Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?
Verify authorization by senior management.
Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level
Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime
Update the risk response in the risk register.
The risk practitioner’s most important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance is to verify authorization by senior management. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging and agreeing to bear the risk and its potential consequences. Risk tolerance is the acceptable or allowable level of variation or deviation from the expected or desired outcomes or objectives. When the risk acceptance exceeds the risk tolerance, it means that the organization is taking on more risk than it can handle or afford. Therefore, the risk practitioner should verify that the risk acceptance is authorized by senior management, who have the authority and accountability for making risk management decisions and ensuring that they are aligned with the organizational strategy and objectives. The other options are not as important as verifying authorization by senior management, as they are related to the adjustments, conditions, or documentation of the risk acceptance, not the approval or validation of the risk acceptance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page 133.
When a risk practitioner is determining a system's criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:
process flow.
business impact analysis (BIA).
service level agreement (SLA).
system architecture.
The most helpful information to review when determining a system’s criticality is the associated business impact analysis (BIA). A BIA is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of disruptions to the organization’s critical business functions and processes. A BIA can help to determine the system’s criticality by assessing its impact on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value. Process flow, service level agreement (SLA), and system architecture are other possible information sources, but they are not as helpful as the BIA. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following would be the BEST way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program?
Conduct penetration testing.
Interview IT operations personnel.
Conduct vulnerability scans.
Review change control board documentation.
Conducting vulnerability scans is the best way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program. Vulnerability scans are automated tools that identify and report on the vulnerabilities in a system or network, such as missing patches, misconfigurations, or outdated software. Vulnerability scans can help the risk practitioner to verify that the patches have been applied correctly and consistently, and that there are no remaining or new vulnerabilities that need to be addressed. Conducting penetration testing, interviewing IT operations personnel, and reviewing change control board documentation are also useful methods to evaluate the patching program, but they are not as comprehensive, objective, or timely as vulnerability scans. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3, page 2-28.
Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Documented procedures
Information security policies
Information security standards
Documented procedures are the best way to enable effective IT control implementation. Documented procedures are the specific actions or steps that are performed to achieve the IT control objectives and mitigate the IT risks. Documented procedures provide clear guidance, consistency, and accountability for the IT control activities. Documented procedures also help to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the IT controls, and to identify and address any gaps or weaknesses. The other options are not as effective as documented procedures, although they may support or complement the IT control implementation. Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of IT risks, but they do not specify how to implement the IT controls. Information security policies and standards are high-level statements that define the IT security goals and requirements, but they do not detail how to implement the IT controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, page 1-15.
An organization has made a decision to purchase a new IT system. During when phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) will identified risk MOST likely lead to architecture and design trade-offs?
Acquisition
Implementation
Initiation
Operation and maintenance
The acquisition phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) is the phase where the organization decides to purchase a new IT system from an external vendor or develop it internally. During this phase, the identified risks will most likely lead to architecture and design trade-offs, as the organization will have to balance the cost, quality, functionality, security, and performance of the new IT system. The organization will have to evaluate the different options and alternatives available, and select the one that best meets the business needs and the risk appetite. The other phases of the SDLC are not as likely to involve architecture and design trade-offs, as they are more focused on implementing, testing, deploying, and maintaining the new IT system. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page 133.
Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure risk will be managed properly after a business process has been re-engineered?
Reassessing control effectiveness of the process
Conducting a post-implementation review to determine lessons learned
Reporting key performance indicators (KPIs) for core processes
Establishing escalation procedures for anomaly events
 Business process re-engineering is the radical redesign of a business process to achieve significant improvements in performance, quality, cost, or customer satisfaction. Business process re-engineering can introduce new or modified risks to the organization, as well as affect the existing controls and responses. Therefore, the best way to help ensure risk will be managed properly after a business process has been re-engineered is to reassess the control effectiveness of the process, meaning that the organization should evaluate whether the controls are still adequate, appropriate, and functioning as intended to mitigate the risks. Reassessing the control effectiveness can help to identify any gaps or weaknesses in the control environment, as well as to implement any necessary changes or improvements to the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2, p. 229-230
What is the MAIN benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios?
It describes risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise.
It establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives.
It uses hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise.
It helps management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios.
The main benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios is that it establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives. A top-down approach is a method of risk identification and analysis that starts with the organization’s strategic objectives and then identifies the potential risk events that could affect or prevent the achievement of those objectives. A top-down approach helps to establish the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives, because it links the risk scenarios to the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and it prioritizes the risk scenarios based on their impact and relevance to the organization’s objectives. A top-down approach also helps to align and communicate the risk scenarios with the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, and business units, and to facilitate the risk response and monitoring activities. The other options are not the main benefit of using a top-down approach, although they may be part of or derived from the top-down approach. Describing risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise, using hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise, and helping management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios are all activities or outcomes that could be performed or achieved by using a top-down approach, but they are not the primary purpose or result of the top-down approach. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?
To support decision-making for risk response
To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans
To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts
To enable senior management to compile a risk profile
The primary reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders is to support decision-making for risk response. Risk assessment reports are documents that summarize the results of the risk assessment process, such as the risk sources, causes, impacts, likelihood, and levels. Risk assessment reports also provide recommendations for risk response options, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risk. Sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders helps to inform them of the current risk situation, and to solicit their input, feedback, or approval for the risk response actions. The other options are not the primary reason for sharing risk assessment reports, although they may be secondary reasons or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
The following is the snapshot of a recently approved IT risk register maintained by an organization's information security department.
After implementing countermeasures listed in ‘’Risk Response Descriptions’’ for each of the Risk IDs, which of the following component of the register MUST change?
Risk Impact Rating
Risk Owner
Risk Likelihood Rating
Risk Exposure
Risk exposure is the product of risk likelihood and risk impact ratings. It represents the potential loss or damage that may result from a risk event. After implementing countermeasures, the risk likelihood and/or impact ratings may change, depending on the effectiveness of the countermeasures. Therefore, the risk exposure must also change to reflect the updated risk ratings. The other components of the register, such as risk owner, risk impact rating, and risk likelihood rating, may or may not change depending on the nature and scope of the countermeasures. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
A segregation of duties control was found to be ineffective because it did not account for all applicable functions when evaluating access. Who is responsible for ensuring the control is designed to effectively address risk?
Risk manager
Control owner
Control tester
Risk owner
The control owner is the person who is responsible for ensuring that the control is designed to effectively address risk. The control owner is also responsible for implementing, operating, monitoring, and maintaining the control. The control owner should ensure that the control is aligned with the risk owner’s risk appetite and tolerance, and that the control is periodically reviewed and updated to reflect changes in the risk environment. The risk manager, the control tester, and the risk owner are not directly responsible for the design of the control, although they may provide input, feedback, or approval. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, page 1-15.
Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies?
Existing IT environment
IT strategic plan
Risk register
Organizational strategic plan
The most important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies is the organizational strategic plan. The organizational strategic plan is a document that defines the vision, mission, goals, and objectives of the organization. It also outlines the strategies, actions, and resources that are needed to achieve them. The organizational strategic plan provides the direction, alignment, and guidance for the use of emerging technologies, and ensures that they are aligned with and support the organizational needs and priorities. The other options are not as important as the organizational strategic plan, as they are related to the current state, specific area, or potential issues of the use of emerging technologies, not the overall purpose and value of the use of emerging technologies. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2: IT Risk Identification Methods, page 19.
An organization control environment is MOST effective when:
control designs are reviewed periodically
controls perform as intended.
controls are implemented consistently.
controls operate efficiently
The organization control environment is most effective when the controls perform as intended. The controls are the mechanisms or measures that are designed and implemented to prevent, detect, or correct the risks that may affect the achievement of the objectives. The controls perform as intended when they provide reasonable assurance that the risks are mitigated or managed to an acceptable level, and that the objectives are met or exceeded. The performance of the controls can be measured and evaluated by using key performance indicators (KPIs) and key risk indicators (KRIs). The other options are not as indicative of the effectiveness of the control environment, as they are related to the review, implementation, or efficiency of the controls, not the performance or assurance of the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 69.
An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?
Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
Data anonymization
Data cleansing
Data encryption
Data anonymization is the most important control to ensure the privacy of customer information when participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis. Data anonymization is the process of removing or modifying personally identifiable information (PII) from data sets, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc., so that the data cannot be traced back to specific individuals. Data anonymization protects the confidentiality and privacy of customers, while still allowing for meaningful analysis and comparison of data. Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs), data cleansing, and data encryption are also useful controls, but they do not eliminate the risk of data breaches or unauthorized access to PII. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:
risk mitigation.
risk evaluation.
risk appetite.
risk tolerance.
 Risk tolerance is the best term to describe the situation where an organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. Risk tolerance is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk tolerance defines the acceptable variation in outcomes related to specific performance measures, such as availability, reliability, or security. Risk tolerance is usually expressed as a range, such as 99% +/- 0.5%. Risk mitigation, risk evaluation, and risk appetite are not the correct terms to describe this situation, because they refer to different aspects of risk management, such as reducing, assessing, or pursuing risk, respectively. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-8.
Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?
Human resources (HR) manager
System administrator
Data privacy manager
Compliance manager
The HR manager is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to collect, process, and protect the personal data of the employees in the organization. The HR manager helps to manage the employee personal data, because they help to establish and enforce the data policies and standards for the employees, and to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements, such as the GDPR. The HR manager also helps to monitor and report on the data performance and compliance for the employees, and to identify and address any issues or gaps in the data management activities. The other options are not the best person to manage the employee personal data, although they may be involved in the process. System administrator, data privacy manager, and compliance manager are all examples of roles or functions that can help to support or implement the data management activities, but they do not necessarily have the authority or responsibility to collect, process, or protect the employee personal data
A risk practitioner is utilizing a risk heat map during a risk assessment. Risk events that are coded with the same color will have a similar:
risk score
risk impact
risk response
risk likelihood.
 A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the risk events in a matrix based on their likelihood and impact. Risk events that are coded with the same color will have a similar risk likelihood, which is the probability or frequency of occurrence of a risk event. Risk score, risk impact, and risk response are other possible attributes of risk events, but they are not represented by the color coding in a risk heat map. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:
exceeding availability thresholds
experiencing hardware failures
exceeding current patching standards.
meeting the baseline for hardening.
The best metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers meeting the baseline for hardening. Hardening is the process of applying security configurations and settings to servers to reduce their attack surface and vulnerability. A baseline is a standard or benchmark that defines the minimum level of security required for servers. By measuring the number of servers that meet the baseline, the organization can assess the effectiveness of its hardening efforts and identify any gaps or deviations. The other metrics, such as exceeding availability thresholds, experiencing hardware failures, or exceeding current patching standards, are not directly related to the security configuration of servers, but rather to their performance, reliability, or maintenance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.2, page 2-25.
Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?
The cost associated with incident response activities
The composition and number of records in the information asset
The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines
The length of time between identification and containment of the incident
When assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data, the most important factor to determine is the composition and number of records in the information asset. The composition refers to the type and sensitivity of the personal data, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, health information, financial information, etc. The number of records refers to the quantity and scope of the personal data that is affected by the loss event. The composition and number of records in the information asset determine the severity and impact of the loss event, as they indicate the extent of the harm and damage that can be caused to the data subjects, the organization, and other stakeholders. The composition and number of records in the information asset also influence the cost of the incident response activities, the level of the regulatory fines, and the duration of the incident containment and recovery. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 159.
Business management is seeking assurance from the CIO that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues that could impact the delivery of a new application Which of the following is the BEST way to increase the chances of a successful delivery'?
Implement a release and deployment plan
Conduct comprehensive regression testing.
Develop enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRls)
Include business management on a weekly risk and issues report
The best way to increase the chances of a successful delivery of a new application and to assure the business management that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues is to include business management on a weekly risk and issues report. A risk and issues report is a document that summarizes the current status, progress, and challenges of the IT project, as well as the actions and resources needed to address them. A risk and issues report helps to communicate and align the expectations and objectives of the IT and business stakeholders, and to facilitate timely and effective decision-making and problem-solving. A risk and issues report also helps to monitor and control the project scope, schedule, budget, and quality, and to ensure that the project delivers the desired value and benefits to the organization. The other options are not as effective as including business management on a weekly risk and issues report, although they may be part of the IT project management process or outcomes. Implementing a release and deployment plan, conducting comprehensive regression testing, and developing enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRIs) are all activities that can help to ensure the quality and reliability of the new application, but they do not necessarily involve the business management or provide assurance for the early identification of potential issues. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 5-32.
An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?
Recommend risk remediation
Change the level of risk appetite
Document formal acceptance of the risk
Reject the business initiative
The risk practitioner’s most important action related to the decision to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite is to document formal acceptance of the risk. Formal acceptance of the risk means that the organization acknowledges and agrees to bear the risk and its potential consequences. Formal acceptance of the risk should be documented and approved by the appropriate authority level, such as senior management or the board of directors. Formal acceptance of the risk should also include the rationale, assumptions, and conditions for accepting the risk, as well as the monitoring and reporting mechanisms for the risk. Formal acceptance of the risk provides evidence and accountability for the risk management decision and helps to avoid disputes or misunderstandings in the future. The other options are not as important as documenting formal acceptance of the risk, as they are related to the alternatives, adjustments, or rejections of the risk, not the actual acceptance of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page 133.
When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:
information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.
key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.
the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.
control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.
The most helpful factor to align when defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs) is the control performance with the risk tolerance of business owners. Control KPIs are metrics that measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks. By aligning the control performance with the risk tolerance of business owners, the thresholds for control KPIs can reflect the acceptable level of risk and the desired level of control for the business processes and objectives. Information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments, key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business, and control KPIs with audit findings are other possible factors to align, but they are not as helpful as control performance with risk tolerance of business owners. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?
Cost and benefit
Security and availability
Maintainability and reliability
Performance and productivity
 The most important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners is the cost and benefit of the risk response options. Technology end-of-life is the situation when a technology product or service is no longer supported by the vendor or manufacturer, and may pose security, compatibility, or performance issues. The risk practitioner should communicate the cost and benefit of the possible risk responses, such as replacing, upgrading, or maintaining the technology, to the business owners, and help them to make informed and rational decisions. Security and availability, maintainability and reliability, and performance and productivity are other possible considerations, but they are not as important as the cost and benefit. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?
Incomplete end-user device inventory
Unsupported end-user applications
Incompatible end-user devices
Multiple end-user device models
The greatest challenge to managing an organization’s end-user devices is having an incomplete end-user device inventory. An end-user device inventory is a document that records and tracks all the devices that are owned, used, or managed by the organization’s end-users, such as laptops, tablets, smartphones, etc. An end-user device inventory helps to identify and classify the devices based on their type, model, location, owner, status, etc. An end-user device inventory also helps to monitor and control the devices, such as enforcing security policies, applying patches and updates, detecting and resolving issues, etc. Having an incomplete end-user device inventory could lead to a lack of visibility and accountability for the devices, which could increase the risk of data loss, theft, or compromise, as well as the cost and complexity of device management. The other options are not as challenging as having an incomplete end-user device inventory, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the device management. Unsupported end-user applications, incompatible end-user devices, and multiple end-user device models are all factors that could affect the functionality and compatibility of the devices, but they do not necessarily affect the visibility and accountability of the devices. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
A multinational organization is considering implementing standard background checks to' all new employees A KEY concern regarding this approach
fail to identity all relevant issues.
be too costly
violate laws in other countries
be too line consuming
A multinational organization that operates in different countries should be aware of the legal and regulatory requirements of each jurisdiction. Some countries may have strict privacy laws that prohibit or limit the collection and use of personal information of employees, such as their criminal records, credit history, or medical conditions. Therefore, implementing standard background checks for all new employees may violate the laws in some countries and expose the organization to legal risks and reputational damage. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: IT Risk Factors, page 31.
A recent vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application revealed several weaknesses. Which of the following should be done NEXT to determine the risk exposure?
Code review
Penetration test
Gap assessment
Business impact analysis (BIA)
The next step to determine the risk exposure after a vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application is to perform a penetration test. A penetration test is a simulated attack on the application to exploit the identified vulnerabilities and measure the potential impact and likelihood of a successful breach. A penetration test can help to quantify and prioritize the risks associated with the web-facing application. Code review, gap assessment, and business impact analysis (BIA) are other possible steps, but they are not as effective as a penetration test. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
Who should be responsible (of evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been
Compliance manager
Risk owner
Control owner
Risk practitioner
 The control owner should be responsible for evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been implemented. A compensating control is a control that provides an alternative or additional measure of protection when the primary or preferred control is not feasible or effective. A residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response or mitigation has been applied. The control owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for designing, implementing, and monitoring the controls that enforce the policy. The control owner can assess the impact and effectiveness of the compensating control on the residual risk, and report the results and recommendations to the risk owner or the risk practitioner. The other options are not as responsible as the control owner, as they are related to the compliance, ownership, or management of the risk, not the evaluation of the control. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?
An alert being reported by the security operations center.
Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response
Completion of a project for implementing a new control
Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan
The completion of a project for implementing a new control would most likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their analysis, and their responses. The completion of a project for implementing a new control means that a risk response has been executed and a new control has been established. This may affect the likelihood and/or impact of the related risks, and the residual risk level. Therefore, the risk practitioner should update the risk register to reflect the current status and outcome of the risk response and the new control. The other options are not as likely to require a risk practitioner to update the risk register, as they are related to the reporting, planning, or assessment of the risks or the controls, not the implementation or completion of the risk response or the new control. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?
Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.
Resources may be inefficiently allocated.
The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.
Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.
The greatest concern of maintaining independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated is that management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile. The risk profile is the overall view of the risks that the organization faces and their impact on the organization’s objectives. It helps management to prioritize and allocate resources for risk management and to align the risk appetite and strategy. If the departmental risk registers are not aggregated, management may not have a complete and consistent picture of the risks across the organization. They may miss some important risks, overestimate or underestimate some risks, or have conflicting or redundant risk information. This may lead to poor risk management decisions and outcomes. The other options are also concerns, but they are not as critical as the inability to evaluate the risk profile. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.2: IT Risk Analysis, page 63.
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?
Ongoing training
Timely notification
Return on investment (ROI)
Cost minimization
The best way to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners is to provide timely notification of the changes in the risk exposure. KRIs are metrics that provide an early warning of increasing risk exposure in various areas of the organization. By providing timely notification of the KRI values, the risk owners can be alerted of the risk situation and take appropriate actions to manage the risk. Ongoing training, return on investment (ROI), and cost minimization are other possible ways to ensure KRIs provide value, but they are not as effective as timely notification. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?
Control owner
Risk owner
Internal auditor
Compliance manager
The internal auditor is the best suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness. The internal auditor is an independent and impartial function that evaluates the adequacy and effectiveness of the internal controls and reports on the findings and recommendations. The internal auditor can provide an unbiased and reliable assessment of the residual risk, which is the risk that remains after the controls are applied. The other options are not as objective as the internal auditor, as they may have vested interests or conflicts of interest in the control environment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
Of the following, who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production?
Information security officer
IT risk manager
Business owner
Chief risk officer (CRO)
 The business owner is the person who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production. The business owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the business process or function that is supported by the application system. The business owner should approve the change to ensure that it meets the business requirements, objectives, and expectations, and that it does not introduce any adverse impacts or risks to the business operations. The information security officer, the IT risk manager, and the chief risk officer (CRO) are not responsible for the approval of the change, although they may provide input, feedback, or oversight. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 3-32.
An organization has asked an IT risk practitioner to conduct an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization's customer service operations overseas. Which of the following would MOST significantly impact management's decision?
