetite

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Question # 175

When evaluating a number of potential controls for treating risk, it is MOST important to consider:

A.

risk appetite and control efficiency.

B.

inherent risk and control effectiveness.

C.

residual risk and cost of control.

D.

risk tolerance and control complexity.

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Question # 176

Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?

A.

Communication

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Decision support

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 177

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment?

A.

Peer benchmarks

B.

Internal audit reports

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Threat analysis results

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Question # 178

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control baselines?

A.

Configuration validation

B.

Control attestation

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Internal audit review

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Question # 179

An organization wants to grant remote access to a system containing sensitive data to an overseas third party. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to management?

A.

Transborder data transfer restrictions

B.

Differences in regional standards

C.

Lack of monitoring over vendor activities

D.

Lack of after-hours incident management support

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Question # 180

When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is MOST important to ensure the report includes

A.

risk exposure in business terms

B.

a detailed view of individual risk exposures

C.

a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization.

D.

recommendations by an independent risk assessor.

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Question # 181

What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?

A.

Segment the system on its own network.

B.

Ensure regular backups take place.

C.

Virtualize the system in the cloud.

D.

Install antivirus software on the system.

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Question # 182

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Question # 183

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

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Question # 184

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Question # 185

To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?

A.

Operational strategies

B.

Risk governance

C.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 186

Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

Adherence to governing policies

C.

Regular stakeholder briefings

D.

Independent audit results

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Question # 187

Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?

A.

Risk appetite and tolerance

B.

Risk framework and methodology

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Risk communication plan

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Question # 188

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board''

A.

A summary of risk response plans with validation results

B.

A report with control environment assessment results

C.

A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases

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Question # 189

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

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Question # 190

A risk practitioner implemented a process to notify management of emergency changes that may not be approved. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide this information to management?

A.

Change logs

B.

Change management meeting minutes

C.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 191

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of a three lines of defense structure?

A.

An effective risk culture that empowers employees to report risk

B.

Effective segregation of duties to prevent internal fraud

C.

Clear accountability for risk management processes

D.

Improved effectiveness and efficiency of business operations

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Question # 192

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?

A.

Perform a business case analysis

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)

D.

Build a provision for risk

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Question # 193

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of executive management's support for IT risk mitigation efforts?

A.

The number of stakeholders involved in IT risk identification workshops

B.

The percentage of corporate budget allocated to IT risk activities

C.

The percentage of incidents presented to the board

D.

The number of executives attending IT security awareness training

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Question # 194

The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:

A.

Identify new or emerging risk issues.

B.

Satisfy audit requirements.

C.

Survey and analyze historical risk data.

D.

Understand internal and external threat agents.

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Question # 195

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 196

Risk appetite should be PRIMARILY driven by which of the following?

A.

Enterprise security architecture roadmap

B.

Stakeholder requirements

C.

Legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 197

Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization's key IT applications in a cloud environment?

A.

Reviewing the results of independent audits

B.

Performing a site visit to the cloud provider's data center

C.

Performing a due diligence review

D.

Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders

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Question # 198

An organization's control environment is MOST effective when:

A.

controls perform as intended.

B.

controls operate efficiently.

C.

controls are implemented consistent

D.

control designs are reviewed periodically

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Question # 199

Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?

A.

Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite

. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls

B.

Considering risk that can be shared with a third party

C.

Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios

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Question # 200

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management?

A.

Promotion of a risk-aware culture

B.

Compilation of a comprehensive risk register

C.

Alignment of business activities

D.

Facilitation of risk-aware decision making

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Question # 201

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

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Question # 202

An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?

A.

Business benefits of shadow IT

B.

Application-related expresses

C.

Classification of the data

D.

Volume of data

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Question # 203

An organization has experienced a cyber-attack that exposed customer personally identifiable information (Pll) and caused extended outages of network services. Which of the following stakeholders are MOST important to include in the cyber response team to determine response actions?

A.

Security control owners based on control failures

B.

Cyber risk remediation plan owners

C.

Risk owners based on risk impact

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) team

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Question # 204

Which organization is implementing a project to automate the purchasing process, including the modification of approval controls. Which of the following tasks is lie responsibility of the risk practitioner*?

A.

Verify that existing controls continue to properly mitigate defined risk

B.

Test approval process controls once the project is completed

C.

Update the existing controls for changes in approval processes from this project

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the impacted control processes

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Question # 205

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

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Question # 206

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

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Question # 207

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?

A.

Enroll the employee in additional security training.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Conduct an internal audit.

D.

Instruct the vendor to delete the data.

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Question # 208

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?

A.

Organization's industry sector

B.

Long-term organizational goals

C.

Concerns of the business process owners

D.

History of risk events

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Question # 209

The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is

A.

maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets

B.

determine their sensitivity and critical

C.

establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

categorize data into groups

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Question # 210

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?

A.

Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions

B.

Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options

C.

Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options

D.

Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.

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Question # 211

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

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Question # 212

An organization is adopting block chain for a new financial system. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner evaluating the system's production readiness?

A.

Limited organizational knowledge of the underlying technology

B.

Lack of commercial software support

C.

Varying costs related to implementation and maintenance

D.

Slow adoption of the technology across the financial industry

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Question # 213

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT step?

A.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

B.

Update the risk register with the results.

C.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

D.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

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Question # 214

An organization has an approved bring your own device (BYOD) policy. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the security risk associated with the inappropriate use of enterprise applications on the devices?

A.

Periodically review application on BYOD devices

B.

Include BYOD in organizational awareness programs

C.

Implement BYOD mobile device management (MDM) controls.

D.

Enable a remote wee capability for BYOD devices

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Question # 215

A multinational organization is considering implementing standard background checks to' all new employees A KEY concern regarding this approach

A.

fail to identity all relevant issues.

B.

be too costly

C.

violate laws in other countries

D.

be too line consuming

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Question # 216

An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

A.