Time zone difference of the outsourcing location
Ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company
Cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country
Historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location
The most significant factor that would impact management’s decision when conducting an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization’s customer service operations overseas is the cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country. Cross-border information transfer restrictions are the laws, regulations, standards, or contracts that govern the collection, processing, storage, or transmission of information across national or regional boundaries. Cross-border information transfer restrictions may affect the organization’s outsourcing initiative, because they may impose limitations, obligations, or penalties on the organization or the outsourcing company, such as requiring consent, notification, or authorization, or prohibiting or restricting certain types or categories of information. Cross-border information transfer restrictions may also create challenges or risks for the organization’s outsourcing initiative, such as compliance, legal, reputational, or operational risks, or conflicts or inconsistencies with the organization’s own policies, regulations, standards, or contracts. The other options are not as significant as the cross-border information transfer restrictions, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the organization’s outsourcing initiative. Time zone difference of the outsourcing location, ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company, and historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location are all factors that could affect the efficiency and effectiveness of the outsourcing initiative, but they do not directly affect the legality or security of the outsourcing initiative. References = 3
Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?
A risk and control self-assessment
Senior management's attestation
A system-generated testing report
detailed process walk-through
The most reliable evidence of a control’s effectiveness is a system-generated testing report. A system-generated testing report is a document that shows the results of automated tests performed by the system to verify that the control is functioning as intended and producing the expected outcomes. A system-generated testing report is reliable, because it is objective, consistent, accurate, and timely, and because it can provide a high level of assurance and confidence in the control’s effectiveness. The other options are not as reliable as a system-generated testing report, although they may provide some evidence of the control’s effectiveness. A risk and control self-assessment, senior management’s attestation, and a detailed process walk-through are all examples of manual or subjective evidence, which may be prone to errors, biases, or inconsistencies, and which may provide a lower level of assurance and confidence in the control’s effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 3-32.
A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….
event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?
The difference In the management practices between each company
The cloud computing environment is shared with another company
The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract
The organizational culture differences between each country
The most important risk consideration when the global company’s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information to a cloud computing environment in the event of a disaster is that the cloud computing environment is shared with another company. A cloud computing environment is a service model that provides on-demand access to a shared pool of computing resources, such as servers, storage, networks, and applications. A shared cloud computing environment means that the same computing resources are used by multiple customers or tenants, and that the data and activities of one customer may affect or be affected by the data and activities of another customer. This may pose a significant risk to the security, privacy, and availability of the customer information, as it may be exposed, accessed, modified, or deleted by unauthorized or malicious parties. The other options are not as important as the cloud computing environment being shared with another company, as they are related to the differences, agreements, or cultures of the company or the country, not the environment or the platform of the customer information transfer. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?
Lack of a mature records management program
Lack of a dedicated asset management team
Decentralized asset lists
Incomplete asset inventory
 Asset management is the process of identifying, tracking, and maintaining the physical and information assets of an organization. Asset management helps to optimize the value, performance, and security of the assets, and support the business objectives and strategies. The factor that would be of greatest concern regarding an organization’s asset management is an incomplete asset inventory, which is a list of all the assets that the organization owns or uses. An incomplete asset inventory may indicate that the organization does not have a clear and accurate understanding of its assets, their location, ownership, value, dependencies, etc. This may lead to various risks, such as asset loss, theft, misuse, damage, underutilization, overutilization, etc. An incomplete asset inventory may also affect the asset classification, protection, recovery, and disposal processes. References = 6
An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?
Risk profile
Risk culture
Risk appetite
Risk tolerance
A risk profile is a summary of the nature and level of risk that an organization faces. It includes information such as the sources, causes, and consequences of the risks, their likelihood and impact, their interrelationships and dependencies, and their alignment with the risk appetite and tolerance. A risk profile is influenced by various factors, such as the organization’s objectives, strategies, activities, processes, resources, capabilities, culture, etc. When an organization configures a new business division, the factor that is most likely to be affected is the risk profile, as the new business division may introduce new or change existing risks, opportunities, and uncertainties that may affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives. Therefore, the organization should update its risk profile to reflect the current and potential risks associated with the new business division, and implement the appropriate risk management actions to optimize the risk exposure and performance. References = 4
The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.
ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements
demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.
ensure organizational awareness of the risk level
mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance
 The main purpose of selecting a risk response is to mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance. Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying a risk response. Risk tolerance is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk response is the process of selecting and implementing actions to address risk. The goal of risk response is to reduce the residual risk to a level that is acceptable to the organization and its stakeholders. The other options are not the main purpose of selecting a risk response, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-23.
Which of the following would BEST mitigate the ongoing risk associated with operating system (OS) vulnerabilities?
Temporarily mitigate the OS vulnerabilities
Document and implement a patching process
Evaluate permanent fixes such as patches and upgrades
Identify the vulnerabilities and applicable OS patches
 The best way to mitigate the ongoing risk associated with operating system (OS) vulnerabilities is to document and implement a patching process. A patching process is a set of procedures and guidelines that define how to identify, evaluate, test, apply, and monitor patches for the OS. Patches are updates or fixes that address the known vulnerabilities or bugs in the OS. By documenting and implementing a patching process, the organization can ensure that the OS is regularly updated and protected from the potential exploits or attacks that may exploit the vulnerabilities. The other options are not as effective as documenting and implementing a patching process, as they are related to the temporary, partial, or reactive measures to deal with the OS vulnerabilities, not the proactive and continuous measures to prevent or reduce the OS vulnerabilities. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control baselines?
Configuration validation
Control attestation
Penetration testing
Internal audit review
The best way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control baselines is to perform configuration validation. Configuration validation is the process of verifying that the system settings and parameters are consistent with the predefined standards and requirements, and that they reflect the current and desired state of the system. Configuration validation helps to ensure that the system is configured correctly and securely, and that it complies with the relevant policies, regulations, and best practices. Configuration validation also helps to identify and correct any deviations or errors in the system settings, and to prevent or mitigate any potential risks or issues. The other options are not as effective as configuration validation, although they may provide some input or information for the system alignment. Control attestation, penetration testing, and internal audit review are all activities that can help to assess or evaluate the system alignment, but they do not necessarily determine or validate the system settings. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?
Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite
. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls
Considering risk that can be shared with a third party
Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios
Risk appetite is the broad-based amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in its activities. Risk appetite reflects the level of risk that the organization is prepared to take to achieve its strategic goals, and provides guidance and boundaries for the risk management activities and decisions. The best way to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk is to prioritize and address risk in line with risk appetite, which means that the organization should identify, assess, treat, monitor, and communicate the risks that are within or exceed the risk appetite, and allocate the resources and efforts accordingly. By doing so, the organization can optimize its risk-return trade-off, align its risk exposure with its strategic objectives, and enhance its risk culture and performance. References = 5
As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?
An assessment of threats to the organization
An assessment of recovery scenarios
industry standard framework
Documentation of testing procedures
As part of business continuity planning, the most important thing to include in a business impact analysis (BIA) is an industry standard framework. A BIA is a process of identifying and analyzing the potential effects of disruptions to the critical business functions and processes. An industry standard framework is a set of best practices, guidelines, and methodologies that provide a consistent and comprehensive approach to conducting a BIA. An industry standard framework can help to ensure that the BIA is complete, accurate, and reliable, and that it covers all the relevant aspects, such as the scope, objectives, criteria, methods, data sources, and reporting. An industry standard framework can also help to benchmark the BIA results against the industry norms and expectations, and to align the BIA with the business continuity strategy and plan. The other options are not as important as an industry standard framework, as they are related to the specific steps, activities, or outputs of the BIA, not the overall structure and quality of the BIA. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?
Impact analysis
Control analysis
Root cause analysis
Threat analysis
The best tool to enable risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP) is an impact analysis. An impact analysis is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of an interruption or disruption of business operations on the organization’s critical functions, processes, and resources. An impact analysis can help to determine the recovery priorities, objectives, and strategies for the BCP. Control analysis, root cause analysis, and threat analysis are other possible tools, but they are not as effective as an impact analysis. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?
Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.
Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.
Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.
Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.
The risk practitioner’s BEST course of action is to validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change, because outsourcing the backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider does not eliminate the risk, but rather transfers it to the service provider. The risk practitioner should verify that the service provider has adequate controls and capabilities to handle the backup and recovery procedures, and that the contractual agreement specifies the roles and responsibilities of both parties. The risk practitioner should also update the risk register to reflect the new risk owner and the residual risk level. The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Option A: Accepting the risk and documenting contingency plans for data disruption is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still responsible for the risk, even though it has been transferred to the service provider. Contingency plans are also reactive measures, rather than proactive ones.
Option B: Removing the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk has been eliminated, which is not the case. The risk still exists, but it has been transferred to the service provider. The risk register should reflect the current risk status and ownership.
Option C: Mitigating the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still involved in the risk management process, even though the risk has been transferred to the service provider. The risk practitioner should rely on the service provider’s controls and capabilities, and monitor their performance and compliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 196.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?
High percentage of lagging indicators
Nonexistent benchmark analysis
Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring
Ineffective methods to assess risk
The greatest concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) is using ineffective methods to assess risk. KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. To establish effective KRIs, the risk assessment methods should be reliable, valid, consistent, and timely. Ineffective methods to assess risk could lead to inaccurate or misleading KRIs, which could result in poor risk management decisions and outcomes. The other options are not as significant as using ineffective methods to assess risk, although they may also affect the quality and usefulness of KRIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-36.
Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?
Risk management framework
Risk register
Global security standards
Recent security incidents reported by competitors
The most relevant source to reference when updating security awareness training materials is the recent security incidents reported by competitors. This can help to illustrate the real-world threats and consequences of poor security practices, and to motivate the employees to follow the security policies and procedures. Risk management framework, risk register, and global security standards are other sources that may be useful, but they are not as relevant as the recent security incidents. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 9; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 214.
Senior management wants to increase investment in the organization's cybersecurity program in response to changes in the external threat landscape. Which of the following would BEST help to prioritize investment efforts?
Analyzing cyber intelligence reports
Engaging independent cybersecurity consultants
Increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register
Reviewing the outcome of the latest security risk assessment
The best tool to help prioritize investment efforts in the organization’s cybersecurity program is to review the outcome of the latest security risk assessment. A security risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization’s information assets and systems. By reviewing the outcome of the security risk assessment, senior management can identify the most critical and urgent risks, and allocate the resources and funds accordingly. Analyzing cyber intelligence reports, engaging independent cybersecurity consultants, and increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register are other possible tools, but they are not as effective as reviewing the outcome of the security risk assessment. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is
maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets
determine their sensitivity and critical
establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)
categorize data into groups
Information asset classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity and criticality to an information asset based on its value, importance, and impact to the organization. The major reason to classify information assets is to determine their sensitivity and criticality, which are the measures of how confidential, proprietary, or sensitive the information is, and how essential, urgent, or time-sensitive the information is for the business operations. By determining the sensitivity and criticality of information assets, the organization can prioritize the protection and recovery of the information assets, implement the appropriate security controls and safeguards, comply with the regulatory and contractual requirements, and manage the information lifecycle and disposal. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 74.
Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?
Risk register
Risk appetite
Risk priorities
Risk heat maps
The most useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification is the risk priorities. Risk priorities are the order or ranking of the risks based on their level of importance or urgency. Risk priorities help the risk practitioner to focus on the most critical risks, and allocate the resources and efforts accordingly. Risk priorities are usually determined by using a combination of factors, such as the likelihood and impact of the risks, the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and the cost and benefit of the risk responses. The other options are not as useful as the risk priorities, although they may provide some input or context for the risk response planning. The risk register is the document that records the details of all identified risks, but it does not necessarily indicate the risk priorities. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to pursue, retain, or take, but it does not specify the risk priorities. The risk heat maps are graphical tools that display the risk level of each risk based on the likelihood and impact, but they do not show the risk priorities. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-23.
Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?
Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders
Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training
Providing regular communication to risk managers
Appointing the risk manager from the business units
 The best method of creating risk awareness in an organization is to ensure senior management commitment to risk training. Senior management plays a vital role in setting the tone and direction of the risk culture and governance in the organization. By demonstrating their support and participation in risk training, they can influence and motivate the employees to follow the risk policies and procedures, and to enhance their risk knowledge and skills. Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders, providing regular communication to risk managers, and appointing the risk manager from the business units are other methods of creating risk awareness, but they are not as effective as ensuring senior management commitment to risk training. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?
Well documented policies and procedures
Risk and issue tracking
An IT strategy committee
Change and release management
The best way to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover is to have well documented policies and procedures. Policies and procedures are the formal documents that define the roles, responsibilities, processes, and standards for the IT risk management function. They provide guidance, consistency, and continuity for the IT risk management activities and outcomes. They also facilitate the knowledge transfer, training, and performance evaluation of the IT risk management staff. The other options are not as helpful as well documented policies and procedures, as they are related to the tools, mechanisms, or structures that support the IT risk management function, not the foundation and direction of the IT risk management function. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Management Process, page 15.
An organization wants to launch a campaign to advertise a new product Using data analytics, the campaign can be targeted to reach potential customers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?
Data minimization
Accountability
Accuracy
Purpose limitation
 The greatest concern for the risk practitioner when an organization wants to launch a campaign to advertise a new product using data analytics is the purpose limitation. Purpose limitation is a principle that states that personal data should be collected for specified, explicit, and legitimate purposes, and not further processed in a manner that is incompatible with those purposes. By using data analytics to target potential customers, the organization may violate the purpose limitation principle if the data was collected for a different purpose and the customers did not consent to the new use of their data. Data minimization, accountability, and accuracy are other principles that should be followed, but they are not as concerning as the purpose limitation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following is the MOST critical factor to consider when determining an organization's risk appetite?
Fiscal management practices
Business maturity
Budget for implementing security
Management culture
The most critical factor to consider when determining an organization’s risk appetite is the management culture. The management culture reflects the values, beliefs, and attitudes of the senior management and the board of directors toward risk management. The management culture influences how the organization defines, communicates, and implements its risk appetite and tolerance. Fiscal management practices, business maturity, and budget for implementing security are other factors that may affect the risk appetite, but they are not as critical as the management culture. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following stakeholders are typically included as part of a line of defense within the three lines of defense model?
Board of directors
Vendors
Regulators
Legal team
The three lines of defense model is a framework that describes the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders in the risk management and internal control processes of an organization. The three lines of defense are:
The first line of defense: the operational management and staff who are responsible for identifying, assessing, and responding to the risks, as well as implementing and maintaining the controls within their areas of activity.
The second line of defense: the risk management, compliance, and security functions who are responsible for establishing the risk policies and standards, providing guidance and support, monitoring and reporting on the risk performance and compliance, and facilitating the risk management and internal control processes across the organization.
The third line of defense: the internal audit function who is responsible for providing independent and objective assurance on the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management and internal control processes, as well as recommending improvements and best practices. The stakeholders who are typically included as part of a line of defense within the three lines of defense model are the legal team, who belong to the second line of defense. The legal team is responsible for ensuring that the organization complies with the relevant laws and regulations, as well as for advising and assisting the organization on the legal aspects and implications of the risk management and internal control processes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.4.1, p. 32-33
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Improving risk awareness
Obtaining buy-in from risk owners
Leveraging existing metrics
Optimizing risk treatment decisions
 The main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs) is improving risk awareness, as it helps to communicate the risk exposure, appetite, and tolerance of the organization to the relevant parties. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. By involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, the risk practitioner can ensure that the KRIs are aligned with the stakeholder expectations, needs, and objectives, and that they reflect the most significant risks that affect the organization. This also helps to foster a risk culture and a shared understanding of risk among the stakeholders, which can enhance the risk management process and performance. The other options are not the main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, although they may be some of the outcomes or advantages of doing so. Obtaining buy-in from risk owners, leveraging existing metrics, and optimizing risk treatment decisions are all important aspects of risk management, but they are not the primary reason for involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide; The 10 Types of Stakeholders That You Meet in Business; What are Stakeholders? Stakeholder Definition | ASQ
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?
Assign ownership of the risk response plan
Provide awareness in early detection of risk.
Perform periodic audits on identified risk.
areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.
 A risk response plan is a document that outlines the actions to be taken to address the identified risk scenarios. A risk response plan should include the objectives, scope, roles and responsibilities, resources, timelines, and metrics for each risk response. Assigning ownership of the risk response plan is the most effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios, as it ensures accountability, clarity, and communication among the stakeholders involved in the risk management process. Assigning ownership also helps to monitor and evaluate the progress and effectiveness of the risk response plan, and to make adjustments as needed. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3: Risk Response Plan, p. 152-155.
Which of the following should be initiated when a high number of noncompliant conditions are observed during review of a control procedure?
Disciplinary action
A control self-assessment
A review of the awareness program
Root cause analysis
A root cause analysis is a systematic process of identifying the underlying factors that caused the noncompliant conditions during the review of a control procedure. A root cause analysis can help to prevent the recurrence of the noncompliance, improve the effectiveness of the control procedure, and enhance the risk management process. A root cause analysis can be performed using various tools and techniques, such as the 5 whys, fishbone diagram, Pareto chart, or fault tree analysis. The other options are not as appropriate as a root cause analysis, because they do not address the source of the problem, but rather the symptoms or consequences of the noncompliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130.
Which of the following resources is MOST helpful when creating a manageable set of IT risk scenarios?
Results of current and past risk assessments
Organizational strategy and objectives
Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios
Internal and external audit findings
 According to the CRISC Review Manual1, lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios are the insights and knowledge gained from analyzing the causes, impacts, and responses of actual risk events that occurred in the past. Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios are the most helpful resource when creating a manageable set of IT risk scenarios, as they help to identify and prioritize the most relevant and realistic risks that could affect the organization’s objectives, processes, and resources. Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios also help to improve the risk management practices and capabilities, and to avoid repeating the same mistakes or gaps in the future. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 206.
As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:
align IT processes with business objectives.
communicate the enterprise risk management policy.
stay current with existing control status.
understand the organizational risk profile.
An IT risk register is a document that is used as a risk management tool to identify, analyze, and track the potential risks related to the use of information technology within an organization. An IT risk register helps management to understand the organizational risk profile, which is a comprehensive and structured representation of the risks that the organization faces. The risk profile helps the organization to understand its risk exposure, appetite, and tolerance, and to align its risk management strategy with its business objectives and context. The risk register is an essential input for creating and updating the risk profile, as it provides the data and analysis of the risks that need to be prioritized and addressed12. The other options are not the best answers, as they are either not directly shown or derived from the IT risk register. Aligning IT processes with business objectives is a goal of IT governance, which may be influenced by the IT risk register, but not solely determined by it. Communicating the enterprise risk management policy is a responsibility of the senior management and the board of directors, which may use the IT risk register as a reference, but not as the main source. Staying current with existing control status is a function of IT audit and assurance, which may rely on the IT risk register as a basis, but not as the only evidence. References = Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana; Complete Guide to IT Risk Management | CompTIA
An organization plans to migrate sensitive information to a public cloud infrastructure. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk in this scenario?
Data may be commingled with other tenants' data.
System downtime does not meet the organization's thresholds.
The infrastructure will be managed by the public cloud administrator.
The cloud provider is not independently certified.
The greatest security risk in this scenario is that data may be commingled with other tenants’ data on the public cloud infrastructure. Data commingling occurs when data from different sources or customers are mixed together without proper segregation or encryption. This may result in data leakage, unauthorized access, or loss of confidentiality and integrity. Data commingling is a common challenge in public cloud environments, where multiple customers share the same physical resources and network. System downtime, infrastructure management, and cloud provider certification are also potential risks in this scenario, but they are not as great as data commingling. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1.1, page 2451
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 638.
The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the:
amount of risk reduced by compensating controls.
amount of risk present in the organization.
variance against objectives.
number of incidents.
 The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the variance against objectives, because control metrics are measures that indicate the performance and effectiveness of the controls in achieving the desired outcomes and goals. Control metrics can help to identify and quantify the gaps or deviations between the actual and expected results of the controls, and to provide feedback and improvement for the control design and implementation. The other options are not the primary purpose, because:
Option A: Amount of risk reduced by compensating controls is a result of using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. Compensating controls are controls that provide an alternative or additional level of protection or assurance when the primary or preferred controls are not feasible or effective. Control metrics can help to measure and monitor the amount of risk reduced by compensating controls, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the control performance and effectiveness.
Option B: Amount of risk present in the organization is an input to using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. The amount of risk present in the organization is the level of exposure and uncertainty that the organization faces in pursuing its objectives and goals. Control metrics can help to assess and report the amount of risk present in the organization, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the risk profile and exposure.
Option D: Number of incidents is a source of using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. Incidents are events or occurrences that disrupt or threaten the normal operations or security of the organization. Control metrics can help to analyze and respond to the number of incidents, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the incident management and resolution. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 120.
Deviation from a mitigation action plan's completion date should be determined by which of the following?
Change management as determined by a change control board
Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects
Project governance criteria as determined by the project office
The risk owner as determined by risk management processes
Deviation from a mitigation action plan’s completion date should be determined by the risk owner as determined by risk management processes, because the risk owner is the person or entity who has the accountability and authority to manage the risk and its associated mitigation actions. The risk owner should monitor and report the progress and status of the mitigation action plan, and determine if there is any deviation from the expected completion date, based on the risk management processes and criteria. The other options are not the ones who should determine the deviation, because:
Option A: Change management as determined by a change control board is a process that ensures that any changes to the project scope, schedule, cost, or quality are controlled and approved, but it does not determine the deviation from the mitigation action plan’s completion date, which is a risk management activity.
Option B: Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects is a technique that compares the performance and practices of the current project with those of similar or successful projects, but it does not determine the deviation from the mitigation action plan’s completion date, which is a risk management activity.
Option C: Project governance criteria as determined by the project office is a set of rules and standards that define the roles, responsibilities, and authority of the project stakeholders, but it does not determine the deviation from the mitigation action plan’s completion date, which is a risk management activity. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 122.
Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?
Single sign-on
Data integrity checking
Strong authentication
Intrusion detection system
 Strong authentication is the most effective measure against external threats to an organization’s confidential information. Confidential information is any data or information that is sensitive, proprietary, or valuable to the organization, and that should not be disclosed to unauthorized parties1. External threats are malicious actors outside the organization who attempt to gain unauthorized access to the organization’s networks, systems, and data, using various methods such as malware, hacking, or social engineering2. Strong authentication is a method of verifying the identity and legitimacy of a user or device before granting access to the organization’s resources or data3. Strong authentication typically involves the use of multiple factors or methods of authentication, such as passwords, tokens, biometrics, or certificates4. Strong authentication can prevent or reduce the risk of external threats to the organization’s confidential information, by making it more difficult and costly for the attackers to compromise the credentials or devices of the authorized users, and by limiting the access to the data or resources that are relevant and necessary for the users’ roles and responsibilities5. The other options are not the most effective measures against external threats to the organization’s confidential information, as they are either less secure or less relevant than strong authentication. Single sign-on is a method of allowing a user to access multiple systems or applications with a single set of credentials, without having to log in separately for each system or application6. Single sign-on can improve the user experience and convenience, as well as reduce the administrative burden and cost of managing multiple accounts and passwords. However, single sign-on is not the most effective measure against external threats to the organization’s confidential information, as it can also increase the risk of credential compromise or misuse, and create a single point of failure or attack for the attackers to access multiple systems or data. Data integrity checking is a method of ensuring that the data or information is accurate, complete, and consistent, and that it has not been altered or corrupted by unauthorized parties or processes. Data integrity checking can involve the use of techniques such as checksums, hashes, digital signatures, or encryption. Data integrity checking can enhance the quality and reliability of the data or information, as well as detect and prevent any unauthorized or malicious changes or tampering. However, data integrity checking is not the most effective measure against external threats to the organization’s confidential information, as it does not prevent or reduce the risk of data theft or leakage, and it does not verify the identity or legitimacy of the users or devices accessing the data. Intrusion detection system is a system that monitors the network or system activities and events, and detects and alerts any suspicious or malicious behaviors or anomalies that may indicate an attempted or successful breach or attack. Intrusion detection system can help to identify and respond to external threats to the organization’s networks, systems, and data, by providing visibility and awareness of the network or system status and activities, and by enabling timely and appropriate actions or countermeasures. However, intrusion detection system is not the most effective measure against external threats to the organization’s confidential information, as it is a reactive or passive system that does not prevent or block the attacks, and it may generate false positives or negatives that can affect its accuracy and efficiency. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 189.
Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?
Obtaining management sign-off
Demonstrating effective risk mitigation
Justifying return on investment
Providing accurate risk reporting
The main reason for documenting the performance of controls is to provide accurate risk reporting. Risk reporting is a process that communicates and discloses the relevant and reliable information about the risks and their management to the stakeholders and decision makers. Risk reporting is an essential component of the risk management process, as it helps to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring activities, as well as to support and inform the risk governance and oversight functions. Documenting the performance of controls is a technique that records and tracks the results and outcomes of the controls that are implemented to address the risks, such as the control objectives,
Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?
Identify the potential risk.
Monitor employee usage.
Assess the potential risk.
Develop risk awareness training.
The security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace is the possibility and impact of unauthorized access, disclosure, or use of the data or information that are collected, stored, or transmitted by the wearable devices, such as smartwatches, fitness trackers, or glasses, that are worn or used by the employees12.
The first step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace is to identify the potential risk, which is the process of recognizing and describing the sources, causes, and consequences of the risk, and the potential impacts on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation34.
Identifying the potential risk is the first step because it provides the basis and input for the subsequent steps of the risk management process, such as assessing, treating, monitoring, and communicating the risk34.
Identifying the potential risk is also the first step because it enables the organization to understand and prioritize the risk, and to allocate the appropriate resources and controls for the risk management process34.
The other options are not the first step, but rather possible subsequent steps that may depend on or follow the identification of the potential risk. For example:
Monitoring employee usage is a step that involves collecting and analyzing data and information on the frequency, duration, and purpose of the wearable devices that are used by the employees, and detecting and reporting any deviations, anomalies, or issues that may indicate a security risk5 . However, this step is not the first step because it requires the identification of the potential risk to provide the guidance and standards for the monitoring process5 .
Assessing the potential risk is a step that involves estimating and evaluating the likelihood and impact of the risk, and the level of risk exposure or tolerance for the organization34. However, this step is not the first step because it requires the identification of the potential risk to provide the information and data for the assessment process34.
Developing risk awareness training is a step that involves educating and training the employees and other stakeholders on the security risks and best practices associated with the wearable technology, and informing them of their roles, obligations, and responsibilities for the risk management process . However, this step is not the first step because it requires the identification of the potential risk to provide the content and objectives for the training process . References =
1: Wearable Devices in the Workplace: Security Threats and Protection1
2: 10 security risks of wearables | CSO Online2
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
5: Continuous Monitoring - ISACA3
: Continuous Monitoring: A New Approach to Risk Management - ISACA Journal4
: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky5
: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US
A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?
Preventive
Detective
Directive
Deterrent
A preventive control is a type of control that aims to avoid or reduce the occurrence of an undesirable event or risk. A preventive control can be implemented through technical, administrative, or physical means. A new policy that forbids copying of data onto removable media is an example of a preventive control, because it prevents unauthorized data exfiltration or leakage through removable devices, such as flash drives or external hard disk drives. A preventive control is different from the other types of controls, as explained below:
A detective control is a type of control that aims to discover or identify the occurrence of an undesirable event or risk. A detective control can be implemented through monitoring, auditing, or reporting activities. An example of a detective control is a log analysis tool that detects any unauthorized access or modification of data on a system.
A directive control is a type of control that aims to guide or instruct the behavior or actions of individuals or groups. A directive control can be implemented through policies, procedures, standards, or rules. An example of a directive control is a training program that teaches employees how to handle sensitive data securely and appropriately.
A deterrent control is a type of control that aims to discourage or dissuade individuals or groups from performing an undesirable event or risk. A deterrent control can be implemented through sanctions, penalties, or consequences. An example of a deterrent control is a warning message that informs users of the legal implications of copying data onto removable media without authorization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 38.
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of effective IT risk scenarios?
Utilization of a cross-functional team
Participation by IT subject matter experts
Integration of contingency planning
Validation by senior management
 The best way to facilitate the development of effective IT risk scenarios is to utilize a cross-functional team. A cross-functional team is a group of people with different skills, expertise, and perspectives who work together to achieve a common goal. A cross-functional team can help to create realistic, comprehensive, and relevant IT risk scenarios by bringing diverse knowledge, experience, and insights from various domains and functions. A cross-functional team can also help to identify and address the interdependencies, interactions, and impacts of IT risks across the organization. The other options are not the best ways to facilitate the development of effective IT risk scenarios, although they may be useful or necessary depending on the context and nature of the IT risks. Participation by IT subject matter experts is important, but it is not sufficient, as IT risks may affect or be affected by non-IT factors and stakeholders. Integration of contingency planning is a part of the risk response process, which follows the risk scenario development process, but it is not the same as creating the risk scenarios. Validation by senior management is a quality assurance step that ensures the accuracy and completeness of the risk scenarios, but it is not the same as facilitating the development of the risk scenarios. References = Six Steps to Using Risk Scenarios for Improved Risk Management, IT Risk Scenarios - Morland-Austin, IT Risk Resources | ISACA
A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:
mitigated
accepted
avoided
deferred
The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been deferred, as this means that the risk response has been postponed or delayed due to lack of resources or other constraints. Deferring a risk response implies that the risk owner acknowledges the risk and intends to implement the risk mitigation action plan at a later stage, when the resources or conditions are available. The other options are not correct, as they do not reflect the actual status of the risk response. Mitigating a risk means that the risk response has been implemented and the risk level has been reduced. Accepting a risk means that the risk response has been rejected or waived, and the risk level has been accepted as it is. Avoiding a risk means that the risk response has been implemented and the risk level has been eliminated or transferred. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 146.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization's risk management methodology?
Business context
Risk tolerance level
Resource requirements
Benchmarking information
The primary consideration when establishing an organization’s risk management methodology is the business context, which includes the internal and external factors that influence the organization’s objectives, strategies, scope, and boundaries. The business context helps to define the risk criteria, the risk appetite, the risk identification, the risk analysis, and the risk treatment. The other options are not the primary consideration, but rather the outcomes or inputs of the risk management methodology. References = ISO 31000 Risk Management – Principles and Guidelines; ISO 31000 Principles of Risk Management; The risk management process: What is the best structure and administration?
An organization is planning to outsource its payroll function to an external service provider Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when selecting the provider?
Disaster recovery plan (DRP) of the system
Right to audit the provider
Internal controls to ensure data privacy
Transparency of key performance indicators (KPIs)
 The most important consideration when selecting an external service provider for outsourcing the payroll function is the internal controls to ensure data privacy. The payroll function involves processing and storing sensitive personal and financial information of the employees, such as salaries, taxes, benefits, bank accounts, etc. This information needs to be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss, as it may result in legal, regulatory, reputational, or financial consequences for the organization and the employees. Therefore, the external service provider should have adequate internal controls, such as encryption, access control, backup, logging, monitoring, etc., to ensure data privacy and compliance with the organization’s policies and standards. Disaster recovery plan, right to audit, and transparency of KPIs are also important considerations when selecting an external service provider, but they are not as important as internal controls to ensure data privacy. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1.2, page 2461
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 648.
An organization has just implemented changes to close an identified vulnerability that impacted a critical business process. What should be the NEXT course of action?
Redesign the heat map.
Review the risk tolerance.
Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)
Update the risk register.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the risk register is a tool that records the results of risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment. It should be updated whenever there is a change in the risk profile, such as when a vulnerability is closed or a new threat is identified. Updating the risk register allows the organization to monitor the current status of risks and the effectiveness of risk responses. Therefore, the next course of action after implementing changes to close an identified vulnerability is to update the risk register with the new information. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 191.
Which of the following is the MOST important component of effective security incident response?
Network time protocol synchronization
Identification of attack sources
Early detection of breaches
A documented communications plan
The most important component of effective security incident response is a documented communications plan. A communications plan defines the roles and responsibilities, channels and methods, frequency and timing, and content and format of the communications that take place during and after a security incident. A communications plan helps to ensure that the relevant stakeholders are informed and updated about the incident status and outcome, and that the incident response activities are coordinated and consistent. A communications plan also helps to manage the expectations and perceptions of the stakeholders, and to maintain the trust and reputation of the enterprise. Network time protocol synchronization, identification of attack sources, and early detection of breaches are also important components of effective security incident response, but they are not as important as a documented communications plan. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.2, page 1931
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 660.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure an organization's current risk scenarios are relevant?
Adoption of industry best practices
Involvement of stakeholders in risk assessment
Review of risk scenarios by independent parties
Documentation of potential risk in business cases
The MOST effective way to help ensure an organization’s current risk scenarios are relevant is to involve the stakeholders in the risk assessment process, because they are the ones who have the knowledge, experience, and interest in the risk scenarios that affect their domains and objectives. The involvement of stakeholders can help to identify and validate the risk scenarios, to provide input and feedback on the risk analysis and evaluation, and to ensure the alignment and integration of the risk scenarios with the business processes and goals. The other options are not as effective as the involvement of stakeholders, because:
Option A: Adoption of industry best practices is a good way to improve the quality and consistency of the risk scenarios, but it does not ensure their relevance to the organization’s specific context and environment. Industry best practices are general and standardized guidelines that may not reflect the organization’s unique risks and needs.
Option C: Review of risk scenarios by independent parties is a useful way to verify and enhance the accuracy and reliability of the risk scenarios, but it does not ensure their relevance to the organization’s internal and external stakeholders. Independent parties are objective and impartial reviewers who may not have the same knowledge, experience, and interest as the stakeholders.
Option D: Documentation of potential risk in business cases is a helpful way to communicate and justify the importance and value of the risk scenarios, but it does not ensure their relevance to the organization’s current and future state. Business cases are concise and persuasive documents that may not capture all the aspects and dimensions of the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 104.
Which of the following is the BEST way to support communication of emerging risk?
Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact.
Adjust inherent risk levels upward.
Include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda.
Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring.
 Emerging risk is a risk that is new or evolving, and has the potential to significantly affect the enterprise’s objectives, performance, or reputation. Emerging risk can arise from changes in the internal or external environment, such as technological innovations, regulatory developments, or social trends. The best way to support communication of emerging risk is to include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda. The enterprise risk committee is a group of senior executives who oversee the enterprise-wide risk management program, and provide guidance and direction to the risk owners and practitioners. By including the emerging risk on the agenda, the risk practitioner can ensure that the enterprise risk committee is aware of the risk, its causes, impacts, and likelihood, and can decide on the appropriate risk response strategy and actions. The other options are not the best way to support communication of emerging risk, as they involve different aspects of the risk management process:
Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact means that the risk practitioner adjusts the risk levels after considering the existing or planned risk responses. This may not be feasible or accurate for emerging risk, as the risk responses may not be defined or implemented yet, or may not be effective for the new or evolving risk.
Adjust inherent risk levels upward means that the risk practitioner increases the risk levels before considering any risk responses. This may not reflect the true nature or magnitude of the emerging risk, as the inherent risk levels are based on the assumptions and estimates of the risk practitioner, and may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the emerging risk.
Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring means that the risk practitioner records and tracks the emerging risk, its causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and owners. This is an important step in the risk management process, but it does not necessarily support communication of the emerging risk, as the risk register may not be accessible or visible to all the relevant stakeholders, or may not be updated or reviewed frequently enough to capture the changes in the emerging risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2.2, pp. 21-22.
During the initial risk identification process for a business application, it is MOST important to include which of the following stakeholders?
Business process owners
Business process consumers
Application architecture team
Internal audit
The MOST important stakeholders to include during the initial risk identification process for a business application are the business process owners, because they are the ones who have the authority and responsibility for the business processes that are supported or enabled by the business application. The business process owners can provide valuable input and feedback on the business objectives, requirements, and expectations of the business application, as well as the potential risks, impacts, and opportunities that may affect the business processes and outcomes. The other options are not as important as the business process owners, because:
Option B: Business process consumers are the ones who use or benefit from the business processes that are supported or enabled by the business application, such as customers, employees, or partners. They can provide useful information and perspectives on the user needs, preferences, and satisfaction of the business application, but they are not as important as the business process owners, who have the ultimate accountability and authority for the business processes and outcomes.
Option C: Application architecture team is the one who designs and develops the technical architecture and components of the business application, such as the hardware, software, network, and data. They can provide technical expertise and guidance on the feasibility, functionality, and security of the business application, but they are not as important as the business process owners, who have the primary stake and interest in the business application and its alignment with the business processes and objectives.
Option D: Internal audit is the one who provides independent assurance and consulting services on the governance, risk management, and control processes of the organization, including the business application. They can provide objective and impartial evaluation and recommendation on the effectiveness and efficiency of the business application and its compliance with the internal and external standards and regulations, but they are not as important as the business process owners, who have the direct involvement and influence on the business application and its performance and value. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 103.
Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?
Vulnerability scanning
Continuous monitoring and alerting
Configuration management
Access controls and active logging
Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains the consistency and integrity of the IT systems and applications throughout their lifecycle. Configuration management involves identifying, documenting, controlling, and auditing the configuration items, such as hardware, software, data, or services, that comprise the IT systems and applications. Configuration management also involves establishing and enforcing the configuration baselines, which are the approved and authorized states of the configuration items. Implementing configuration management will best help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it will enable the enterprise to verify that the systems meet the specified requirements, standards, and policies, and to detect and correct any deviations or discrepancies. The other options are not as effective as configuration management, as they involve different aspects or outcomes of the IT systems and applications:
Vulnerability scanning is a process that identifies and analyzes the weaknesses or gaps in the IT systems and applications that could be exploited by threats. Vulnerability scanning helps to assess the security and compliance of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not cover all the aspects or components of the systems, or may not reflect the latest changes or updates of the systems.
Continuous monitoring and alerting is a process that tracks and reports the performance and status of the IT systems and applications on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring and alerting helps to identify and respond to any issues or incidents that affect the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not prevent or detect the unauthorized or unintended changes or modifications of the systems, or may not provide sufficient information or evidence to verify the compliance of the systems.
Access controls and active logging are processes that restrict and record the access and activities of the users or entities on the IT systems and applications. Access controls and active logging help to protect and audit the IT systems and applications, but they do not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as they may not address the configuration or quality issues of the systems, or may not be consistent or comprehensive across the systems. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.1, pp. 156-157.
An organization has completed a project to implement encryption on all databases that host customer data. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated the reflect this change?