Recommend risk remediation

B.

Change the level of risk appetite

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk

D.

Reject the business initiative

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Question # 217

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

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Question # 218

Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?

A.

Prioritize risk response options

B.

Reduce likelihood.

C.

Address more than one risk response

D.

Reduce impact

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Question # 219

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?

A.

Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities

B.

Inaccurate reporting of results

C.

Increased number of vulnerabilities

D.

Network performance degradation

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Question # 220

An organization has completed a risk assessment of one of its service providers. Who should be accountable for ensuring that risk responses are implemented?

A.

IT risk practitioner

B.

Third -partf3ecurity team

C.

The relationship owner

D.

Legal representation of the business

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Question # 221

An organization has decided to postpone the assessment and treatment of several risk scenarios because stakeholders are unavailable. As a result of this decision, the risk associated with these new entries has been;

A.

mitigated

B.

deferred

C.

accepted.

D.

transferred

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Question # 222

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization's risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

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Question # 223

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?

A.

Organizational structure and job descriptions

B.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

D.

Prior year's risk assessment results

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Question # 224

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?

A.

Mapping threats to organizational objectives

B.

Reviewing past audits

C.

Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Identifying potential sources of risk

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Question # 225

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

B.

Availability of qualitative data

C.

Properly set thresholds

D.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

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Question # 226

Which of the following is the MOST important factor when deciding on a control to mitigate risk exposure?

A.

Relevance to the business process

B.

Regulatory compliance requirements

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Comparison against best practice

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Question # 227

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

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Question # 228

Which of the following controls are BEST strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics?

A.

Detective controls

B.

Administrative controls

C.

Technical controls

D.

Preventive controls

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Question # 229

The PRIMARY goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to:

A.

obtain the support of executive management.

B.

map the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources.

C.

identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services.

D.

document the disaster recovery process.

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Question # 230

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

D.

Implementing internal controls

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Question # 231

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when performing a vendor risk assessment?

A.

Results of the last risk assessment of the vendor

B.

Inherent risk of the business process supported by the vendor

C.

Risk tolerance of the vendor

D.

Length of time since the last risk assessment of the vendor

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Question # 232

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

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Question # 233

Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Alignment of investment with risk appetite

C.

Elimination of compensating controls

D.

Reduction in personnel costs

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Question # 234

Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Threat and vulnerability assessment

C.

Compliance assessments

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 235

Which of the following BEST measures the impact of business interruptions caused by an IT service outage?

A.

Sustained financial loss

B.

Cost of remediation efforts

C.

Duration of service outage

D.

Average time to recovery

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Question # 236

An organization is preparing to transfer a large number of customer service representatives to the sales department. Of the following, who is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access?

A.

IT service desk manager

B.

Sales manager

C.

Customer service manager

D.

Access control manager

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Question # 237

Days before the realization of an acquisition, a data breach is discovered at the company to be acquired. For the accruing organization, this situation represents which of the following?

A.

Threat event

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk event

D.

Security incident

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Question # 238

The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organization's IT risk management process should be to:

A.

assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.

B.

confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.

C.

verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.

D.

ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.

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Question # 239

Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis?

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Threat type

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 240

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:

A.

corporate culture alignment

B.

low risk tolerance

C.

high risk tolerance

D.

corporate culture misalignment.

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Question # 241

Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?

A.

A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.

B.

Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

Redundant compensating controls are in place.

D.

Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.

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Question # 242

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to link an effective key control indicator (KCI) to relevant key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

To monitor changes in the risk environment

B.

To provide input to management for the adjustment of risk appetite

C.

To monitor the accuracy of threshold levels in metrics

D.

To obtain business buy-in for investment in risk mitigation measures

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Question # 243

Winch of the following can be concluded by analyzing the latest vulnerability report for the it infrastructure?

A.

Likelihood of a threat

B.

Impact of technology risk

C.

Impact of operational risk

D.

Control weakness

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Question # 244

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle?

A.

Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles

B.

Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool

C.

Introduction of requirements that have not been approved

D.

Bypassing quality requirements before go-live

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Question # 245

Which of the following controls BEST helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination?

A.

Securing the network from attacks

B.

Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender

C.

Digitally signing individual messages

D.

Encrypting data-in-transit

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Question # 246

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

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Question # 247

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk scenarios

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

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Question # 248

An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?

A.

Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives

B.

Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.

C.

Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.

D.

Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.

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Question # 249

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?

A.

Occurrences of specific events

B.

A performance measurement

C.

The risk tolerance level

D.

Risk scenarios

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Question # 250

Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?

A.

The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident

B.

The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.

C.

The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.

D.

The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.

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Question # 251

In response to the threat of ransomware, an organization has implemented cybersecurity awareness activities. The risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to further reduce the impact of ransomware attacks would be to implement:

A.

two-factor authentication.

B.

continuous data backup controls.

C.

encryption for data at rest.

D.

encryption for data in motion.

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Question # 252

Several network user accounts were recently created without the required management approvals. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address this situation?

A.

Conduct a comprehensive compliance review.

B.

Develop incident response procedures for noncompliance.

C.

Investigate the root cause of noncompliance.

D.

Declare a security breach and Inform management.

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Question # 253

While conducting an organization-wide risk assessment, it is noted that many of the information security policies have not changed in the past three years. The BEST course of action is to:

A.

review and update the policies to align with industry standards.

B.

determine that the policies should be updated annually.

C.

report that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently.

D.

review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy.

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Question # 254

To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should:

A.

continuously monitor the environment.

B.

develop key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

maintain a risk matrix.

D.

maintain a risk register.

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Question # 255

Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?

A.

Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.

B.

Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.

C.

Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.

D.

Qualitative measures are easier to update.

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Question # 256

An organization has been notified that a disgruntled, terminated IT administrator has tried to break into the corporate network. Which of the following discoveries should be of GREATEST concern to the organization?