Risk likelihood
Inherent risk
Risk appetite
Risk tolerance
The risk likelihood is the element of the risk register that should be updated to reflect the change of implementing encryption on all databases that host customer data. The risk likelihood is the probability or frequency of a risk event occurring, and it is one of the factors that determine the risk level and priority. By implementing encryption, the organization reduces the risk likelihood of unauthorized access, disclosure, or breach of the customer data, as encryption protects the data from being read or modified by anyone who does not have the decryption key. Therefore, the risk likelihood should be updated to reflect the lower probability of the risk event after applying the encryption control. The other options are not the elements that should be updated, as they are either not affected by or not related to the change of implementing encryption. The inherent risk is the level of risk before applying any controls or mitigation measures, and it does not change after implementing encryption. The risk appetite is the amount of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and it is not influenced by the change of implementing encryption. The risk tolerance is the acceptable variation between the risk thresholds and the business objectives, and it is not determined by the change of implementing encryption. References = Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana; Risk Assessment in Project Management | PMI; Risk Assessment Process: Definition, Steps, and Examples; Risk Assessment - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Recommend avoiding the risk.
Validate the risk response with internal audit.
Update the risk register.
Evaluate outsourcing the process.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the risk register is a tool that records the results of risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment. The risk register should be updated whenever there is a change in the risk profile, such as when a risk response is implemented or a new risk is identified. Updating the risk register allows the organization to monitor the current status of risks and the effectiveness of risk responses. Therefore, the next step for the risk practitioner after identifying a risk with high impact and very low likelihood that is covered by insurance is to update the risk register with the new information. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 191.
Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service
provider during a vendor risk assessment?
Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)
Independent audit report
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Service level agreement (SLA)
A vendor risk assessment is a process of evaluating and managing the risks associated with outsourcing IT services or functions to a third-party provider, such as a cloud service provider.
One of the most important documents to request from a cloud service provider during a vendor risk assessment is an independent audit report. This is a report that provides an objective and reliable assurance on the quality, security, and performance of the cloud service provider’s operations, processes, and controls, based on the standards and criteria established by an independent auditor or a recognized authority, such as ISACA, ISO, NIST, etc.
An independent audit report helps to verify the compliance and effectiveness of the cloud service provider’s risk management practices, identify any gaps or issues that may affect the service delivery or security, and recommend improvements or corrective actions.
The other options are not the most important documents to request from a cloud service provider during a vendor risk assessment. They are either secondary or not essential for vendor risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 22
Information Technology & Security, page 16
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 14
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed?
The risk owner has validated outcomes.
The risk register has been updated.
The control objectives are mapped to risk objectives.
The requirements have been achieved.
The most important thing for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed is that the risk owner has validated the outcomes, as this means that the risk owner has confirmed that the risk response has been implemented and that the risk level has been reduced to an acceptable level. The risk owner is the person or entity with the authority and responsibility to manage a particular risk, and they should evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk action plan, and report any issues or changes. The risk action plan is a document that outlines the specific actions, resources, responsibilities, and timelines for implementing a risk response. The other options are not the most important things for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed, although they may be useful or necessary steps. Updating the risk register is a good practice, but it should be done after the risk owner has validated the outcomes and with the consent of the risk owner. Mapping the control objectives to the risk objectives is a part of the risk response design, but it does not measure the actual achievement of the risk objectives. Achieving the requirements is a desired result, but it does not guarantee that the risk owner has validated the outcomes or that the risk level has been reduced to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 146.
Which of the following activities is PRIMARILY the responsibility of senior management?
Bottom-up identification of emerging risks
Categorization of risk scenarios against a standard taxonomy
Prioritization of risk scenarios based on severity
Review of external loss data
The primary responsibility of senior management in risk management is to prioritize the risk scenarios based on severity. Risk scenarios are hypothetical events or situations that could affect the achievement of the objectives. Risk severity is a measure of the overall level of risk, based on the combination of the probability and impact of the risk scenario. Prioritizing the risk scenarios based on severity is the primary responsibility of senior management, because it helps to allocate the resources and actions to the most critical and urgent risks, and to align the risk management process with the organizational strategy and risk appetite. Senior management also has the authority and accountability to make the final decisions and approve the risk response plans for the prioritized risks. The other options are not the primary responsibility of senior management, although they may be involved or consulted in these activities. Bottom-up identification of emerging risks is a process of identifying and reporting the new or changing risks that may arise from the operational or tactical level of the organization. This is usually the responsibility of the risk owners or the risk practitioners, who have the knowledge and experience of the specific functions and processes. Categorization of risk scenarios against a standard taxonomy is a process of classifying and organizing the risk scenarios into predefined categories or groups, based on their nature, source, or impact. This is usually the responsibility of the risk analysts or the risk coordinators, who have the skills and tools to perform the risk analysis and assessment. Review of external loss data is a process of collecting and analyzing the data and information on the losses or incidents that occurred in other organizations or industries, due to similar or related risks. This is usually the responsibility of the risk researchers or the risk consultants, who have the access and expertise to obtain and interpret the external data and information. References = The Role of Executive Management in ERM - Corporate Compliance Insights, Guidelines on Risk Management Practices – Board and Senior Management, Risk Manager Job Description [+2023 TEMPLATE] - Workable
Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?
Implementing control activities
Monitoring control effectiveness
Conducting control self-assessments
Owning risk scenarios
The second line of defense is a group of functions that provide oversight, guidance, and monitoring of the risk management activities of the first line of defense. The second line of defense includes risk management, compliance, and internal control departments. Their key responsibility is to monitor the effectiveness of the control activities implemented by the first line of defense, and to report any issues or gaps to senior management and the board. The second line of defense also supports the first line of defense by providing frameworks, policies, tools, and techniques to identify, measure, and manage risks. The other options are not the key responsibility of the second line of defense, as explained below:
A. Implementing control activities is the responsibility of the first line of defense, which consists of the business units and process owners that own and manage the risks associated with their daily operations.
C. Conducting control self-assessments is a technique used by the first line of defense to evaluate the design and operation of their own controls, and to identify and report any deficiencies or improvement opportunities.
D. Owning risk scenarios is the responsibility of the first line of defense, which is accountable for the risks inherent in their business activities, and for developing and executing risk response strategies. References = Modernizing The Three Lines of Defense Model | Deloitte US, The second line of defence: fit for purpose, not an uncomfortable fit | Knowledge | Linklaters, COSO’s Take on the Three Lines of Defense | ERM - Enterprise Risk Management, Three Lines of Defense | Risk Management - Schneider Downs CPAs, What is the Three Lines of Defense Approach to Risk Management?
A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?
The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.
The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.
The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.
The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.
A contingency plan is a set of actions and procedures that aim to ensure the continuity of critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. An alternate processing site is a location where the organization can resume its information systems operations in case the primary site is unavailable or damaged. The most important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site for a company located on a moderate earthquake fault is to ensure that the alternative site does not reside on the same fault, no matter how far apart they are. This is because an earthquake can affect a large area along the fault line, and potentially damage both the primary and the alternative site, rendering them unusable. By choosing an alternative site that is not on the same fault, the company can reduce the risk of losing both sites, and increase the likelihood of restoring its operations quickly and effectively. The other options are not as important as the alternative site location, because they do not address the main threat of an earthquake, but rather focus on specific or partial aspects of the contingency plan, as explained below:
A. The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately is a consideration that relates to the availability and readiness of the alternative site, but it does not ensure that the site is safe and secure from an earthquake. A hot site is a type of alternative site that has the necessary hardware, software, and network components to resume the information systems operations with minimal or no downtime. However, if the hot site is on the same fault as the primary site, it may not be accessible or functional after an earthquake, and the company may lose both sites and the data stored on them.
B. The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site is a consideration that relates to the integrity and recoverability of the data, but it does not ensure that the site is safe and secure from an earthquake. Backup media are devices or systems that store copies of the data and information that are essential for the organization’s operations. Taking backup media to the alternative site can help the company to restore its data and resume its operations in case the primary site is damaged or destroyed. However, if the alternative site is on the same fault as the primary site, it may not be accessible or functional after an earthquake, and the company may lose both sites and the backup media.
C. The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site is a consideration that relates to the performance and reliability of the alternative site, but it does not ensure that the site is safe and secure from an earthquake. A shared cold site is a type of alternative site that has the necessary space and infrastructure to accommodate the information systems operations, but does not have the hardware, software, or network components installed. A shared cold site is shared by multiple organizations, and may not be available or suitable for the company’s high priority applications, which require more resources and customization. However, if the alternative site is on the same fault as the primary site, it may not be accessible or functional after an earthquake, and the company may lose both sites and the ability to resume its high priority applications. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 115. How to conduct a contingency planning process - IFRC, CP-4(2): Alternate Processing Site - CSF Tools - Identity Digital, Information System Contingency Planning Guidance - ISACA
Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?
Organizational strategy
Cost-benefit analysis
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Business requirements
The first factor that should be considered when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies is the organizational strategy. The organizational strategy defines the vision, mission, goals, and objectives of the enterprise, and provides the direction and guidance for its activities and decisions. The adoption of emerging technologies should be aligned with the organizational strategy, and support its achievement and performance. The organizational strategy also helps to determine the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise, and the criteria for evaluating the risks and benefits of the emerging technologies. Cost-benefit analysis, control self-assessment, and business requirements are also important factors to consider when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies, but they are not the first factor to consider. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1.1, page 181
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 656.
An IT operations team implements disaster recovery controls based on decisions from application owners regarding the level of resiliency needed. Who is the risk owner in this scenario?
Business resilience manager
Disaster recovery team lead
Application owner
IT operations manager
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the application owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the achievement of the application objectives and the management of the associated risks. The application owner is responsible for defining the level of resiliency needed for the application, which is the ability of the application to recover from disruptions and continue to operate. The application owner is also responsible for accepting or rejecting the residual risks after the implementation of the disaster recovery controls, which are the measures to restore the application functionality and data in the event of a disaster. Therefore, the risk owner in this scenario is the application owner, as they are the ones who will be affected by the potential impact of the disaster on the application and its objectives. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 194.
The implementation of a risk treatment plan will exceed the resources originally allocated for the risk response. Which of the following should be the risk owner's NEXT action?
Perform a risk assessment.
Accept the risk of not implementing.
Escalate to senior management.
Update the implementation plan.
A risk treatment plan is a document that outlines the actions and resources required to implement the chosen risk response for a specific risk1. A risk response is a strategy or action that is taken or planned to mitigate or eliminate the risk, such as avoiding, transferring, reducing, or accepting the risk2. A risk owner is a person or entity that has the authority and accountability for a risk and its management3. If the implementation of a risk treatment plan will exceed the resources originally allocated for the risk response, the risk owner’s next action should be to escalate to senior management, which is the group of senior leaders who have the authority and accountability for the organization’s performance and governance4. By escalating to senior management, the risk owner can inform and consult them about the situation and the implications, and seek their guidance and approval for the necessary adjustments or alternatives. Escalating to senior management can also help to ensure that the risk treatment plan is aligned with the organization’s strategy, vision, and mission, and that the risk response is consistent with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance5. Performing a risk assessment, accepting the risk of not implementing, and updating the implementation plan are not the best choices for the risk owner’s next action, as they do not provide the same level of communication and consultation as escalating to senior management. Performing a risk assessment is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks and their potential impacts on the organization’s objectives and performance6. Performing a risk assessment can help to update and validate the risk information and the risk treatment plan, but it does not address the issue of the resource shortfall or the stakeholder expectations. Accepting the risk of not implementing is a decision that involves acknowledging and tolerating the risk or its impact without taking any action to reduce or eliminate it7. Accepting the risk of not implementing can help to avoid the additional cost and effort of the risk treatment plan, but it does not consider the potential consequences or the stakeholder interests. Updating the implementation plan is a process that involves revising and modifying the plan for executing the risk treatment plan, such as the scope, schedule, budget, or quality8. Updating the implementation plan can help to reflect the changes and updates in the risk treatment plan, but it does not resolve the problem of the resource gap or the stakeholder approval. References = 1: Risk Treatment and Response Plans - UNECE2: Risk Response Strategy and Contingency Plans - ProjectManagement.com3: [Risk Ownership - Risk Management] 4: [Senior Management - Definition, Roles and Responsibilities] 5: [Risk Appetite and Tolerance - ISACA] 6: [Risk Assessment - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] 7: [Risk Acceptance - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] 8: [Implementation Plan - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response, Section 3.1: Risk Response Options, pp. 113-115.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.]
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan's implementation?
Increased number of controls
Reduced risk level
Increased risk appetite
Stakeholder commitment
The effectiveness of a control action plan’s implementation can be measured by the extent to which it achieves the desired risk reduction. A control action plan is a set of actions that are designed to address the root causes of a risk and mitigate its impact or likelihood. The best indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan’s implementation is the reduced risk level, which means that the risk is either eliminated or brought within the acceptable range. The other options are not the best indicators, because they do not directly reflect the risk reduction. Increased number of controls may not necessarily reduce the risk level, especially if the controls are not aligned with the risk causes, objectives, and priorities. Increased risk appetite may indicate a higher tolerance for risk, but it does not mean that the risk level has been reduced. Stakeholder commitment may facilitate the implementation of the control action plan, but it does not guarantee the effectiveness of the plan. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3: Risk Response, Section 3.2: Control Action Plan, p. 170-171.
IT disaster recovery point objectives (RPOs) should be based on the:
maximum tolerable downtime.
maximum tolerable loss of data.
need of each business unit.
type of business.
IT disaster recovery point objectives (RPOs) should be based on the:
B. maximum tolerable loss of data.
RPOs are determined by how much data loss an organization can withstand in the event of a disaster. It’s a measure of the maximum age of files that an organization must recover from backup storage for normal operations to resume after a disaster. Therefore, RPOs are directly related to the maximum tolerable loss of data.
After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:
record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.
validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.
reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.
perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.
According to the LDR514: Security Strategic Planning, Policy, and Leadership Course, after mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the next course of action should be to validate the risk scenarios for business applicability. This is because generic risk scenarios are not specific to the organization’s context, objectives, and environment, and they may not capture the unique threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that the organization faces. Therefore, validating the risk scenarios for business applicability will help to ensure that the risk scenarios are relevant, realistic, and consistent with the organization’s security policies. Validating the risk scenarios will also help to identify any gaps, overlaps, or conflicts between the risk scenarios and the security policies, and to resolve them accordingly. References = LDR514: Security Strategic Planning, Policy, and Leadership Course, Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative
Of the following, who should be responsible for determining the inherent risk rating of an application?
Application owner
Senior management
Risk practitioner
Business process owner
Inherent risk rating is a measure of the natural level of risk that is part of an application, before any controls are applied1. Inherent risk rating helps to identify and prioritize the applications that pose the highest risk to the organization and require the most attention and resources for risk management2. The responsibility for determining the inherent risk rating of an application should belong to the risk practitioner, as they have the expertise and knowledge to perform a comprehensive and consistent risk assessment of the application, using a standard methodology and criteria3. The risk practitioner should also communicate and report the inherent risk rating of the application to the relevant stakeholders, such as the application owner, senior management, and business process owner, and provide recommendations for risk mitigation4. The application owner, senior management, and business process owner are not the best choices for determining the inherent risk rating of an application, as they may not have the same level of skill and objectivity as the risk practitioner. The application owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the application and its performance5. The application owner may be involved in providing input and feedback to the risk practitioner during the risk assessment process, but they may not be able to assess the inherent risk rating of the application independently and impartially, as they may have a vested interest in the application’s success and reputation6. Senior management is the group of executives who set the strategic direction and objectives of the organization and oversee its performance7. Senior management may be involved in approving and endorsing the risk assessment process and its results, but they may not be able to assess the inherent risk rating of the application in detail and depth, as they may have a broader and higher-level perspective of the organization’s risk profile and priorities8. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for a business process that is supported or enabled by the application. The business process owner may be involved in providing input and feedback to the risk practitioner during the risk assessment process, but they may not be able to assess the inherent risk rating of the application accurately and comprehensively, as they may have a limited and specific view of the application’s functionality and value. References = 2: Introduction to application risk rating & assessment | Infosec3: Application Security Risk: Assessment and Modeling - ISACA4: Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.1: Inherent Risk Rating - Shared Assessments - Third Party Risk Management5: [Application Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] 6: Perform Inherent Risk Analysis - Oracle7: [Senior Management - Definition, Roles and Responsibilities] 8: Rating Inherent and Residual Risk - Barn Owl : [Business Process Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] : [Business Process Owner - Roles and Responsibilities]
Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?
Chief information officer (CIO)
Executive management team
Audit committee
Business process owner
Strategic decisions on risk management are the decisions that involve setting the direction, objectives, and priorities for risk management within an organization, as well as aligning them with the organization’s overall strategy, vision, and mission1. Strategic decisions on risk management also involve defining the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and level of risk that the organization is willing and able to accept to achieve its goals2. The responsibility for strategic decisions on risk management should belong to the executive management team, which is the group of senior leaders who have the authority and accountability for the organization’s performance and governance3. The executive management team has the best understanding of the organization’s strategic context, environment, and stakeholders, and can make informed and balanced decisions that consider the benefits and costs of risk-taking4. The executive management team also has the ability and responsibility to communicate and cascade the strategic decisions on risk management to the rest of the organization, and to monitor and evaluate their implementation and outcomes5. The chief information officer (CIO), the audit committee, and the business process owner are not the best choices for being responsible for strategic decisions on risk management, as they do not have the same level of authority and accountability as the executive management team. The CIO is the senior leader who oversees the organization’s information and technology strategy, resources, and systems6. The CIO may be involved in providing input and feedback to the executive management team on the strategic decisions on risk management, especially those related to IT risk, but they do not have the final say or the overall responsibility for them. The audit committee is a subcommittee of the board of directors that oversees the organization’s financial reporting, internal controls, and external audits7. The audit committee may be involved in reviewing and approving the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as ensuring their compliance with the relevant laws and standards, but they do not have the authority or the expertise to make or implement them. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for a business process that supports or enables the organization’s objectives and functions. The business process owner may be involved in executing and reporting on the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as identifying and mitigating the risks related to their business process, but they do not have the perspective or the influence to make or communicate them. References = 1: Strategic Risk Management: Complete Overview (With Examples)2: [Risk Appetite and Tolerance - ISACA] 3: [Senior Management - Definition, Roles and Responsibilities] 4: Stanford Strategic Decision and Risk Management | Stanford Online5: A 7-Step Process for Strategic Risk Management — RiskOptics - Reciprocity6: [Chief Information Officer (CIO) - Gartner IT Glossary] 7: [Audit Committee - Overview, Functions, and Responsibilities] : [Business Process Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] : [Business Process Owner - Roles and Responsibilities] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Concepts, pp. 17-19.]
After migrating a key financial system to a new provider, it was discovered that a developer could gain access to the production environment. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk in this situation?
Escalate the issue to the service provider.
Re-certify the application access controls.
Remove the developer's access.
Review the results of pre-migration testing.
After migrating a key financial system to a new provider, it was discovered that a developer could gain access to the production environment. This indicates that there is a risk of unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction of sensitive data, such as financial records, transactions, reports, etc.
A control that could mitigate this risk is to remove the developer’s access to the production environment. This means that the developer would not be able to alter the source code or configuration of the financial system without proper authorization or approval.
The other options are not the best ways to mitigate the risk in this situation. They are either irrelevant or less effective than removing the developer’s access.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 14
Information Technology & Security, page 8
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 6
An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Identify staff members who have access to the organization's sensitive data.
Identify locations where the organization's sensitive data is stored.
Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.
Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.
The first step in assessing the current risk level of data loss is to identify where the sensitive data is stored, such as servers, databases, laptops, mobile devices, etc. This will help to determine the scope and boundaries of the risk assessment, as well as the potential exposure and impact of data loss. Identifying staff members who have access to the data, risk scenarios and owners, and existing controls are important steps, but they should be done after identifying the data locations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 51.
Which of the following criteria is MOST important when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data?