A.

Authentication logs have been disabled.

B.

An external vulnerability scan has been detected.

C.

A brute force attack has been detected.

D.

An increase in support requests has been observed.

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Question # 257

The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:

A.

ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.

B.

assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.

C.

benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.

D.

facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.

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Question # 258

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a risk assessment of an emerging technology?

A.

Risk response plans

B.

Risk and control ownership

C.

Key controls

D.

Impact and likelihood ratings

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Question # 259

A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.

B.

Build a business case to remediate the fix.

C.

Research the types of attacks the threat can present.

D.

Determine the impact of the missing threat.

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Question # 260

The MOST important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether:

A.

the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value

B.

there are sufficient internal resources to implement the control

C.

the mitigation measures create compounding effects

D.

the control eliminates the risk

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Question # 261

Which of the following facilitates a completely independent review of test results for evaluating control effectiveness?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Three lines of defense

C.

Compliance review

D.

Quality assurance review

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Question # 262

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the potential organizational impact of emerging privacy regulations?

A.

Evaluate the security architecture maturity.

B.

Map the new requirements to the existing control framework.

C.

Charter a privacy steering committee.

D.

Conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

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Question # 263

Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization?

A.

The effectiveness of compensating controls

B.

The enterprise's capacity to absorb loss

C.

The residual risk affected by preventive controls

D.

The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate

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Question # 264

An organization learns of a new ransomware attack affecting organizations worldwide. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the likelihood of infection from the attack?

A.

Identify systems that are vulnerable to being exploited by the attack.

B.

Confirm with the antivirus solution vendor whether the next update will detect the attack.

C.

Verify the data backup process and confirm which backups are the most recent ones available.

D.

Obtain approval for funding to purchase a cyber insurance plan.

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Question # 265

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?

A.

Service level agreements (SLA)

B.

Vendor references

C.

Benchmarking data

D.

Accountability matrix

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Question # 266

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?

A.

To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization

B.

To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations

C.

To optimize risk management resources across the organization

D.

To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization

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Question # 267

The MOST important reason for implementing change control procedures is to ensure:

A.

only approved changes are implemented

B.

timely evaluation of change events

C.

an audit trail exists.

D.

that emergency changes are logged.

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Question # 268

Which of the following BEST indicates that additional or improved controls ate needed m the environment?

A.

Management, has decreased organisational risk appetite

B.

The risk register and portfolio do not include all risk scenarios

C.

merging risk scenarios have been identified

D.

Risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance

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Question # 269

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when ensuring that mitigated risk remains within acceptable limits?

A.

Building an organizational risk profile after updating the risk register

B.

Ensuring risk owners participate in a periodic control testing process

C.

Designing a process for risk owners to periodically review identified risk

D.

Implementing a process for ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness

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Question # 270

A service provider is managing a client’s servers. During an audit of the service, a noncompliant control is discovered that will not be resolved before the next audit because the client cannot afford the downtime required to correct the issue. The service provider’s MOST appropriate action would be to:

A.

develop a risk remediation plan overriding the client's decision

B.

make a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation

C.

insist that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers

D.

ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider

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Question # 271

Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?

A.

Enabling risk-aware decisions

B.

Promoting a risk-aware culture

C.

Improving security governance

D.

Reducing residual risk

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Question # 272

Which of the following is the STRONGEST indication an organization has ethics management issues?

A.

Employees do not report IT risk issues for fear of consequences.

B.

Internal IT auditors report to the chief information security officer (CISO).

C.

Employees face sanctions for not signing the organization's acceptable use policy.

D.

The organization has only two lines of defense.

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Question # 273

Participants in a risk workshop have become focused on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this type of issue in the long term?

A.

Perform a return on investment analysis.

B.

Review the risk register and risk scenarios.

C.

Calculate annualized loss expectancy of risk scenarios.

D.

Raise the maturity of organizational risk management.

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Question # 274

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

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Question # 275

The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:

A.

assess effectiveness of different projects.

B.

define the risk assessment methodology.

C.

ensure assets have low residual risk.

D.

account for identified key risk factors.

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Question # 276

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

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Question # 277

An IT department has provided a shared drive for personnel to store information to which all employees have access. Which of the following parties is accountable for the risk of potential loss of confidential information?

A.

Risk manager

B.

Data owner

C.

End user

D.

IT department

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Question # 278

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Perform root cause analysis.

C.

Initiate disciplinary action.

D.

Update the incident response plan.

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Question # 279

A highly regulated organization acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls. Which of the following is the BEST way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company?

A.

Identify previous data breaches using the startup company’s audit reports.

B.

Have the data privacy officer review the startup company’s data protection policies.

C.

Classify and protect the data according to the parent company's internal standards.

D.

Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company's network.

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Question # 280

Who should have the authority to approve an exception to a control?

A.

information security manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Risk owner

D.

Risk manager

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Question # 281

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?

A.

Communicate potential impact to decision makers.

B.

Research the root cause of similar incidents.

C.

Verify the response plan is adequate.

D.

Increase human resources to respond in the interim.

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Question # 282

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

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Question # 283

Which of the following scenarios represents a threat?

A.

Connecting a laptop to a free, open, wireless access point (hotspot)

B.

Visitors not signing in as per policy

C.

Storing corporate data in unencrypted form on a laptop

D.

A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive

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Question # 284

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of violating privacy laws when transferring personal information lo a supplier?

A.

Encrypt the data while in transit lo the supplier

B.

Contractually obligate the supplier to follow privacy laws.

C.

Require independent audits of the supplier's control environment

D.

Utilize blockchain during the data transfer

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Question # 285

The PRIMARY reason to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register is to ensure:

A.

risk is treated appropriately

B.

mitigating actions are prioritized

C.

risk entries are regularly updated

D.

risk exposure is minimized.

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Question # 286

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party?

A.

Obtain objective assessment of the control environment.

B.

Ensure the risk profile is defined and communicated.

C.

Validate the threat management process.

D.

Obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors.

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Question # 287

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?

A.

Align business objectives with risk appetite.

B.

Enable risk-based decision making.

C.

Design and implement risk response action plans.

D.

Update risk responses in the risk register

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Question # 288

Which of the following would BEST assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization's network?

A.

Network monitoring infrastructure

B.

Centralized vulnerability management

C.

Incident management process

D.

Centralized log management

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Question # 289

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?

A.

Data duplication processes

B.

Data archival processes

C.

Data anonymization processes

D.

Data protection processes

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Question # 290

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to revisit a previously accepted risk?

A.

To update risk ownership

B.

To review the risk acceptance with new stakeholders

C.

To ensure risk levels have not changed

D.

To ensure controls are still operating effectively

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Question # 291

A key risk indicator (KRI) threshold has reached the alert level, indicating data leakage incidents are highly probable. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Update the KRI threshold.

B.

Recommend additional controls.

C.

Review incident handling procedures.

D.

Perform a root cause analysis.

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Question # 292

Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:

A.

using the same scales in assessing risk

B.

utilizing industry benchmarks

C.

using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems

D.

including primarily low-level risk factors

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Question # 293

Which of the following is MOST important to the effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIS)?

A.

Updating the threat inventory with new threats

B.

Automating log data analysis

C.

Preventing the generation of false alerts

D.

Determining threshold levels

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Question # 294

Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?

A.

Monthly trend of information security-related incidents

B.

Average time to identify critical information security incidents

C.

Frequency of information security incident response plan testing

D.

Percentage of high-risk security incidents

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Question # 295

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis?

A.

Expertise in both methodologies

B.

Maturity of the risk management program

C.

Time available for risk analysis

D.

Resources available for data analysis

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Question # 296

The risk appetite for an organization could be derived from which of the following?

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 297

Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?

A.

Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.

B.

Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.

C.

Identify the risk appetite of the organization.

D.

Assess the goals and culture of the organization.

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Question # 298

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?

A.

Results of the latest risk assessment

B.

Results of a risk forecasting analysis

C.

A review of compliance regulations

D.

Findings of the most recent audit

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Question # 299

Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?

A.

Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management

B.

Review of internal audit and third-party reports

C.

Management review and sign-off on system documentation

D.

First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation

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Question # 300

A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?

A.

Preventive

B.

Detective

C.

Directive

D.

Deterrent

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Question # 301

The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

A.

highlight trends of developing risk.

B.

ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.

C.

take appropriate actions in a timely manner.

D.

set different triggers for each stakeholder.

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Question # 302

Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:

A.

it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.

B.

structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.

C.

structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.

D.

technical specifications are defined during this phase.

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Question # 303

The maturity of an IT risk management program is MOST influenced by:

A.

the organization's risk culture

B.

benchmarking results against similar organizations

C.

industry-specific regulatory requirements

D.

expertise available within the IT department

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Question # 304

An organization is unable to implement a multi-factor authentication requirement until the next fiscal year due to budget constraints. Consequently, a policy exception must be submitted. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the analysis of the exception?

A.

Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement

B.

Risk associated with the inability to implement the requirement

C.

Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year

D.

Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control

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Question # 305

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to ensure the risk register is updated regularly?

A.

Risk assessment results are accessible to senior management and stakeholders.

B.

Risk mitigation activities are managed and coordinated.

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are evaluated to validate they are still within the risk threshold.

D.

Risk information is available to enable risk-based decisions.

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Question # 306

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to business requirements?

A.

Total cost to support the policy

B.

Number of exceptions to the policy

C.

Total cost of policy breaches

D.

Number of inquiries regarding the policy

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Question # 307

A department has been granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders. The risk practitioner should verify the exception has been approved by which of the following?

A.

Internal audit

B.

Control owner

C.

Senior management

D.

Risk manager

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Question # 308

The GREATEST concern when maintaining a risk register is that:

A.

impacts are recorded in qualitative terms.

B.

executive management does not perform periodic reviews.

C.

IT risk is not linked with IT assets.

D.

significant changes in risk factors are excluded.

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Question # 309

The PRIMARY reason for periodically monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

A.

rectify errors in results of KRIs.

B.

detect changes in the risk profile.

C.

reduce costs of risk mitigation controls.

D.

continually improve risk assessments.

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Question # 310

Which of the following is the BEST way to promote adherence to the risk tolerance level set by management?

A.

Defining expectations in the enterprise risk policy

B.

Increasing organizational resources to mitigate risks

C.

Communicating external audit results

D.

Avoiding risks that could materialize into substantial losses

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Question # 311

A bank has outsourced its statement printing function to an external service provider. Which of the following is the MOST critical requirement to include in the contract?

A.

Monitoring of service costs

B.

Provision of internal audit reports

C.

Notification of sub-contracting arrangements

D.

Confidentiality of customer data

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Question # 312

Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST

A.

review the key risk indicators.

B.

conduct a risk analysis.

C.

update the risk register

D.

reallocate risk response resources.

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Question # 313

A risk assessment has identified increased losses associated with an IT risk scenario. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

update the risk rating.

B.

reevaluate inherent risk.

C.

develop new risk scenarios.

D.

implement additional controls.

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Question # 314

Which of the following observations would be GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans?

A.

Management has not determined a final implementation date.

B.

Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone.

C.

Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities.

D.

Management has not begun the implementation.

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Question # 315

Which of the following BEST enables a proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Data backups

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Cyber insurance

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Question # 316

The PRIMARY objective of the board of directors periodically reviewing the risk profile is to help ensure:

A.

the risk strategy is appropriate

B.