The recovery time objective (RTO)
The likelihood of a recurring attack
The organization's risk tolerance
The business significance of the information
 According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the business significance of the information is the most important criterion when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data, as it determines the impact and severity of the attack on the organization’s objectives and performance. The business significance of the information helps to:
Assess the value and sensitivity of the data that is compromised or at risk of compromise
Evaluate the potential losses or damages that the organization may incur due to the data compromise
Prioritize the data recovery and restoration activities based on the criticality and urgency of the data
Communicate and coordinate the data breach response and notification with the relevant stakeholders, such as the data owners, the customers, the regulators, and the media
Enhance the data protection and security measures to prevent or mitigate future data compromise incidents
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 174-1751
An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Review the risk identification process.
Inform the risk scenario owners.
Create a risk awareness communication plan.
Update the risk register.
The best course of action when an audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile is to review the risk identification process. This is because the risk identification process is the first step in the risk management process and it is responsible for identifying and assessing the potential risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. If the risk identification process is not effective, it may result in incomplete, inaccurate, or outdated risk profiles that do not reflect the current environment and the associated risks. Therefore, reviewing the risk identification process will help to ensure that the risk profile is updated and aligned with the changes in the environment and the organization’s strategy. References = Responding to Audit Findings
A risk practitioner recently discovered that sensitive data from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following i the BEST recommendation to address this situation?
Enable data encryption in the test environment
Implement equivalent security in the test environment.
Prevent the use of production data for test purposes
Mask data before being transferred to the test environment.
 Masking data before being transferred to the test environment is the best recommendation to address the situation where sensitive data from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data elements with realistic but fictitious data, preserving the format, structure, and meaning of the original data. Data masking ensures that the test data is sufficiently anonymized and de-identified, while still maintaining its functionality and validity for testing purposes. Data masking also reduces the risk of data leakage, exposure, or breach in the test environment, which may have lower security controls than the production environment. The other options are not the best recommendations, as they do not adequately protect the sensitive data or meet the testing requirements. Enabling data encryption in the test environment may protect the data from unauthorized access, but it does not prevent the data from being decrypted by authorized users who may misuse or mishandle it. Implementing equivalent security in the test environment may be costly, complex, or impractical, and it may not be feasible to replicate the same level of security controls as in the production environment. Preventing the use of production data for test purposes may not be possible or desirable, as production data may be required to ensure the accuracy, reliability, and quality of the testing results. References = P = NP: Cloud data protection in vulnerable non-production environments …; Data masking secures sensitive data in non-production environments …; CRISC EXAM TOPIC 2 LONG Flashcards | Quizlet
The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) method of risk analysis:
helps in calculating the expected cost of controls
uses qualitative risk rankings such as low. medium and high.
can be used m a cost-benefit analysts
can be used to determine the indirect business impact.
The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) method of risk analysis is a quantitative method that estimates the expected monetary loss that can result from a risk over a one year period. The ALE is calculated by multiplying the single loss expectancy (SLE), which is the monetary loss from a single occurrence of a risk, by the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO), which is the frequency of the risk occurring in a year. The ALE can be used in a cost-benefit analysis to compare the cost of implementing a control or a risk response with the expected benefit of reducing the loss. The ALE can help to justify the investment in risk management and to prioritize the risks based on their financial impact. The other options are not accurate descriptions of the ALE method of risk analysis, as they involve different aspects or methods of risk analysis. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.2.1, pp. 60-61.
Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?
Risk appetite and tolerance
Risk framework and methodology
Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
Risk communication plan
The most important factor for senior management to review during an acquisition is the risk appetite and tolerance of the target organization. The risk appetite and tolerance reflect the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. By reviewing the risk appetite and tolerance of the target organization, senior management can determine if they are compatible with their own, and if the acquisition will create any significant risk exposure or opportunity for the acquiring organization. Risk framework and methodology, key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds, and risk communication plan are other factors that may be reviewed, but they are not as important as the risk appetite and tolerance. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
A control owner identifies that the organization's shared drive contains personally identifiable information (Pll) that can be accessed by all personnel. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk response?
Protect sensitive information with access controls.
Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) solution.
Re-communicate the data protection policy.
Implement a data encryption solution.
Personally identifiable information (PII) is any information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc1. PII is subject to various laws and regulations that aim to protect the privacy and security of individuals’ data1. Organizations that collect, store, process, or transmit PII have a responsibility to safeguard it from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction1.
One of the best practices for protecting PII is to implement access controls, which are mechanisms that restrict access to PII based on the principle of least privilege2. Access controls ensure that only authorized personnel who have a legitimate need to access PII can do so, and that they can only perform the actions that are necessary for their roles and responsibilities2. Access controls can be implemented at different levels, such as network, system, application, or data level, and can use various methods, such as passwords, tokens, biometrics, encryption, etc2.
If an organization’s shared drive contains PII that can be accessed by all personnel, this poses a high risk of data breach, theft, loss, or misuse, which could result in legal, financial, reputational, or operational consequences for the organization and the individuals whose data is compromised3. Therefore, the most effective risk response is to protect the sensitive information with access controls, such as:
Classify the PII according to its sensitivity and impact level, and assign appropriate labels and permissions to the data files and folders2.
Restrict access to the shared drive to only those personnel who have a valid business reason to access the PII, and grant them the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks2.
Implement strong authentication and authorization mechanisms, such as multifactor authentication, role-based access control, or attribute-based access control, to verify the identity and privileges of the users who access the shared drive2.
Encrypt the PII stored on the shared drive, and use secure protocols and channels to transmit the data over the network2.
Monitor and audit the access and activities on the shared drive, and generate logs and reports to detect and respond to any unauthorized or anomalous events2.
The other options are not as effective as access controls, because they do not directly address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of access restrictions on the shared drive. Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, which is a tool that monitors and prevents the leakage of sensitive data, may help to detect and block some unauthorized data transfers, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or viewing of the PII on the shared drive4. Re-communicating the data protection policy, which is a document that defines the rules and responsibilities for handling PII, may help to raise awareness and compliance among the personnel, but it does not enforce or verify the actual implementation of the policy. Implementing a data encryption solution, which is a technique that transforms the PII into an unreadable format, may help to protect the confidentiality of the data, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or modification of the data, and it may introduce additional complexity and overhead to the data management process.
References = Guide to Protecting the Confidentiality of Personally Identifiable Information (PII), Best Practices for Protecting PII, How to Secure Personally Identifiable Information against Loss or Compromise, Data Loss Prevention (DLP) | Microsoft 365 security, [Protecting Personal Information: A Guide for Business], [Encryption - Wikipedia]
Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?
Cable lock
Acceptable use policy
Data encryption
Asset tag with GPS
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, a cable lock is a physical security device that attaches a laptop to a fixed object, such as a desk or a wall, to prevent unauthorized removal or theft. A cable lock is the best option to reduce the probability of laptop theft, as it acts as a deterrent and a barrier for potential thieves. A cable lock also helps to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data stored on the laptop, as well as the laptop itself. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 253.
Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?
Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).
Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).
Interview the risk owner.
Conduct a gap analysis
The best way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization is to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. KRIs can help to monitor the changes in risk levels over time, identify emerging risks, and trigger risk response actions when the risk exceeds the acceptable thresholds2. KRIs can also help to align the risk management strategy with the business objectives and context. The other options are not the best ways to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization, as they do not provide the same level of insight and guidance as KRIs. Monitoring key performance indicators (KPIs) may show the results or outcomes of the business processes, but not the risks or uncertainties that affect them. Interviewing the risk owner may provide some subjective or qualitative information on the risk perception or attitude, but not the objective or quantitative data on the risk exposure or impact. Conducting a gap analysis may show the difference between the current and desired state of the organization, but not the causes or sources of the risk. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide
A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?
Notify executive management.
Analyze the impact to the organization.
Update the IT risk register.
Design IT risk mitigation plans.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, impact analysis is the process of estimating and evaluating the potential effects of a risk event on the organization’s objectives, processes, resources, and risks. Impact analysis helps to quantify and qualify the severity and likelihood of the risk, and to identify the possible consequences and implications for the organization. Impact analysis is the first step that should be done when a risk practitioner learns about a new threat, as it helps to assess the current level of risk exposure and the urgency of the risk response. Impact analysis also helps to communicate and report the risk to the relevant stakeholders, and to facilitate risk-based decision making and action planning. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 208.
An organization has initiated a project to implement an IT risk management program for the first time. The BEST time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when:
identifying risk scenarios.
determining the risk strategy.
calculating impact and likelihood.
completing the controls catalog.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the risk register is a tool that records the results of risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment. The risk register should be populated as soon as possible in the risk management process, to capture and document the risks and their attributes. The best time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when identifying risk scenarios, as this is the first step in the risk identification process. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the potential causes, impacts, and responses of a risk event. Identifying risk scenarios helps to generate a comprehensive and relevant list of risks that can be recorded in the risk register. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 191, 206.
An organization has engaged a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. This is an example of risk:
mitigation.
avoidance.
transfer.
acceptance.
Risk transfer is a risk response strategy that involves shifting the responsibility or burden of a risk to another party, such as a third party, an insurance company, or a joint venture. Risk transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the exposure or impact of the risk to the enterprise. An example of risk transfer is engaging a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. By doing so, the organization transfers the risk of data breach or loss to the third party, who is responsible for ensuring the security and availability of the data. The other options are not examples of risk transfer, as they involve different risk response strategies:
Risk mitigation is a risk response strategy that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk to an acceptable level, such as by implementing controls, policies, or procedures.
Risk avoidance is a risk response strategy that involves eliminating the risk by not performing the activity that generates the risk, such as by discontinuing a product or service, or not entering a market.
Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging the risk and taking no action to address it, such as by tolerating the risk, exploiting the risk, or sharing the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1.1, pp. 107-108.
When presenting risk, the BEST method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization's risk appetite is through the use of a:
risk map
cause-and-effect diagram
maturity model
technology strategy plan.
A risk map is the best method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization’s risk appetite, as it is a graphical tool that displays the level and priority of risks based on their likelihood and impact, as well as other factors such as velocity, persistence, and urgency. A risk map can help to compare and communicate the risk levels across different business units, processes, and projects, and to align them with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. A risk map can also help to identify the gaps and overlaps in risk management, and to support the decision making and resource allocation for risk response. A cause-and-effect diagram is a tool that helps to identify and analyze the root causes and consequences of a risk or a problem, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. A maturity model is a tool that helps to assess and improve the capability and performance of a process or a function, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. A technology strategy plan is a document that outlines the vision, goals, and objectives of the organization’s use of information and technology, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 97.
Whose risk tolerance matters MOST when making a risk decision?
Customers who would be affected by a breach
Auditors, regulators and standards organizations
The business process owner of the exposed assets
The information security manager
Whose risk tolerance matters most when making a risk decision depends on the context and the perspective of the decision-maker. However, in general, the business process owner of the exposed assets is the most important stakeholder to consider, as they are accountable for the risks and the outcomes of the risk decisions. The business process owner has the authority, responsibility, and knowledge to manage the risks that affect their business objectives, performance, and reputation. The business process owner also has the best understanding of the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and how to align the risk decisions with the organizational strategy and context. The other options are not the most important stakeholders to consider, although they may have some influence or interest in the risk decisions. Customers who would be affected by a breach are external stakeholders who may have different risk preferences and expectations than the organization, and who may not be fully aware of the risk exposure or mitigation options. Auditors, regulators, and standards organizations are also external stakeholders who may impose some requirements or constraints on the risk decisions, but who may not have the same level of involvement or impact as the business process owner. The information security manager is an internal stakeholder who may provide some technical expertise or guidance on the risk decisions, but who may not have the same level of authority or accountability as the business process owner. References = Risk Appetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference?; Principles of risk decision-making; Risk Tolerance - Overview, Factors, and Types of Tolerance; Five Factors to Consider When Establishing Risk Tolerance; Risk Tolerance - Overview, Factors, and Types of Tolerance
An organization has decided to implement an emerging technology and incorporate the new capabilities into its strategic business plan. Business operations for the technology will be outsourced. What will be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY role during the change?
Managing third-party risk
Developing risk scenarios
Managing the threat landscape
Updating risk appetite
The risk practitioner’s primary role during the change is to manage the third-party risk, as this involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks associated with outsourcing the business operations for the emerging technology. The risk practitioner should ensure that the third-party provider has the necessary capabilities, security, and compliance to deliver the expected outcomes and meet the contractual obligations. The risk practitioner should also monitor the performance and service levels of the third-party provider and report any issues or incidents. Developing risk scenarios, managing the threat landscape, and updating risk appetite are all important activities for the risk practitioner, but they are not the primary role during the change. Developing risk scenarios is a technique for identifying and analyzing potential risk events and their impacts. Managing the threat landscape is a process of identifying and responding to the external and internal threats that may affect the organization. Updating risk appetite is a decision that reflects the organization’s willingness to accept or avoid risk in pursuit of its objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 48.
A bank has outsourced its statement printing function to an external service provider. Which of the following is the MOST critical requirement to include in the contract?
Monitoring of service costs
Provision of internal audit reports
Notification of sub-contracting arrangements
Confidentiality of customer data
The MOST critical requirement to include in the contract is the confidentiality of customer data, because it is a legal and ethical obligation of the bank to protect the privacy and security of its customers’ personal and financial information. Outsourcing the statement printing function to an external service provider exposes the customer data to potential unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse by the service provider or its sub-contractors. Therefore, the contract should specify the terms and conditions for the handling, storage, and disposal of the customer data, as well as the penalties for any breach of confidentiality. The other options are not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, because:
Option A: Monitoring of service costs is an important requirement to ensure that the service provider delivers the statement printing function within the agreed budget and scope, but it is not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which has legal and reputational implications for the bank.
Option B: Provision of internal audit reports is a useful requirement to verify that the service provider complies with the internal and external standards and regulations for the statement printing function, but it is not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which is a core value of the bank and its customers.
Option C: Notification of sub-contracting arrangements is a relevant requirement to ensure that the service provider does not delegate the statement printing function to another party without the bank’s consent and oversight, but it is not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which is the primary responsibility of the bank and its service provider. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 197.
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness?
Establishing policies and procedures
Periodically reviewing control design
Measuring trends in control performance
Obtaining management control attestations
The best way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness is to measure trends in control performance. This will help to monitor and evaluate how well the controls are achieving their objectives, and to identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate control failures or weaknesses. Measuring trends in control performance also helps to provide feedback and assurance to the stakeholders and decision makers, and to support continuous improvement and optimization of the control environment. Establishing policies and procedures, periodically reviewing control design, and obtaining management control attestations are good practices, but they are not the best way to ensure control effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.2, page 1071
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 650.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment?
Obtaining funding support
Defining the risk assessment scope
Selecting the risk assessment framework
Establishing inherent risk
An IT risk assessment is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the IT-related risks and their potential impacts on the organization’s objectives and performance1. Identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment is the process of determining and engaging the persons or entities that have an interest or influence in the IT risk management, such as the IT users, owners, managers, or providers2. The primary benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment is to define the risk assessment scope, which is the boundary or extent of the IT risk assessment, such as the IT systems, processes, or functions that are included or excluded from the assessment3. By identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment, the organization can ensure that the risk assessment scope is relevant, realistic, and aligned with the organization’s strategy, vision, and mission, and that it reflects the current and emerging IT risks and their potential consequences. Identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment can also help to establish and communicate the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders, and to enforce the accountability and performance of the IT risk management. Obtaining funding support, selecting the risk assessment framework, and establishing inherent risk are not the primary benefits of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment, as they do not provide the same level of insight and relevance as defining the risk assessment scope. Obtaining funding support is the process of securing and providing the necessary funds or resources that are required to support or enable the IT risk assessment4. Obtaining funding support can enhance the quality and performance of the IT risk assessment, but it is not the primary benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment, as it does not determine or influence the boundary or extent of the IT risk assessment. Selecting the risk assessment framework is the process of choosing or developing a set of principles, methods, and tools that guide and facilitate the IT risk assessment5. Selecting the risk assessment framework can improve the reliability and consistency of the IT risk assessment, but it is not the primary benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment, as it does not define or affect the scope or coverage of the IT risk assessment. Establishing inherent risk is the process of assessing the level of risk that exists before any controls or mitigating factors are considered. Establishing inherent risk can help to understand and prioritize the IT risks and their impacts, but it is not the primary benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment, as it does not specify or limit the scope or range of the IT risk assessment. References = 1: IT Risk Assessment - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2: Stakeholder Requirements - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3: Risk Assessment Scope - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics4: Funding Support - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics5: Risk Assessment Framework - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics : [Inherent Risk - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.2: Risk Analysis, pp. 67-69.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Evaluation, pp. 77-79.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response, Section 3.1: Risk Response Options, pp. 113-115.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Key Risk Indicators, pp. 181-185.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.]
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis?
To enhance compliance with standards
To minimize subjectivity of assessments
To increase consensus among peers
To provide assessments for benchmarking
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, peer reviews are the process of evaluating the quality and validity of risk analysis by independent experts or colleagues. Peer reviews are conducted to ensure that the risk analysis is consistent, objective, and reliable, and that it follows the established standards and methods. The primary reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis is to minimize subjectivity of assessments, as peer reviews can help to reduce personal biases, preferences, and assumptions that may affect the risk analysis outcomes. Peer reviews can also help to identify and correct any errors, gaps, or inconsistencies in the risk analysis, and to improve the risk analysis skills and knowledge of the reviewers and the reviewees. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 209.
Which of the following statements in an organization's current risk profile report is cause for further action by senior management?
Key performance indicator (KPI) trend data is incomplete.
New key risk indicators (KRIs) have been established.
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are outside of targets.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are lagging.
A risk profile report is a document that summarizes the current status and trends of the risks that an organization faces, as well as the actions taken or planned to manage them1. A risk profile report is a useful tool for senior management to monitor and oversee the organization’s risk management performance and to make informed decisions and adjustments as needed2. One of the key components of a risk profile report is the key performance indicators (KPIs), which are metrics used to measure and evaluate the achievement of the organization’s objectives and strategies3. KPIs are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and they have specific targets or benchmarks that indicate the desired level of performance4. Therefore, if the KPIs are outside of targets, it means that the organization is not meeting its objectives and strategies, and that there may be gaps or issues in the risk management process or the risk response actions. This is a cause for further action by senior management, as they need to investigate the root causes of the deviation, assess the impact and implications of the underperformance, and take corrective or preventive measures to improve the situation and bring the KPIs back to the targets. Incomplete KPI trend data, new KRIs, and lagging KRIs are not the most critical statements in a risk profile report that require further action by senior management, as they do not directly indicate a failure or a problem in the risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Incomplete KPI trend data means that there is missing or insufficient information on the historical or projected changes in the KPIs over time. This may affect the accuracy and reliability of the risk profile report, but it does not necessarily mean that the KPIs are outside of targets or that the objectives and strategies are not met. Senior management may need to request or obtain the complete KPI trend data, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. New KRIs means that there are additional or revised metrics used to measure and monitor the level of risk associated with a particular process, activity, or system within the organization. This may reflect the changes or updates in the risk environment, the risk appetite and tolerance, or the risk assessment methodology. However, new KRIs do not directly indicate a failure or a problem in the risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Senior management may need to review and approve the new KRIs, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. Lagging KRIs means that there are metrics that measure and monitor the level of risk after a risk event has occurred or a risk response has been implemented. This may provide useful feedback and lessons learned for the risk management process, but it does not directly indicate a failure or a problem in the risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Senior management may need to analyze and evaluate the lagging KRIs, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.3: Risk Reporting, pp. 201-205.
An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?