KRIs and KPIs are aligned

C.

performance of controls is adequate

D.

the risk monitoring process has been established

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Question # 317

After identifying new risk events during a project, the project manager s NEXT step should be to:

A.

determine if the scenarios need 10 be accepted or responded to.

B.

record the scenarios into the risk register.

C.

continue with a qualitative risk analysis.

D.

continue with a quantitative risk analysis.

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Question # 318

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

A.

Update the risk register.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Prepare a report for senior management.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

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Question # 319

Which of the following would be the BEST justification to invest in the development of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution?

A.

Facilitating risk-aware decision making by stakeholders

B.

Demonstrating management commitment to mitigate risk

C.

Closing audit findings on a timely basis

D.

Ensuring compliance to industry standards

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Question # 320

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when vulnerability assessment results identify a weakness in an application?

A.

Review regular control testing results.

B.

Recommend a penetration test.

C.

Assess the risk to determine mitigation needed.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 321

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment?

A.

Obtaining funding support

B.

Defining the risk assessment scope

C.

Selecting the risk assessment framework

D.

Establishing inherent risk

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Question # 322

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?

A.

Audit engagement letter

B.

Risk profile

C.

IT risk register

D.

Change control documentation

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Question # 323

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?

A.

internal audit recommendations

B.

Laws and regulations

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Standards and frameworks

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Question # 324

Which of the following provides the MOST helpful reference point when communicating the results of a risk assessment to stakeholders?

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk awareness

D.

Risk policy

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Question # 325

Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?

A.

Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management

B.

Review of internal audit and third-party reports

C.

Management review and sign-off on system documentation

D.

First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation

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Question # 326

An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:

A.

procedures to monitor the operation of controls.

B.

a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.

C.

real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.

D.

monitoring activities for all critical assets.

E.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Question # 327

Which of the following will BEST support management repotting on risk?

A.

Risk policy requirements

B.

A risk register

C.

Control self-assessment

D.

Key performance Indicators

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Question # 328

Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?

A.

Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.

B.

Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.

C.

Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.

D.

Obtain vendor references from third parties.

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Question # 329

Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls?

A.

End user

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Data owner

D.

Data custodian

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Question # 330

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

B.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

C.

Determine the root cause of the control failures.

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Question # 331

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program is the number of:

A.

vulnerability scans.

B.

recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

vulnerabilities remediated,

D.

new vulnerabilities identified.

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Question # 332

An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?

A.

Classification of the data

B.

Type of device

C.

Remote management capabilities

D.

Volume of data

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Question # 333

A control owner has completed a year-long project To strengthen existing controls. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

update the risk register to reflect the correct level of residual risk.

B.

ensure risk monitoring for the project is initiated.

C.

conduct and document a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

verify cost-benefit of the new controls being implemented.

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Question # 334

A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

obtain management approval for policy exception.

B.

develop an improved password software routine.

C.

select another application with strong password controls.

D.

continue the implementation with no changes.

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Question # 335

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful when creating a manageable set of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Results of current and past risk assessments

B.

Organizational strategy and objectives

C.

Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios

D.

Internal and external audit findings

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Question # 336

Which of the following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?

A.

Risk management procedures

B.

Senior management interviews

C.

Benchmark analyses

D.

Risk management framework

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Question # 337

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

A.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting.

B.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance.

C.

define the IT risk framework for the organization.

D.

comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies.

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Question # 338

It is MOST important to the effectiveness of an IT risk management function that the associated processes are:

A.

aligned to an industry-accepted framework.

B.

reviewed and approved by senior management.

C.

periodically assessed against regulatory requirements.

D.

updated and monitored on a continuous basis.

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Question # 339

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

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Question # 340

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

A.

The third party's IT operations manager

B.

The organization's process owner

C.

The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization's risk practitioner

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Question # 341

An IT risk practitioner has been asked to regularly report on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. Which of the following is MOST useful for this purpose?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Capability maturity level

C.

Internal audit plan

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Question # 342

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?

A.

Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests

B.

Decreased number of reported security incidents

C.

Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations

D.

Number of employees that complete security training

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Question # 343

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY focus when key risk indicators (KRIs) begin to rapidly approach defined thresholds?

A.

Designing compensating controls

B.

Determining if KRIs have been updated recently

C.

Assessing the effectiveness of the incident response plan

D.

Determining what has changed in the environment

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Question # 344

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 345

Which of the following should be considered when selecting a risk response?

A.

Risk scenarios analysis

B.

Risk response costs

C.

Risk factor awareness

D.

Risk factor identification

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Question # 346

The PRIMARY reason for periodic penetration testing of Internet-facing applications is to:

A.

ensure policy and regulatory compliance.

B.

assess the proliferation of new threats.

C.

verify Internet firewall control settings.

D.

identify vulnerabilities in the system.

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Question # 347

The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the:

A.

amount of risk reduced by compensating controls.

B.

amount of risk present in the organization.

C.

variance against objectives.

D.

number of incidents.

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Question # 348

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT action after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system?

A.

Enhance the security awareness program.

B.

Increase the frequency of incident reporting.

C.

Purchase cyber insurance from a third party.

D.

Conduct a control assessment.

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Question # 349

An organization's risk tolerance should be defined and approved by which of the following?

A.

The chief risk officer (CRO)

B.

The board of directors

C.

The chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 350

An organization has decided to outsource a web application, and customer data will be stored in the vendor's public cloud. To protect customer data, it is MOST important to ensure which of the following?

A.

The organization's incident response procedures have been updated.

B.

The vendor stores the data in the same jurisdiction.

C.

Administrative access is only held by the vendor.

D.

The vendor's responsibilities are defined in the contract.

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Question # 351

Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to reassess risk scenarios?

A.

A change in the risk management policy

B.

A major security incident

C.

A change in the regulatory environment

D.

An increase in intrusion attempts

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Question # 352

An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon release to production

C.

During backlog scheduling

D.

When reviewing functional requirements

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Question # 353

Which of the following will BEST help an organization select a recovery strategy for critical systems?

A.

Review the business impact analysis.

B.

Create a business continuity plan.

C.

Analyze previous disaster recovery reports.

D.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

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Question # 354

Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?

A.

Informing business process owners of the risk

B.

Reviewing and updating the risk register

C.

Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals

D.

Implementing new control technologies

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Question # 355

An organization is planning to outsource its payroll function to an external service provider Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when selecting the provider?

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP) of the system

B.

Right to audit the provider

C.

Internal controls to ensure data privacy

D.

Transparency of key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 356

A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Implement monitoring techniques.

B.

Implement layered security.

C.

Outsource to a local processor.

D.

Conduct an awareness campaign.

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Question # 357

A large organization needs to report risk at all levels for a new centralized visualization project to reduce cost and improve performance. Which of the following would MOST effectively represent the overall risk of the project to senior management?

A.

Aggregated key performance indicators (KPls)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Centralized risk register

D.

Risk heat map

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Question # 358

When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:

A.

business process owners.

B.

representative data sets.

C.

industry benchmark data.

D.

data automation systems.

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Question # 359

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program?

A.

To define effective enterprise IT risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives

C.

To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures

D.

To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts

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Question # 360

Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Capability maturity model

D.

Risk scenario analysis

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Question # 361

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

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Question # 362

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST to support the implementation of governance around organizational assets within an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

A.

Develop a detailed risk profile.

B.

Hire experienced and knowledgeable resources.

C.

Schedule internal audits across the business.

D.

Conduct risk assessments across the business.

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Question # 363

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?

A.

The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions

B.

The number of servers with local credentials to install patches

C.

The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements

D.

The number of servers running the software patching service

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Question # 364

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.

B.

Identify staff who have access to the organization’s sensitive data.

C.

Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.

D.

Review the organization's data inventory.

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Question # 365

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of integrating risk and security requirements in an organization's enterprise architecture (EA)?

A.

Adherence to legal and compliance requirements

B.

Reduction in the number of test cases in the acceptance phase

C.

Establishment of digital forensic architectures

D.

Consistent management of information assets

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Question # 366

An enterprise has taken delivery of software patches that address vulnerabilities in its core business software. Prior to implementation, which of the following is the MOST important task to be performed?

A.

Assess the impact of applying the patches on the production environment.

B.

Survey other enterprises regarding their experiences with applying these patches.

C.

Seek information from the software vendor to enable effective application of the patches.

D.

Determine in advance an off-peak period to apply the patches.

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Question # 367

An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?

A.

Most recent IT audit report results

B.

Replacement cost of IT assets

C.

Current annualized loss expectancy report

D.

Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report

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Question # 368

Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?

A.

Transaction log monitoring

B.

Access control attestation

C.

Periodic job rotation

D.

Whistleblower program

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Question # 369

A risk practitioner notices a risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization's cloud provider is assigned to the provider who should the risk scenario be reassigned to.

A.

Senior management

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Vendor manager

D.

Data owner

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Question # 370

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?

A.

Proportion of end users having more than one account

B.

Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts

D.

Percentage of accounts that have not been activated

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Question # 371

Which of the following offers the SIMPLEST overview of changes in an organization's risk profile?

A.

A risk roadmap

B.

A balanced scorecard

C.

A heat map

D.

The risk register

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Question # 372

Which of the following is MOST important to update following a change in organizational risk appetite and tolerance?

A.

Business impact assessment (BIA)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Risk profile

D.

Industry benchmark analysis

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Question # 373

Who is BEST suited to provide information to the risk practitioner about the effectiveness of a technical control associated with an application?

A.

System owner

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Process owner

D.

Risk owner

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Question # 374

Which of the following is the MOST important update for keeping the risk register current?

A.

Modifying organizational structures when lines of business merge

B.

Adding new risk assessment results annually

C.

Retiring risk scenarios that have been avoided

D.

Changing risk owners due to employee turnover

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Question # 375

An organization has built up its cash reserves and has now become financially able to support additional risk while meeting its objectives. What is this change MOST likely to impact?

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk capacity

C.

Risk indicators

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 376

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach is the ability to:

A.

identify specific project risk.

B.

obtain a holistic view of IT strategy risk.

C.

understand risk associated with complex processes.

D.

incorporate subject matter expertise.

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Question # 377

Which of the following BEST supports the management of identified risk scenarios?

A.

Collecting risk event data

B.

Maintaining a risk register

C.

Using key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Defining risk parameters

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Question # 378

An organization is concerned that a change in its market situation may impact the current level of acceptable risk for senior management. As a result, which of the following is MOST important to reevaluate?

A.

Risk classification

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk strategy

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 379

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization's technical environment?

A.

Business case documentation

B.

Organizational risk appetite statement

C.

Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation

D.

Organizational hierarchy

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Question # 380

Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization's cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?

A.

The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization's systems from cyberattacks.

B.

The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.

C.

The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.

D.

The policy has not been approved by the organization's board.

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Question # 381

An organization allows programmers to change production systems in emergency situations. Which of the following is the BEST control?

A.

Implementing an emergency change authorization process

B.

Periodically reviewing operator logs

C.

Limiting the number of super users

D.

Reviewing the programmers' emergency change reports

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Question # 382

The risk to an organization's reputation due to a recent cybersecurity breach is PRIMARILY considered to be:

A.

financial risk.

B.

data risk.

C.

operational risk.

D.

strategic risk.

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Question # 383

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for the prioritization of risk responses?

A.

Residual risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Mitigation cost

D.

Inherent risk

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Question # 384

What is a risk practitioner's BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?

A.

Create an asset valuation report.

B.

Create key performance indicators (KPls).

C.