After user acceptance testing (UAT)
Upon release to production
During backlog scheduling
When reviewing functional requirements
The application risk profile should be updated when reviewing functional requirements. This will help to identify and assess the potential risks that may arise from the changes to the application, and to plan and implement appropriate risk responses. Updating the application risk profile at this stage will also help to ensure that the changes are aligned with the organization’s objectives, policies, and standards, and that they meet the stakeholders’ expectations and needs. Updating the application risk profile after user acceptance testing, upon release to production, or during backlog scheduling are not the best points to update the risk profile, as they may be too late or too early to capture the relevant risks and their impacts. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 511
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 655.
Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?
Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management
Review of internal audit and third-party reports
Management review and sign-off on system documentation
First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation
 First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation is the best way to confirm the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls because it provides the most reliable and persuasive evidence. Direct observation involves inspecting the physical and logical aspects of the controls, such as the hardware, software, network, data, procedures, and personnel involved in the information systems. Direct observation also allows the auditor to verify that the controls are functioning as intended, and to identify any deviations or weaknesses that may affect the reliability of the information systems. Direct observation can be performed by using various techniques, such as walkthroughs, inquiries, inspections, reperformance, and analytical procedures1. References = Auditing Standard No. 13, The Auditor’s Responses to the Risks of Material Misstatement, PCAOB, 2010
The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:
determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.
identify critical business functions and resources.
define roles and responsibilities for implementation.
identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.
A business continuity plan (BCP) is a system of prevention and recovery from potential threats to a company. The plan ensures that personnel and assets are protected and are able to function quickly in the event of a disaster1. The first task when developing a BCP should be to identify critical business functions and resources, because this will help to determine the scope, objectives, and priorities of the plan. Critical business functions and resources are those that are essential for the continuity of the company’s operations, and that would cause significant disruption or damage if they were interrupted or lost. By identifying critical business functions and resources, the company can focus its efforts and resources on protecting and restoring them, and minimizing the impact of a disaster. The other options are not the first task when developing a BCP, because they depend on the identification of critical business functions and resources, as explained below:
A. Determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site is a task that relates to the recovery strategy of the BCP, which aims to restore the data and information systems that support the critical business functions and resources. However, this task cannot be performed without first identifying which data and information systems are critical, and what level of availability and recovery they require.
C. Define roles and responsibilities for implementation is a task that relates to the organization and governance of the BCP, which aims to assign and communicate the duties and expectations of the personnel involved in the plan. However, this task cannot be performed without first identifying which personnel are critical, and what functions and resources they are responsible for.
D. Identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications is a task that relates to the analysis and evaluation of the BCP, which aims to measure the acceptable downtime and recovery speed of the critical business functions and resources. However, this task cannot be performed without first identifying which business applications are critical, and what impact and likelihood they have. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 115. What Is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP), and How Does It Work?, Business continuity plan (BCP) in 8 steps, with templates | BDC.ca, How Develop a Business Continuity Plan - Invenio IT, Business Continuity Planning | Ready.gov, Develop a Robust Business Continuity Plan | Wrike
A maturity model will BEST indicate:
confidentiality and integrity.
effectiveness and efficiency.
availability and reliability.
certification and accreditation.
According to Wikipedia1, a maturity model is a framework for measuring an organization’s maturity, or that of a business function within an organization, with maturity being defined as a measurement of the ability of an organization for continuous improvement in a particular discipline. A maturity model will best indicate the effectiveness and efficiency of an organization or a business function, as it helps to evaluate how well they achieve their intended objectives with minimum resources, time, and cost. A maturity model also helps to identify and prioritize the areas and opportunities for improvement, and to establish and communicate the standards and best practices for the discipline. References = Wikipedia1
A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.
Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.
Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.
Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action is to review the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, because this will help to evaluate the suitability, effectiveness, and reliability of the model as a control measure. A machine learning model is a type of artificial intelligence that can learn from data and make predictions or decisions based on the data. A machine learning model can be used to automate or enhance the access management process, such as by identifying excessive access privileges, detecting unauthorized access, or recommending access rights. However, a machine learning model also introduces new risks and challenges, such as data quality, model accuracy, model bias, model explainability, model security, and model governance. Therefore, the risk practitioner should review the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, which are the specific goals or outcomes that the control is intended to achieve. The control objectives can be derived from the IT risk management strategy, the IT governance framework, the IT policies and standards, and the regulatory requirements. The review of the machine learning model should cover the following aspects: - The data sources and inputs: The risk practitioner should verify that the data used to train and test the machine learning model is relevant, complete, accurate, consistent, and representative of the access management process and the access rights. The risk practitioner should also check that the data is collected, stored, processed, and transmitted in a secure and compliant manner, and that the data privacy and confidentiality are protected. - The model algorithms and outputs: The risk practitioner should validate that the model algorithms are appropriate, robust, and transparent for the access management process and the control objectives. The risk practitioner should also evaluate that the model outputs are accurate, reliable, and interpretable, and that they provide meaningful and actionable insights or recommendations for the access management process and the control objectives. - The model performance and monitoring: The risk practitioner should measure and monitor the model performance and effectiveness against the control objectives and the predefined metrics and indicators. The risk practitioner should also ensure that the model is updated and maintained regularly to reflect the changes in the access management process and the access rights, and that the model is audited and reviewed periodically to ensure its compliance and quality. By reviewing the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, the risk practitioner can ensure that the model is fit for purpose and adds value to the access management process and the control objectives. The risk practitioner can also identify and mitigate any potential risks or issues that may arise from the use of the machine learning model as a control measure. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3: Control Design and Implementation, pp. 124-1271, Manage roles in your workspace - Azure Machine Learning2, Dataset Inference: Ownership Resolution in Machine Learning3
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?
An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.
Controls are not applied to the applications.
There is a lack of technology recovery options.
The applications are not captured in the risk profile.
The GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs is:
B. Controls are not applied to the applications.
When end users create their own applications, there is often a lack of formal controls that would typically be applied in a structured development environment. This can lead to issues with data integrity, security vulnerabilities, and non-compliance with organizational policies and standards.
The BEST way to test the operational effectiveness of a data backup procedure is to:
conduct an audit of files stored offsite.
interview employees to compare actual with expected procedures.
inspect a selection of audit trails and backup logs.
demonstrate a successful recovery from backup files.
The best way to test the operational effectiveness of a data backup procedure is to perform a complete restoration of every file to a clean system and verify that there has not been any data corruption or loss. This will ensure that the backup procedure can successfully recover the data in the event of a disaster or incident. The other options are not sufficient to test the operational effectiveness of a data backup procedure, as they do not involve actually restoring the data and verifying its integrity and usability. References = How to review and test backup procedures to ensure data restoration; HOW TO TEST DATA BACKUPS: A BRIEF GUIDE; How to Test a Database Backup
Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?
The scenarios are based on past incidents.
The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.
The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.
The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.
 Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe potential events or actions that could affect the achievement of enterprise objectives. The design of relevant risk scenarios should consider the following factors: the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise, the key risk indicators and risk drivers, the potential impact and likelihood of the scenarios, and the alignment with the risk management capabilities of the enterprise. The scenarios should be realistic, plausible, and consistent with the enterprise’s context and objectives. The scenarios should also be reviewed and updated periodically to reflect changes in the internal and external environment. The alignment with the risk management capabilities is the most critical factor, as it ensures that the scenarios are relevant for the decision making and risk response processes of the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.2, pp. 67-69.
An organization is unable to implement a multi-factor authentication requirement until the next fiscal year due to budget constraints. Consequently, a policy exception must be submitted. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the analysis of the exception?
Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement
Risk associated with the inability to implement the requirement
Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year
Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control
The most important factor to include in the analysis of the policy exception is the risk associated with the inability to implement the multi-factor authentication requirement. A policy exception is a temporary or permanent deviation from the established policies or standards of the organization, due to various reasons, such as budget constraints, technical limitations, or business needs. A policy exception must be submitted and approved by the appropriate authority, and it must include a clear and comprehensive analysis of the rationale, impact, and mitigation of the exception. The risk associated with the inability to implement the multi-factor authentication requirement is the most important factor to include in the analysis, because it evaluates the probability and severity of potential threats or incidents that could exploit the lack of multi-factor authentication, such as unauthorized access, data breach, or identity theft. The risk analysis also helps to justify the need and urgency of the policy exception, and to propose alternative or compensating controls to reduce or transfer the risk, such as password policies, access restrictions, or encryption. The other options are not the most important factor, although they may be relevant or supportive to the policy exception analysis. Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement are the clauses or provisions in the policy that allow or enable the policy exception, such as exemptions, waivers, or variances. These sections can help to validate the legitimacy and feasibility of the policy exception, but they do not assess the risk or the impact of the exception. Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year is the explanation and evidence of the financial resources and constraints that affect the implementation of the multi-factor authentication requirement. This justification can help to demonstrate the cost-benefit and return on investment of the requirement, but it does not measure the risk or the mitigation of the exception. Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control are the proven methods and standards that are adopted by the leading organizations in a specific field or sector for implementing the multi-factor authentication requirement. These best practices can help to benchmark and improve the quality and effectiveness of the requirement, but they do not quantify the risk or the impact of the exception. References = Policy Exception Management - ISACA, Multi-Factor Authentication Policy - University of Arkansas, Common Conditional Access policy: Require MFA for all users
A PRIMARY function of the risk register is to provide supporting information for the development of an organization's risk:
strategy.
profile.
process.
map.
 A primary function of the risk register is to provide supporting information for the development of an organization’s risk profile, which is a comprehensive and structured representation of the risks that the organization faces. The risk profile helps the organization to understand its risk exposure, appetite, and tolerance, and to align its risk management strategy with its business objectives and context. The risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, owners, and status. The risk register is an essential input for creating and updating the risk profile, as it provides the data and analysis of the risks that need to be prioritized and addressed. The other options are not the primary function of the risk register, although they may be related to it. The risk strategy is the plan and approach for managing the risks, and it is based on the risk profile. The risk process is the set of activities and tasks for identifying, assessing, responding, and monitoring the risks, and it is facilitated by the risk register. The risk map is a graphical tool for displaying the risks based on their impact and likelihood, and it is derived from the risk register. References = Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana; Purpose of a risk register: Here’s what a risk register is used for; Risk Register: Definition, Importance, and Elements! - Bit Blog; What is a Risk Register? A Complete Guide | Capterra; Risk Registers: What Are They, When Should You Use Them, and Why?
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase of the project management life cycle?
To deliver projects on time and on budget
To assess inherent risk
To include project risk in the enterprise-wide IT risk profit.
To assess risk throughout the project
The most important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase of the project management life cycle is to assess inherent risk. Inherent risk is the risk that exists before any controls or mitigations are applied. By assessing inherent risk in the initiation phase, the project team can identify the potential sources, causes, and impacts of risk that may affect the project objectives, scope, and deliverables. Assessing inherent risk in the initiation phase also helps to prioritize the risks, determine the risk appetite and tolerance, and plan the risk responses. Delivering projects on time and on budget, including project risk in the enterprise-wide IT risk profile, and assessing risk throughout the project are important objectives of risk management, but they are not the most important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 511
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 658.
Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?
Monitoring of high-risk areas
Classification of risk profiles
Periodic review of the risk register
Assignment of risk ownership
 A risk profile is a summary of the key risks that affect an organization, a business unit, a process, or a project. A risk profile can help stakeholders understand the current and potential exposure to various sources of uncertainty, and prioritize the risk response accordingly. Classification of risk profiles is the process of grouping and categorizing risks based on common characteristics, such as source, impact, likelihood, or response strategy. Classification of risk profiles can help communicate risk assessment results to stakeholders by providing a clear and consistent way of presenting and comparing risks across different domains, levels, or perspectives. Classification of risk profiles can also help identify patterns, trends, and interrelationships among risks, and facilitate the allocation of resources and responsibilities for risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Risk Profile, p. 193-195.
It is MOST important to the effectiveness of an IT risk management function that the associated processes are:
aligned to an industry-accepted framework.
reviewed and approved by senior management.
periodically assessed against regulatory requirements.
updated and monitored on a continuous basis.
The effectiveness of an IT risk management function depends on how well it can identify, analyze, evaluate, and treat the IT-related risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and performance. To achieve this, the IT risk management function needs to have processes that are updated and monitored on a continuous basis, so that they can capture the changes in the IT environment, the business context, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the regulatory requirements. Updating and monitoring the IT risk management processes also helps to ensure that they are consistent, reliable, and efficient, and that they provide timely and accurate information for decision making and reporting12. Aligning the IT risk management processes to an industry-accepted framework is important, but not the most important factor for the effectiveness of the function. A framework provides a common language, structure, and methodology for IT risk management, but it does not guarantee that the processes are updated and monitored on a continuous basis. A framework also needs to be customized and adapted to the specific needs and context of the organization3. Reviewing and approving the IT risk management processes by senior management is important, but not the most important factor for the effectiveness of the function. Senior management support and endorsement are essential for establishing the tone and culture of IT risk management, as well as for allocating the necessary resources and authority for the function. However, senior management review and approval alone do not ensure that the processes are updated and monitored on a continuous basis. Senior management also need to oversee and evaluate the performance and outcomes of the IT risk management function4. Periodically assessing the IT risk management processes against regulatory requirements is important, but not the most important factor for the effectiveness of the function. Regulatory compliance is one of the objectives and drivers of IT risk management, and it requires the function to adhere to the applicable laws, rules, and standards. However, regulatory requirements are not the only source of IT risk, and they may not cover all the aspects and dimensions of IT risk management. Moreover, periodic assessment may not be sufficient to capture the dynamic and evolving nature of IT risk. Therefore, the IT risk management processes need to be updated and monitored on a continuous basis, not only to meet the regulatory requirements, but also to address the other sources and impacts of IT risk5. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.1: Risk Response Process, pp. 121-123.
Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?
Management intervention
Risk appetite
Board commentary
Escalation triggers
The best answer is D. Escalation triggers. Escalation triggers are predefined thresholds or conditions that indicate when a key risk indicator (KRI) has reached a critical level that requires immediate attention or action. Escalation triggers can be based on quantitative or qualitative measures, such as percentages, scores, ratings, or colors. Escalation triggers can help to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk, because they provide clear and timely signals that alert the risk owners, managers, and other stakeholders of the need to review and revise the risk response plan, or to implement additional or alternative controls. Escalation triggers can also help to communicate and report the risk status and the risk response actions to the senior management and the board, and to obtain their support and approval, if needed. The other options are not the best answer, although they may be related or influential to the KRI and the risk mitigation. Management intervention is a part of the risk response process, which involves the actions and decisions taken by the management to address the risk, such as approving, implementing, or monitoring the controls. Management intervention can help to mitigate risk, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a consequence or a result of the escalation triggers. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite can help to define and align the KRI and the escalation triggers with the organizational strategy and culture, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a factor or a driver of the KRI. Board commentary is a part of the risk reporting process, which involves the feedback and guidance provided by the board on the risk management process and performance. Board commentary can help to improve and enhance the KRI and the risk mitigation, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a source or a resource of the KRI. References = Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture, KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva
The purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to:
ensure that the source code is valid and exists.
ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist.
review the source code for adequacy of controls.
ensure the source code is available when bugs occur.
 According to the How Important Is Source Code Escrow - ISACA article, the purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist. Source code escrow is the deposit of the source code of software with a third-party escrow agent, who releases it to the licensee only if certain conditions are met, such as the bankruptcy, merger, or acquisition of the licensor. This arrangement protects the licensee from losing access to the software support and maintenance, and allows them to continue using and modifying the software as needed. Therefore, the answer is B. ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist. References = How Important Is Source Code Escrow - ISACA
Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the effectiveness of an organization's IT risk mitigation efforts?
Assigning identification dates for risk scenarios in the risk register
Updating impact assessments for risk scenario
Verifying whether risk action plans have been completed
Reviewing key risk indicators (KRIS)
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information about the level of exposure to a specific risk or a group of risks.
Reviewing KRIs is the most helpful way to determine the effectiveness of an organization’s IT risk mitigation efforts. This means that the organization monitors and evaluates the actual results and outcomes of the risk responses, compares them with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, identifies any deviations or breaches that may require attention or action, and reports them to the appropriate parties for decision making or improvement actions.
The other options are not the most helpful ways to determine the effectiveness of an organization’s IT risk mitigation efforts. They are either secondary or not essential for risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 15
Information Technology & Security, page 9
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 7
Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?
Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.
Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.
Identify the risk appetite of the organization.
Assess the goals and culture of the organization.
According to the Guide to Implementing an IT Risk Management Framework, the first activity that should be performed when establishing IT risk management processes is to assess the goals and culture of the organization. This is because the goals and culture of the organization define the context and scope of the IT risk management process, and influence the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. By assessing the goals and culture of the organization, the IT risk manager can align the IT risk management process with the organization’s strategy, vision, mission, values, and objectives. The IT risk manager can also identify the key stakeholders, roles, and responsibilities involved in the IT risk management process, and ensure that they have the necessary skills, knowledge, and resources to perform their tasks effectively. Additionally, the IT risk manager can establish the communication and reporting mechanisms for the IT risk management process, and ensure that they are consistent with the organization’s culture and expectations. References = Guide to Implementing an IT Risk Management Framework, An Overview of the Risk Management Process
An organization's financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?
IT risk manager
IT system owner
Information security manager
Business owner
 According to the Data Roles and Responsibilities article, the business owner is the person who has authority over the business process that is supported by the data. The business owner is responsible for defining the access roles to protect the sensitive data within the application, as well as approving the access requests and ensuring the compliance with the data policies and standards. The business owner may delegate this responsibility to a data steward, who is a person who acts on behalf of the business owner to manage the data quality, security, and usage. Therefore, the answer is D. Business owner. References = Data Roles and Responsibilities
Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?
An annual contract review
A service level agreement (SLA)
A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework
A requirement to provide an independent audit report
A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a SaaS vendor and a customer that defines the quality and availability of the SaaS service, as well as the responsibilities and obligations of both parties. An SLA is most important to include in a SaaS vendor agreement because it sets the expectations and standards for the SaaS service, provides a mechanism for measuring and monitoring the service performance, and establishes the remedies and penalties for service failures or breaches. An SLA can also help to mitigate the risks and liabilities associated with SaaS delivery, such as data security, privacy, compliance, and disaster recovery. The other options are not the most important to include in a SaaS vendor agreement, although they may be beneficial or desirable depending on the context and nature of the SaaS service. An annual contract review is a process of evaluating and revising the SaaS vendor agreement to reflect the changing needs and circumstances of the customer and the vendor, but it is not a mandatory or essential element of the agreement. A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework is a way of ensuring that the SaaS vendor follows the best practices and standards for identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks related to the SaaS service, but it is not a specific or measurable term of the agreement. A requirement to provide an independent audit report is a way of verifying and validating the SaaS vendor’s compliance with the SLA and other contractual obligations, but it is not a direct or primary component of the agreement. References = SaaS Agreements: Key Contractual Provisions, SaaS Agreement: Everything You Need to Know, Essential checklist for SaaS agreement negotiations, Key Clauses To Understand and Evaluate in SaaS Contracts, SaaS Reseller Agreement: Everything You Need to Know
An organization is planning to acquire a new financial system. Which of the following stakeholders would provide the MOST relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution?
Project sponsor
Process owner
Risk manager
Internal auditor
The process owner is the stakeholder who is responsible for the business process that will be supported by the new IT solution. The process owner has the best knowledge of the business requirements, objectives, and risks associated with the process. The process owner can provide the most relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution, such as the expected benefits, costs, performance, functionality, security, and compliance of the solution. The process owner can also help to identify and evaluate the potential impact and likelihood of the risk scenarios related to the new IT solution. The other stakeholders may have some information or insights, but they are not as directly involved or affected by the new IT solution as the process owner. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1.1, pp. 58-59.