Create key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Create a risk volatility report.

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Question # 385

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk associated with inadvertent data leakage by users who work remotely?

A.

Conducting training on the protection of organizational assets

B.

Configuring devices to use virtual IP addresses

C.

Ensuring patching for end-user devices

D.

Providing encrypted access to organizational assets

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Question # 386

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

A.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

D.

Granting access based on least privilege

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Question # 387

Which of the following criteria for assigning owners to IT risk scenarios provides the GREATEST benefit to an organization?

A.

The risk owner understands the effect of loss events on business operations.

B.

The risk owner is a member of senior leadership in the IT organization.

C.

The risk owner has strong technical aptitude across multiple business systems.

D.

The risk owner has extensive risk management experience.

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Question # 388

The PRIMARY reason for communicating risk assessment results to data owners is to enable the:

A.

design of appropriate controls.

B.

industry benchmarking of controls.

C.

prioritization of response efforts.

D.

classification of information assets.

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Question # 389

A migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing. Which part of the risk register should be updated FIRST?

A.

Payroll system risk factors

B.

Payroll system risk mitigation plans

C.

Payroll process owner

D.

Payroll administrative controls

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Question # 390

An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?

A.

Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.

D.

Review the incident response plan.

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Question # 391

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the board and senior leadership

regarding the organization's approach to risk management for emerging technologies?

A.

Ensuring the organization follows risk management industry best practices

B.

Ensuring IT risk scenarios are updated and include emerging technologies

C.

Ensuring the risk framework and policies are suitable for emerging technologies

D.

Ensuring threat intelligence services are used to gather data about emerging technologies

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Question # 392

A key risk indicator (KRI) that incorporates data from external open-source threat intelligence sources has shown changes in risk trend data. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

A.

Impact of risk occurrence

B.

Frequency of risk occurrence

C.

Cost of risk response

D.

Legal aspects of risk realization

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Question # 393

An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.

B.

Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.

C.

Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.

D.

Obtain certification to a global information security standard.

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Question # 394

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

A.

updating the risk register.

B.

validating the risk scenarios.

C.

documenting the risk scenarios.

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

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Question # 395

Which of the following is the BEST response when a potential IT control deficiency has been identified?

A.

Remediate and report the deficiency to the enterprise risk committee.

B.

Verify the deficiency and then notify the business process owner.

C.

Verify the deficiency and then notify internal audit.

D.

Remediate and report the deficiency to senior executive management.

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Question # 396

The percentage of unpatched systems is a:

A.

threat vector.

B.

critical success factor (CSF).

C.

key performance indicator (KPI).

D.

key risk indicator (KRI).

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Question # 397

Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action if the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing?

A.

Re-evaluate current controls.

B.

Revise the current risk action plan.

C.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

D.

Implement additional controls.

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Question # 398

An organization has updated its acceptable use policy to mitigate the risk of employees disclosing confidential information. Which of the following is the BEST way to reinforce the effectiveness of this policy?

A.

Communicate sanctions for policy violations to all staff.

B.

Obtain signed acceptance of the new policy from employees.

C.

Train all staff on relevant information security best practices.

D.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) within the corporate network.

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Question # 399

Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?

A.

Organization risk profile

B.

Information classification policy

C.

Encryption policy

D.

Digital rights management policy

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Question # 400

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (Al) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

A.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

B.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

C.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

D.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

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Question # 401

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure risk management practices are effective at all levels within the organization?

A.

Communicating risk awareness materials regularly

B.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk management processes

C.

Ensuring that business activities minimize inherent risk

D.

Embedding risk management in business activities

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Question # 402

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?

A.

Scheduling periodic audits

B.

Assigning a data custodian

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

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Question # 403

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of consistently recording risk assessment results in the risk register?

A.

Assessment of organizational risk appetite

B.

Compliance with best practice

C.

Accountability for loss events

D.

Accuracy of risk profiles

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Question # 404

A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?

A.

A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.

B.

A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.

C.

Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.

D.

Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.

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Question # 405

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in?

A.

To reduce the likelihood of insider threat

B.

To eliminate the possibility of insider threat

C.

To enable rapid discovery of insider threat

D.

To reduce the impact of insider threat

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Question # 406

Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Monetary approval limits

C.

Clear roles and responsibilities

D.

Password policies

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Question # 407

An organization's Internet-facing server was successfully attacked because the server did not have the latest security patches. The risk associated with poor patch management had been documented in the risk register and accepted. Who should be accountable for any related losses to the organization?

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Server administrator

D.

Risk practitioner

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Question # 408

Which of the following BEST mitigates ethical risk?

A.

Ethics committees

B.

Contingency scenarios

C.

Awareness of consequences for violations

D.

Routine changes in senior management

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Question # 409

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?

A.

To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities

B.

To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits

C.

To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements

D.

To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective

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Question # 410

Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for providing assurance to the board of directors and senior management during the evaluation of a risk management program implementation?

A.

Risk management

B.

Business units

C.

External audit

D.

Internal audit

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Question # 411

A poster has been displayed in a data center that reads. "Anyone caught taking photographs in the data center may be subject to disciplinary action." Which of the following control types has been implemented?

A.

Corrective

B.

Detective

C.

Deterrent

D.

Preventative

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Question # 412

Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will:

A.

ensure that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization.

B.

provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken.

C.

provide a snapshot of the risk profile.

D.

ensure that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned.

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Question # 413

An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?

A.

Confidentiality breach

B.

Institutional knowledge loss

C.

Intellectual property loss

D.

Unauthorized access

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Question # 414

Which of the following should be reported periodically to the risk committee?

A.

System risk and control matrix

B.

Emerging IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes to risk assessment methodology

D.

Audit committee charter

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Question # 415

When classifying and prioritizing risk responses, the areas to address FIRST are those with:

A.

low cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

B.

high cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

C.

high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

D.

low cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

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Question # 416

After the announcement of a new IT regulatory requirement, it is MOST important for a risk practitioner to;

A.

prepare an IT risk mitigation strategy.

B.

escalate to senior management.

C.

perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

review the impact to the IT environment.

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Question # 417

Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?

A.

Solutions for eradicating emerging threats

B.

Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats

C.

Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)

D.

Source and identity of attackers

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Question # 418

Which of the following is MOST important for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management's risk appetite?

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk management industry trends

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Risk capacity

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Question # 419

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE goal of conducting a privacy impact analysis (PIA)?

A.

To identify gaps in data protection controls

B.

To develop a customer notification plan

C.

To identify personally identifiable information (Pll)

D.

To determine gaps in data identification processes

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Question # 420

Which of the following is the BEST risk management approach for the strategic IT planning process?

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are established to track IT strategic initiatives.

B.

The IT strategic plan is reviewed by the chief information security officer (CISO) and enterprise risk management (ERM).

C.

The IT strategic plan is developed from the organization-wide risk management plan.

D.

Risk scenarios associated with IT strategic initiatives are identified and assessed.

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Question # 421

One of an organization's key IT systems cannot be patched because the patches interfere with critical business application functionalities. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Additional mitigating controls should be identified.

B.

The system should not be used until the application is changed

C.

The organization's IT risk appetite should be adjusted.

D.

The associated IT risk should be accepted by management.

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Question # 422

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

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Question # 423

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.

B.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.

C.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.

D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.

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Question # 424

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a disaster recovery management (DRM) framework and related processes?

A.

Restoring IT and cybersecurity operations

B.

Assessing the impact and probability of disaster scenarios

C.

Ensuring timely recovery of critical business operations

D.

Determining capacity for alternate sites

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Question # 425

An organization is developing a risk universe to create a holistic view of its overall risk profile. Which of the following is the GREATEST barrier to achieving the initiative's objectives?

A.

Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops within the organization

B.

Lack of common understanding of the organization's risk culture

C.

Lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure

D.

Lack of an integrated risk management system to aggregate risk scenarios

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Question # 426

The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of:

A.

network operations.

B.

the cybersecurity function.

C.

application development.

D.

the business function.

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Question # 427

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

A.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

B.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

C.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart.

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Question # 428

A risk practitioner is reviewing accountability assignments for data risk in the risk register. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern?

A.

The risk owner is not the control owner for associated data controls.

B.

The risk owner is in a business unit and does not report through the IT department.

C.

The risk owner is listed as the department responsible for decision-making.

D.

The risk owner is a staff member rather than a department manager.

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Question # 429

An organization has established a contract with a vendor that includes penalties for loss of availability. Which risk treatment has been adopted by the organization?

A.

Acceptance

B.

Avoidance

C.

Transfer

D.

Reduction

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Question # 430

An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor

adherence to the 15-day threshold?

A.

Operation level agreement (OLA)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

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Question # 431

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?

A.

Standards-based policies

B.

Audit readiness

C.

Efficient operations

D.

Regulatory compliance

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Question # 432

Which of the following is MOST important requirement to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor contract to ensure data is protected?

A.

The vendor must provide periodic independent assurance reports.

B.

The vendor must host data in a specific geographic location.

C.

The vendor must be held liable for regulatory fines for failure to protect data.

D.

The vendor must participate in an annual vendor performance review.

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Question # 433

A large organization recently restructured the IT department and has decided to outsource certain functions. What action should the control owners in the IT department take?

A.

Conduct risk classification for associated IT controls.

B.

Determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk.

C.

Perform vulnerability and threat assessments.

D.

Analyze and update IT control assessments.

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Question # 434

Which of the following should be the starting point when performing a risk analysis for an asset?

A.

Assess risk scenarios.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Evaluate threats.

D.

Assess controls.

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Question # 435

Who should be accountable for authorizing information system access to internal users?

A.

Information security officer

B.

Information security manager

C.

Information custodian

D.

Information owner

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Question # 436

Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Historical data availability

B.

Implementation and reporting effort

C.

Ability to display trends

D.

Sensitivity and reliability

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Question # 437

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

A.

Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Update risk responses.

C.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

D.

Perform a threat assessment.

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Question # 438

A risk practitioner has established that a particular control is working as desired, but the annual cost of maintenance has increased and now exceeds the expected annual loss exposure. The result is that the control is:

A.

mature

B.

ineffective.

C.

optimized.

D.

inefficient.

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Question # 439

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?

A.

It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.

B.

It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.

C.

It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.

D.

It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.

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Question # 440

A risk assessment has been completed on an application and reported to the application owner. The report includes validated vulnerability findings that require mitigation. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

A.

Report the findings to executive management to enable treatment decisions.

B.

Reassess each vulnerability to evaluate the risk profile of the application.

C.

Conduct a penetration test to determine how to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

D.

Prepare a risk response that is aligned to the organization's risk tolerance.

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Question # 441

An organization's stakeholders are unable to agree on appropriate risk responses. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Identify a risk transfer option.

C.

Reassess risk scenarios.

D.

Benchmark with similar industries.

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Question # 442

Which of the following is MOST important to include when reporting the effectiveness of risk management to senior management?

A.

Changes in the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance levels

B.

Impact due to changes in external and internal risk factors

C.

Changes in residual risk levels against acceptable levels

D.

Gaps in best practices and implemented controls across the industry

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Question # 443

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?

A.

Conducting security awareness training

B.

Updating the information security policy

C.

Implementing mock phishing exercises

D.

Requiring two-factor authentication

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Question # 444

Which of the following is the MOST important for an organization to have in place to ensure IT asset protection?

A.

Procedures for risk assessments on IT assets

B.

An IT asset management checklist

C.

An IT asset inventory populated by an automated scanning tool

D.

A plan that includes processes for the recovery of IT assets

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