During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?
Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.
Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.
Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.
Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment
A new risk scenario without controls means that there is a potential threat or event that could adversely affect the organization’s objectives, and there are no existing measures to prevent or reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment, so that the risk practitioner can analyze the risk, evaluate its severity and priority, and recommend suitable controls to mitigate the risk. By including the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment, the risk practitioner can ensure that the risk register is updated and reflects the current risk profile of the organization. The other options are not appropriate because they either ignore the new risk scenario, delay the risk assessment process, or remove valuable information from the risk register. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 95.
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs)?
The KRIs' source data lacks integrity.
The KRIs are not automated.
The KRIs are not quantitative.
The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis.
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs) is that the KRIs’ source data lacks integrity, as this means that the data is inaccurate, incomplete, inconsistent, or outdated, and therefore cannot provide reliable and valid information on the risk level and performance. The KRIs are metrics that measure and monitor the changes in the risk exposure and the effectiveness of the risk response over time. The KRIs’ source data should be collected and verified from credible and relevant sources, and should be updated and maintained regularly. The KRIs’ source data should also be aligned and integrated with the enterprise’s data governance and quality standards. The other options are not the greatest concerns for a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs), although they may pose some challenges or limitations. The KRIs are not automated is a concern for the efficiency and timeliness of the KRI reporting and analysis, but it does not affect the integrity of the KRI source data. The KRIs are not quantitative is a concern for the objectivity and comparability of the KRI measurement and prioritization, but it does not affect the integrity of the KRI source data. The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis is a concern for the usefulness and relevance of the KRI communication and decision making, but it does not affect the integrity of the KRI source data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 183.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY recipient of reports showing the
progress of a current IT risk mitigation project?
Senior management
Project manager
Project sponsor
IT risk manager
A project sponsor is the person or group who provides the financial, political, or organizational support for a project, and who has the authority to approve or reject the project’s objectives, scope, budget, schedule, and deliverables.
The primary recipient of reports showing the progress of a current IT risk mitigation project should be the project sponsor, because they are ultimately responsible for the success or failure of the project, and they need to be informed of the project’s status, issues, risks, and achievements on a regular basis.
The other options are not the primary recipients of reports showing the progress of a current IT risk mitigation project. They are either secondary or not essential for project reporting.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 21
Information Technology & Security, page 15
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 13
The PRIMARY purpose of vulnerability assessments is to:
provide clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure.
determine the impact of potential threats.
test intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures.
detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise.
 The primary purpose of vulnerability assessments is to detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise. A vulnerability assessment is a systematic review of security weaknesses in an information system. It evaluates if the system is susceptible to any known vulnerabilities, assigns severity levels to those vulnerabilities, and recommends remediation or mitigation, if and whenever needed1. By identifying and prioritizing the vulnerabilities, a vulnerability assessment helps to prevent or reduce the risk of cyberattacks that could exploit the vulnerabilities and compromise the system. The other options are not the primary purpose, but they may be secondary or tertiary outcomes or benefits of a vulnerability assessment. Providing clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure is a result of a successful vulnerability assessment and remediation process, but it is not the main objective. Determining the impact of potential threats is a part of the risk assessment process, which complements the vulnerability assessment process, but it is not the same as detecting the vulnerabilities. Testing intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures is a part of the penetration testing process, which simulates a real-world attack on the system to evaluate its security posture, but it is not the same as scanning the system for vulnerabilities. References = What is Vulnerability Assessment | VA Tools and Best Practices - Imperva
A large organization is replacing its enterprise resource planning (ERP) system and has decided not to deploy the payroll module of the new system. Instead, the current payroll system will continue to be
used. Of the following, who should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected?
The business owner
The ERP administrator
The project steering committee
The IT project manager
The business owner should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected, because the business owner is ultimately responsible for the business processes and objectives that depend on the systems. The other options are not the risk owners, because:
Option B: The ERP administrator is responsible for the technical aspects of the ERP system, but not the payroll system or the business outcomes.
Option C: The project steering committee is responsible for overseeing the project of replacing the ERP system, but not the ongoing operation and maintenance of the systems or the business risks.
Option D: The IT project manager is responsible for managing the project of replacing the ERP system, but not the payroll system or the business risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 90.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to integrate business risk management with IT operations?
Perform periodic IT control self-assessments.
Require a risk assessment with change requests.
Provide security awareness training.
Perform periodic risk assessments.
Requiring a risk assessment with change requests is the most effective way to integrate business risk management with IT operations because it ensures that any changes to the IT environment are aligned with the business objectives and risk appetite. A risk assessment with change requests involves identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the potential risks that may arise from the proposed changes, as well as monitoring and reviewing the outcomes of the changes. This way, the IT operations can support the business goals and mitigate the IT risks in a proactive and consistent manner. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.2: Change Management, pp. 121-1231
An identified high probability risk scenario involving a critical, proprietary business function has an annualized cost of control higher than the annual loss expectancy. Which of the following is the BEST risk response?
Mitigate
Accept
Transfer
Avoid
The best risk response for an identified high probability risk scenario involving a critical, proprietary business function with an annualized cost of control higher than the annual loss expectancy is to accept the risk. Accepting the risk means acknowledging the risk but choosing not to take any specific action to address it. This strategy is suitable when the cost of implementing controls exceeds the potential loss, as in this scenario. The organization recognizes the risk, but the cost-benefit analysis suggests that the potential loss is acceptable given the higher cost of control. The other options are not the best risk responses, as they may not be feasible, practical, or cost-effective in this scenario. Mitigating the risk means reducing the risk by implementing controls or measures to minimize its potential impact, but this would increase the cost of control, which is already higher than the annual loss expectancy. Transferring the risk means shifting the risk to another party, typically through insurance or contracts, but this may not be possible or advisable for a critical, proprietary business function, and it may also increase the overall cost burden. Avoiding the risk means eliminating the risk entirely by not engaging in the activity that poses the risk, but this may disrupt essential business operations and potentially result in other adverse consequences. References = CRISC Exam: Best Risk Response for High Probability Risk Scenario; Risk Response Plan in Project Management: Key Strategies & Tips; Chapter 19: Summarizing Risk Management Concepts
A new regulator/ requirement imposes severe fines for data leakage involving customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). The risk practitioner has recommended avoiding the risk. Which of the following actions would BEST align with this recommendation?
Reduce retention periods for Pll data.
Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site.
Modify business processes to stop collecting Pll.
Implement strong encryption for Pll.
Avoiding the risk means eliminating the source of the risk or changing the likelihood or impact to zero. In this case, the source of the risk is the collection of customers’ personally identifiable information (Pll), which could be exposed to unauthorized parties and result in severe fines. Therefore, the best action to avoid the risk is to modify the business processes to stop collecting Pll, as this would eliminate the possibility of data leakage and the associated consequences. The other options are not as effective as modifying the business processes, because they do not avoid the risk, but rather mitigate or transfer the risk, as explained below:
A. Reduce retention periods for Pll data is a mitigation action, as it reduces the impact of the risk by minimizing the amount of data that could be leaked and the duration of exposure.
B. Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site is a transfer action, as it shifts the responsibility of protecting the data to a third party, but does not eliminate the risk of data leakage.
D. Implement strong encryption for Pll is a mitigation action, as it reduces the likelihood of the risk by making the data unreadable to unauthorized parties, but does not eliminate the risk of data leakage. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 40.
A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT step?
Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.
Update the risk register with the results.
Prepare a business case for the response options.
Identify resources for implementing responses.
The next step for the risk practitioner after identifying risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios is to update the risk register with the results. The risk register is a document that records the details of the risks, such as their sources, causes, consequences, likelihood, impact, and responses. By updating the risk register with the results of the risk workshop, the risk practitioner can ensure that the risk information is current, accurate, and complete, and that the risk owners and responses are clearly defined and communicated. Developing a mechanism for monitoring residual risk, preparing a business case for the response options, and identifying resources for implementing responses are possible steps that may follow the updating of the risk register, but they are not the next step. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing risk responses?
The impact of the risk
The replacement cost of the business asset
The cost of risk mitigation controls
The classification of the business asset
The primary basis for prioritizing risk responses is the impact of the risk. The impact of the risk is the consequence or effect of the risk on the organization’s objectives or operations, such as financial loss, reputational damage, operational disruption, or legal liability. The impact of the risk is one of the key dimensions of risk analysis, along with the likelihood of the risk. The impact of the risk helps to determine the severity and priority of the risk, and to select the most appropriate and effective risk response. The impact of the risk also helps to evaluate the cost-benefit and trade-off of the risk response, and to measure the residual risk and the risk performance. The other options are not the primary basis for prioritizing risk responses, although they may be considered or influenced by the impact of the risk. The replacement cost of the business asset, the cost of risk mitigation controls, and the classification of the business asset are all factors that could affect the value or importance of the business asset, but they do not necessarily reflect the impact of the risk on the business asset or the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-25.
During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company's risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?
Risk management framework adopted by each company
Risk registers of both companies
IT balanced scorecard of each company
Most recent internal audit findings from both companies
The most useful input to the parent company’s risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase is the risk registers of both companies. The risk register is a document that records the details of the risks, such as their sources, causes, consequences, likelihood, impact, and responses. By reviewing the risk registers of both companies, the risk practitioner can identify the existing and potential risks that may affect the post-acquisition integration, performance, and value. The risk management framework, the IT balanced scorecard, and the most recent internal audit findings are other possible inputs, but they are not as useful as the risk registers. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors
Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting
Frequency and number of new software releases
Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime
Number of IT support staff available after business hours
Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing model that provides software applications over the internet, without requiring the users to install or maintain them on their own devices. SaaS vendors are responsible for hosting, managing, and updating the software applications, and providing technical support and security to the users. The key performance indicator (KPI) that would best measure the risk of a service outage when using a SaaS vendor is the frequency and duration of unplanned downtime, which is the amount and length of time that the software applications are unavailable or inaccessible due to unexpected events, such as network failures, server crashes, power outages, cyberattacks, etc. The frequency and duration of unplanned downtime indicate the reliability and availability of the SaaS vendor, and the potential impact of the service outage on the users’ business operations and productivity. References = 3
Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?
Technical event
Threat event
Vulnerability event
Loss event
The result of a realized risk scenario is a loss event. A loss event is an occurrence that causes harm or damage to the organization’s assets, resources, or reputation. A loss event is also known as an incident or a breach. A loss event is the outcome of a risk scenario, which is a description of a possible situation or event that could affect the organization’s objectives or operations. A risk scenario consists of three elements: a threat, a vulnerability, and an impact. A threat is a potential source of harm or damage. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw that could be exploited by a threat. An impact is the consequence or effect of a threat exploiting a vulnerability. A risk scenario is realized when a threat exploits a vulnerability and causes an impact, which results in a loss event. The other options are not the result of a realized risk scenario, although they may be part of a risk scenario. A technical event, a threat event, and a vulnerability event are all types of events that could occur in a risk scenario, but they are not the final outcome or result of a risk scenario. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
An organization wants to grant remote access to a system containing sensitive data to an overseas third party. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to management?
Transborder data transfer restrictions
Differences in regional standards
Lack of monitoring over vendor activities
Lack of after-hours incident management support
Granting remote access to a system containing sensitive data to an overseas third party poses various risks to the organization, such as data breaches, unauthorized access, data loss, compliance violations, or reputational damage. The greatest concern to management when granting remote access to a third party is the lack of monitoring over vendor activities, meaning that the organization may not be able to control or verify how the third party is accessing, using, storing, or transferring the sensitive data. The lack of monitoring over vendor activities can increase the risk exposure and uncertainty of the organization, as well as reduce the accountability and transparency of the third party. Therefore, the organization should implement appropriate measures to monitor and audit the vendor activities, such as logging, reporting, reviewing, or testing, and to ensure that the vendor complies with the contractual obligations and the security policies and standards of the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2.1, p. 243-244
Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?
Organizational structure and job descriptions
Risk appetite and risk tolerance
Industry best practices for risk management
Prior year's risk assessment results
The best way to enable a risk practitioner to understand management’s approach to organizational risk is to know the risk appetite and risk tolerance of the organization. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to pursue, retain, or take in order to achieve its objectives. Risk tolerance is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in relation to specific performance measures, such as availability, reliability, or security. Risk appetite and risk tolerance reflect the management’s attitude, preferences, and expectations towards risk, and guide the risk management process, such as risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring. The other options are not as effective as knowing the risk appetite and risk tolerance, although they may provide some input or context for understanding the management’s approach to organizational risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-8.
An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?
Decrease in the time to move changes to production
Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes
Ratio of system changes to total changes
Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan
 The ratio of emergency fixes to total changes is the best metric to determine if the change management program is performing as expected, because it reflects the quality and stability of the changes that are implemented in the production environment. A high ratio of emergency fixes to total changes indicates that the change management program is not effective, as it means that many changes are causing problems or failures that require urgent correction. A low ratio of emergency fixes to total changes indicates that the change management program is effective, as it means that most changes are well-planned, tested, and approved, and do not cause significant disruptions or defects. The ratio of emergency fixes to total changes can also help identify the root causes of the problems, the gaps in the change management process, and the areas for improvement. For example, if the ratio of emergency fixes to total changes is high, it may indicate that the change management program has issues with the following aspects: - Change request and approval: The change management program may not have a clear and consistent process for requesting, reviewing, and approving changes, or the process may not be followed by all stakeholders. - Change impact analysis: The change management program may not have a comprehensive and systematic method for assessing the potential impact of the changes on the business processes, the IT systems, the users, and the customers. - Change testing and validation: The change management program may not have adequate testing and validation procedures to ensure that the changes meet the requirements and specifications, and do not introduce errors or vulnerabilities. - Change communication and training: The change management program may not have effective communication and training strategies to inform and educate the affected parties about the changes and their implications. - Change implementation and monitoring: The change management program may not have proper implementation and monitoring plans or tools to ensure that the changes are executed smoothly and successfully, and that any issues or incidents are detected and resolved promptly. Therefore, the ratio of emergency fixes to total changes is the best metric to determine if the change management program is performing as expected, as it can provide valuable feedback and insights for the change management program and its improvement. References = How to Measure Change Management Effectiveness: Metrics, Tools & Processes1, Metrics for Measuring Change Management2, Driving Value with Change Management Metrics3, Must-Know Organizational Change Management Metrics
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?
Enroll the employee in additional security training.
Invoke the incident response plan.
Conduct an internal audit.
Instruct the vendor to delete the data.
The best recommendation for a risk practitioner upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor is to invoke the incident response plan. An incident response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for detecting, analyzing, containing, eradicating, recovering, and reporting on security incidents that could affect the organization’s IT systems or data. An incident response plan helps to protect and restore the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization’s information assets, and to comply with the relevant laws, regulations, standards, and contracts. Invoking the incident response plan is the best recommendation, because it helps to respond to and mitigate the security incident, and to minimize the damage and impact of the data disclosure. Invoking the incident response plan also helps to communicate and coordinate the incident response actions and strategies with the internal and external stakeholders, such as the data owners, users, custodians, and regulators, and to report and disclose the incident as required. The other options are not as effective as invoking the incident response plan, although they may be part of or derived from the incident response plan. Enrolling the employee in additional security training, conducting an internal audit, and instructing the vendor to delete the data are all examples of corrective or preventive actions, which may help to prevent or deter the recurrence of the data disclosure, or to verify or validate the data security, but they do not necessarily address or resolve the current security incident. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 5-32.
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine software license compliance?
List non-compliant systems in the risk register.
Conduct periodic compliance reviews.
Review whistleblower reports of noncompliance.
Monitor user software download activity.
 According to the 6 Best Practices to Ensure Software License Compliance article, the best way to determine software license compliance is to conduct regular internal compliance audits. These self-assessments can be done with the help of software license management companies. The goal is to see where compliance issues lie and to take corrective actions before they become serious problems. Periodic compliance reviews can help to avoid fines, penalties, lawsuits, and reputational damage that may result from software license violations. They can also help to optimize software spending and utilization, and to identify any gaps or opportunities for improvement in the software license management process. References = 6 Best Practices to Ensure Software License Compliance
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?
Using an aggregated view of organizational risk
Ensuring relevance to organizational goals
Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including
Trend analysis of risk metrics
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the most important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management is ensuring relevance to organizational goals, as this helps to align risk management with business strategy and performance. The risk management updates should:
Highlight the key risks that may affect the achievement of the organizational goals and objectives
Demonstrate the value and benefits of risk management in supporting decision making and enhancing business resilience
Provide clear and concise information on the current risk profile, risk appetite, risk tolerance and risk exposure of the organization
Recommend appropriate risk response actions and resource allocation to address the identified risks
Communicate the roles and responsibilities of executive management in overseeing and governing risk management
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: IT Risk Reporting, pp. 221-2221
The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?
Perform a root cause analysis
Perform a code review
Implement version control software.
Implement training on coding best practices
A root cause analysis is a process of identifying and understanding the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in a problem or incident that has occurred or may occur in the organization. A root cause analysis can provide useful insights and solutions on the origin and nature of the problem or incident, and prevent or reduce its recurrence or impact.
Performing a root cause analysis is the risk practitioner’s best recommendation when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because it can help the organization to address the following questions:
Why did the application code require rework?
What were the errors or defects in the application code?
How did the errors or defects affect the functionality or usability of the application?
Who was responsible or accountable for the application code development and testing?
When and how were the errors or defects detected and reported?
What were the costs or consequences of the rework for the organization and its stakeholders?
How can the errors or defects be prevented or minimized in the future?
Performing a root cause analysis can help the organization to improve and optimize the application code quality and performance, and to reduce or eliminate the need for rework. It can also help the organization to align the application code development and testing with the organization’s objectives and requirements, and to comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the risk practitioner’s best recommendations when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of performing a root cause analysis, which is to identify and understand the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in the problem or incident.
Performing a code review is a process of examining and evaluating the application code for its quality, functionality, and security, using the input and feedback from the peers, experts, or tools. Performing a code review can help the organization to identify and resolve the errors or defects in the application code, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
Implementing version control software is a process of using a software tool to manage and track the changes and modifications to the application code, and to ensure the consistency and integrity of the application code. Implementing version control software can help the organization to control and monitor the application code development and testing, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
Implementing training on coding best practices is a process of providing and facilitating the learning and development of the skills and knowledge on the principles, guidelines, and standards for the application code development and testing. Implementing training on coding best practices can help the organization to enhance the competence and performance of the application code developers and testers, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 189
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?
The risk practitioner
The business process owner
The risk owner
The control owner
After a risk has been identified, the risk owner is in the best position to select the appropriate risk treatment option. The risk owner is the person or entity with the accountability and authority to manage a risk1. The risk owner is responsible for evaluating the risk, choosing the most suitable risk treatment option, implementing the risk treatment plan, and monitoring and reviewing the risk and its treatment2. The risk owner has the most knowledge and stake in the risk and its impact on the objectives and activities of the organization. The other options are not the best choices for selecting the risk treatment option, as they do not have the same level of accountability and authority as the risk owner. The risk practitioner is the person or entity with the knowledge and skills to perform the risk management activities1. The risk practitioner can assist the risk owner in identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risk, but the final decision and responsibility lies with the risk owner. The business process owner is the person or entity with the accountability and authority to manage a business process3. The business process owner may be affected by the risk or involved in the risk treatment, but the risk owner is the one who has the overall responsibility for the risk. The control owner is the person or entity with the accountability and authority to ensure that the controls are properly designed, implemented, and operated4. The control owner can provide input and feedback on the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, but the risk owner is the one who decides which controls are needed and how they are applied. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.3, Page 51.
Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program?
Reviewing control objectives
Aligning with industry best practices
Consulting risk owners
Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite
The best way to facilitate the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program is to evaluate KPIs in accordance with risk appetite. KPIs are metrics that measure the performance and effectiveness of the risk management program, and help monitor and report on the achievement of the risk objectives and outcomes. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite helps to identify the appropriate KPIs, because it helps to align the KPIs with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and to ensure that the KPIs reflect the organization’s risk tolerance and threshold. Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite also helps to communicate and coordinate the KPIs with the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, and business units, and to facilitate the risk decision-making and reporting processes. The other options are not as effective as evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite, although they may be part of or derived from the KPI identification process. Reviewing control objectives, aligning with industry best practices, and consulting risk owners are all activities that can help to define or refine the KPIs, but they are not the best way to facilitate the identification of appropriate KPIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.5.1, page 4-38.
Which of the following is the BEST way to detect zero-day malware on an end user's workstation?
An antivirus program
Database activity monitoring
Firewall log monitoring
File integrity monitoring
Zero-day malware is malware that exploits unknown and unprotected vulnerabilities. This novel malware is difficult to detect and defend against, making zero-day attacks a significant threat to enterprise cybersecurity1. The best way to detect zero-day malware on an end user’s workstation is to use file integrity monitoring, which is a technique that monitors and alerts on changes to files and directories that may indicate a malware infection or compromise2. By using file integrity monitoring, the end user can detect zero-day malware that may alter or damage the files or directories on their workstation, and take appropriate actions to remove or isolate the malware. File integrity monitoring can also help to prevent the spread of zero-day malware to other systems or networks, and to restore the integrity and availability of the affected files or directories. Antivirus program, database activity monitoring, and firewall log monitoring are not the best ways to detect zero-day malware on an end user’s workstation, as they are not as effective or reliable as file integrity monitoring. Antivirus program is a software that scans and removes known malware from a system or network3. Antivirus program can help to protect the end user’s workstation from common or known malware, but it may not be able to detect zero-day malware that does not have a signature or a pattern that matches the antivirus program’s database. Database activity monitoring is a technique that monitors and audits the activities and transactions on a database, such as queries, updates, or deletions4. Database activity monitoring can help to protect the end user’s database from unauthorized or malicious access or modification, but it may not be able to detect zero-day malware that does not target or affect the database. Firewall log monitoring is a technique that monitors and analyzes the logs generated by a firewall, which is a device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall log monitoring can help to protect the end user’s workstation from external or internal network attacks, but it may not be able to detect zero-day malware that bypasses or evades the firewall rules or that originates from the workstation itself. References = 1: What is Zero Day Malware? - Check Point Software2: File Integrity Monitoring - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3: Antivirus Software - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics4: Database Activity Monitoring - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics : [Firewall Log Analysis - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.] : [Zero-day attack detection: a systematic literature review | Artificial Intelligence Review] : [Zero-day Attacks Detection and Prevention Methods | Apriorit]Â
Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?
Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management
Review of internal audit and third-party reports
Management review and sign-off on system documentation
First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation
First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation is the best way to confirm the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls because it provides the auditor with the most reliable and persuasive evidence. Direct observation involves inspecting the physical and logical aspects of the controls, such as the hardware, software, network, data, procedures, and personnel involved in the information systems. Direct observation also allows the auditor to verify that the controls are functioning as intended, and to identify any deviations or weaknesses that may affect the reliability of the information systems. Direct observation can be performed by using various techniques, such as walkthroughs, inquiries, inspections, reperformance, and analytical procedures1. References = Auditing Standard No. 13, The Auditor’s Responses to the Risks of Material Misstatement, PCAOB, 20101
Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:
using the same scales in assessing risk
utilizing industry benchmarks
using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems
including primarily low-level risk factors
Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when using the same scales in assessing risk, because it can help to ensure the consistency and comparability of the risk assessment results across different units, levels, and domains of the organization. Using the same scales in assessing risk can also help to avoid the potential errors or biases that may arise from using different scales, such as overestimating or underestimating the risk exposure, or misaligning the risk appetite and tolerance. The other options are not as important as using the same scales in assessing risk, because:
Option B: Utilizing industry benchmarks is a good way to improve the quality and validity of the risk assessment results, but it does not ensure the success of the risk aggregation, which is the process of combining and consolidating the risk assessment results into a holistic and comprehensive view of the risk profile and exposure of the organization.
Option C: Using reliable qualitative data for risk items is a useful way to capture and describe the risk items, which are the sources and causes of the risks, but it does not ensure the success of the risk aggregation, which is the process of quantifying and measuring the risk items, and their likelihood and impact on the business objectives and processes.
Option D: Including primarily low-level risk factors is a necessary way to identify and assess the risk factors, which are the characteristics and attributes of the risks, but it does not ensure the success of the risk aggregation, which is the process of prioritizing and ranking the risk factors, and their significance and relevance to the organization’s strategy and goals. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 105.
Which of the following will BEST support management repotting on risk?
Risk policy requirements
A risk register
Control self-assessment
Key performance Indicators
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics that measure the achievement of objectives and the effectiveness of processes. KPIs can help management report on risk by providing quantitative and qualitative information on the risk profile, the risk appetite, the risk response, and the risk outcomes. KPIs can also help monitor and communicate the progress and results of risk management activities, such as risk identification, assessment, mitigation, and reporting. KPIs can be aligned with the strategic, operational, and tactical goals of the organization, and can be tailored to the specific needs and expectations of different stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Risk Indicators and Key Performance Indicators, p. 197-199.
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?
Perform a gap analysis
Conduct system testing
Implement compensating controls
Update security policies
 Performing a gap analysis is the best recommendation for a risk practitioner upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization. A gap analysis can help identify the current state of compliance, the desired state of compliance, and the actions needed to achieve compliance. Conducting system testing, implementing compensating controls, and updating security policies are possible actions that may result from the gap analysis, but they are not the best initial recommendation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 1; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 143.
A risk practitioner observed Vial a high number of pokey exceptions were approved by senior management. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action to determine root cause?
Review the risk profile
Review pokey change history
interview the control owner
Perform control testing
The best course of action to determine the root cause of the high number of policy exceptions approved by senior management is to interview the control owner. The control owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for designing, implementing, and monitoring the controls that enforce the policy. The control owner can provide insight into the reasons, circumstances, and impacts of the policy exceptions, and the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls. The control owner can also suggest possible improvements or alternatives to the policy or the controls. The other options are not as useful as interviewing the control owner, as they are related to the review, analysis, or testing of the policy or the controls, not the investigation or understanding of the policy exceptions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?
Use production data in a non-production environment
Use masked data in a non-production environment
Use test data in a production environment
Use anonymized data in a non-production environment
 Using anonymized data in a non-production environment is the best approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality. Anonymized data is data that has been stripped of any personally identifiable information (PII) or other sensitive data, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc. Anonymized data protects the privacy and security of the data, while still preserving the structure and format of the original data. Using anonymized data in a non-production environment allows the organization to test the application functionality without risking data breaches or violating regulations. Using production data, masked data, or test data in either production or non-production environments are not as optimal as using anonymized data, because they may introduce errors, inconsistencies, or vulnerabilities in the data or the application. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?
KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.
KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.
KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization
KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.
The main benefit of using key risk indicators (KRIs) for an organization is that they provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached. KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. KRIs also help to trigger timely and appropriate risk responses, before the risk becomes unmanageable or unacceptable. The other options are not the main benefit of using KRIs, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-36.
When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:
Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.
Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.
Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.
Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios
 The most important step when developing risk scenarios using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices is to validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance. The generic risk scenarios may not be applicable or suitable for the specific context, objectives, and environment of the organization. Therefore, the risk practitioner should validate the relevance of the generic risk scenarios by comparing them with the organization’s risk profile, risk appetite, and risk criteria. Assessing generic risk scenarios with business users, selecting the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list, and identifying common threats causing generic risk scenarios are other steps that may be useful, but they are not as important as validating the relevance of the generic risk scenarios. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Understanding and prioritization of critical processes
Completion of the business continuity plan (BCP)
Identification of regulatory consequences
Reduction of security and business continuity threats
 The most important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA) is understanding and prioritization of critical processes. A BIA is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of disruptions or disasters on the organization’s business functions and processes. A BIA helps to understand the dependencies, interrelationships, and impacts of the business processes, and to prioritize them based on their importance and urgency. A BIA also helps to determine the recovery objectives, strategies, and resources for the business processes, such as the recovery time objective (RTO), the recovery point objective (RPO), and the minimum operating requirements (MOR). The other options are not as important as understanding and prioritization of critical processes, although they may be part of or derived from the BIA. Completion of the business continuity plan (BCP), identification of regulatory consequences, and reduction of security and business continuity threats are all activities or outcomes that can be supported or facilitated by the BIA, but they are not the primary purpose or result of the BIA. References = CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 5-9.
Which of the following is MOST helpful to understand the consequences of an IT risk event?
Fault tree analysis
Historical trend analysis
Root cause analysis
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that involves analyzing the potential consequences of an IT risk event on the organization’s critical business functions and processes. BIA can help to understand the severity and duration of the disruption, the financial and operational losses, the recovery time objectives, and the recovery point objectives. BIA can also help to prioritize the recovery activities and resources, as well as to determine the acceptable level of risk and the risk mitigation strategies. BIA is the most helpful tool to understand the consequences of an IT risk event, as it provides a comprehensive and quantitative assessment of the impact and the recovery requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.2, p. 206-207
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments?
To provide input to the organization's risk appetite
To monitor the vendor's control effectiveness
To verify the vendor's ongoing financial viability
To assess the vendor's risk mitigation plans
The primary reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments is to monitor the vendor’s control effectiveness. A vendor risk assessment is a process of evaluating the risks associated with outsourcing a service or function to a third-party vendor. The assessment should be performed periodically to ensure that the vendor is complying with the contractual obligations, service level agreements, and security standards, and that the vendor’s controls are operating effectively to mitigate the risks. Providing input to the organization’s risk appetite, verifying the vendor’s ongoing financial viability, and assessing the vendor’s risk mitigation plans are other possible reasons, but they are not as important as monitoring the vendor’s control effectiveness. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is MOST important to ensure the report includes
risk exposure in business terms
a detailed view of individual risk exposures
a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization.
recommendations by an independent risk assessor.
When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is most important to ensure the report includes risk exposure in business terms. Risk exposure is the potential loss or harm that may result from a risk event. Expressing risk exposure in business terms can help senior management to understand the impact and significance of the risk on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value. A detailed view of individual risk exposures, a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization, and recommendations by an independent risk assessor are other possible contents of the report, but they are not as important as risk exposure in business terms. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:
review alignment with the organizations strategy.
understand the organization's information security policy.
validate the organization's data classification scheme.
report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.
 The most important thing to do when establishing an enterprise IT risk management program is to review the alignment with the organization’s strategy. The organization’s strategy is the plan or direction that the organization follows to achieve its vision, mission, and goals. The IT risk management program should be aligned with the organization’s strategy, so that it supports and enables the organization’s strategic objectives, and addresses the IT risks that could affect the organization’s performance and value. Reviewing the alignment with the organization’s strategy helps to ensure that the IT risk management program is relevant, effective, and consistent with the organization’s expectations and needs. The other options are not as important as reviewing the alignment with the organization’s strategy, although they may be useful or necessary steps or components of the IT risk management program. Understanding the organization’s information security policy, validating the organization’s data classification scheme, and reporting identified IT risk scenarios to senior management are all activities that can help to implement and improve the IT risk management program, but they are not the initial or primary thing to do. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-12.
Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control
The individual responsible for control operation
The individual informed of the control effectiveness
The individual responsible for resting the control
The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness
 A control is a measure or action that is implemented to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk event, or to enhance the benefits or opportunities of a risk event. A control owner is a person who is assigned the responsibility and authority for the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of a control. The most appropriate person to be assigned ownership of a control is the individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness, which is the process of measuring and evaluating the performance and compliance of the control. By assigning the control ownership to the individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness, the organization can ensure that the control is aligned with the risk objectives, operates as intended, and delivers the expected results. References = 4
An organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register. Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries?
The volume of risk scenarios is too large
Risk aggregation has not been completed
Risk scenarios are not applicable
The risk analysts for each scenario is incomplete
The greatest challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries when an organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register is that the risk scenarios are not applicable. Generic risk scenarios are risk scenarios that are based on common or typical situations that may affect many organizations or industries. They are useful for providing a general overview or reference of the potential risks, but they may not be relevant, specific, or realistic for a particular organization or context. Therefore, using generic risk scenarios may result in inaccurate, incomplete, or misleading risk entries that do not reflect the actual risk profile or appetite of the organization. The other options are not as challenging as the risk scenarios being not applicable, as they are related to the quantity, quality, or aggregation of the risk scenarios, not the suitability or validity of the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Scenarios, page 23.
Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?
Monthly trend of information security-related incidents
Average time to identify critical information security incidents
Frequency of information security incident response plan testing
Percentage of high-risk security incidents
 The average time to identify critical information security incidents is the best indicator of effective information security incident management, as it measures how quickly the organization can detect and respond to the most severe threats to its information assets. The faster the organization can identify critical incidents, the lower the potential impact and damage they can cause. The average time to identify critical incidents also reflects the efficiency and accuracy of the monitoring and reporting mechanisms, as well as the awareness and training of the staff and stakeholders. The other options are not the best indicators of effective information security incident management, as they do not directly measure the performance or quality of the incident response process. The monthly trend of information security-related incidents may show the frequency or severity of the incidents, but not how well they are managed. The frequency of information security incident response plan testing may show the preparedness or maturity of the organization, but not the actual effectiveness of the plan. The percentage of high-risk security incidents may show the risk exposure or appetite of the organization, but not the risk mitigation or treatment. References = 7 Types of Information Security Incidents and How to Respond; Annex A.16: Information Security Incident Management - ISMS.online; CISM Isaca Exam Questions and Answers - CertLibrary.com
Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge when assigning accountability for control ownership?
Weak governance structures
Senior management scrutiny
Complex regulatory environment
Unclear reporting relationships
Control ownership is the assignment of roles and responsibilities for the design, implementation, monitoring, and improvement of controls that mitigate risks. Control ownership can help ensure that the controls are effective, efficient, and aligned with the business objectives and risk appetite. Control ownership can also help facilitate the communication, coordination, and accountability among the stakeholders involved in the risk management process. One of the factors that would present the greatest challenge when assigning accountability for control ownership is unclear reporting relationships. Reporting relationships are the formal or informal lines of authority and communication that define who reports to whom, and who is accountable for what. Unclear reporting relationships can create confusion, ambiguity, and conflict among the control owners and other stakeholders, such as the risk owners, the business owners, the auditors, the regulators, etc. Unclear reporting relationships can also hinder the performance evaluation, feedback, and recognition of the control owners, and affect their motivation and commitment. Unclear reporting relationships can also increase the risk of duplication, inconsistency, or gaps in the control activities, and compromise the quality and reliability of the control environment. References = Defining, Assigning and Measuring: Accountability Challenges in 21st Century Governance, CRISC 351-400 topic3, Foundations of Project Management : Week 2.
A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?
Reviewing access control lists
Authorizing user access requests
Performing user access recertification
Terminating inactive user access
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, authorizing user access requests is the process of granting or denying access to IT resources based on the user’s role, responsibilities, and business needs. Authorizing user access requests is a key control accountability that should be retained within the organization, as it helps to ensure that the principle of least privilege is applied, and that the access rights are aligned with the organization’s policies, standards, and risk appetite. Authorizing user access requests also helps to prevent unauthorized access, data leakage, fraud, and other potential risks associated with user access provisioning and termination. Therefore, the best control accountability to retain within the organization when a third-party vendor offers to perform user access provisioning and termination is authorizing user access requests. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 240.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to business requirements?
Total cost to support the policy
Number of exceptions to the policy
Total cost of policy breaches
Number of inquiries regarding the policy
An IT policy is a document that defines the rules, standards, and procedures for the use, management, and security of IT resources within an organization. An IT policy should be aligned to the business requirements, which are the needs, expectations, and objectives of the business stakeholders, such as customers, employees, managers, partners, regulators, etc. An IT policy that is aligned to the business requirements can help support the business strategy, improve the business performance, and enhance the business value. A key performance indicator (KPI) is a metric that measures the achievement of a specific goal or objective. A KPI should be relevant, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-bound. The best KPI for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to the business requirements is the number of exceptions to the policy. An exception to the policy is a deviation or violation of the policy rules, standards, or procedures, which may be intentional or unintentional, authorized or unauthorized, justified or unjustified. The number of exceptions to the policy can indicate how well the policy is understood, communicated, implemented, and enforced within the organization. The number of exceptions to the policy can also indicate how well the policy reflects the current and future business needs and expectations, and how flexible and adaptable the policy is to the changing business environment. A low number of exceptions to the policy can suggest that the policy is well aligned to the business requirements, while a high number of exceptions to the policy can suggest that the policy is misaligned or outdated, and may need to be reviewed or revised. References = Key Performance Indicator (KPI): Definition, Types, and Examples, Business KPIs: 5 important characteristics to be effective, What is a KPI? How To Choose the Best KPIs for Your Business - HubSpot Blog.
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:
a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.
the likelihood of a given threat.
a function of the likelihood and impact.
the magnitude of an impact.
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as a function of the likelihood and impact, as it helps to measure and quantify the residual risk level and exposure. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls or risk treatments. Residual risk can be calculated by multiplying the likelihood and impact of a risk event, where likelihood is the probability or frequency of the risk event occurring, and impact is the consequence or severity of the risk event on the asset or objective. Residual risk can be expressed as:
ResidualRisk=Likelihood×Impact
Expressing the risk associated with an asset after controls are applied as a function of the likelihood and impact helps to provide the following benefits:
It enables a data-driven and evidence-based approach to risk assessment and reporting, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
It facilitates a consistent and standardized way of measuring and communicating risk levels and exposure across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
It supports the alignment of risk management and control activities with the organizational strategy and objectives, and helps to evaluate the achievement of the desired outcomes.
It helps to identify and prioritize the areas for improvement and enhancement of the risk management and control processes, and guide the development and implementation of corrective or preventive actions.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the risk management and control processes, and helps to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best ways to express the risk associated with an asset after controls are applied. A function of the cost and effectiveness of controls is a measure of the inputs or outputs of the risk management and control processes, but it does not indicate the risk level or exposure. The likelihood of a given threat is a component of the risk calculation, but it does not reflect the impact or consequence of the threat. The magnitude of an impact is a component of the risk calculation, but it does not reflect the likelihood or probability of the risk event. References = Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management - Video & Lesson …
Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk owner when making risk-aware decisions?
Risk exposure expressed in business terms
Recommendations for risk response options
Resource requirements for risk responses
List of business areas affected by the risk
Risk exposure is the potential loss or negative impact that may result from a risk. Expressing risk exposure in business terms means translating the technical or quantitative aspects of risk into meaningful and understandable information for the risk owner and other stakeholders. This can help the risk owner to make risk-aware decisions, as it can provide a clear and consistent basis for comparing and prioritizing risks, evaluating the cost-benefit of risk responses, and aligning the risk management strategy with the business objectives and value. The other options are not as helpful as risk exposure expressed in business terms, because they do not provide a comprehensive and relevant view of the risk, but rather focus on specific or partial aspects of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 45.
A control owner has completed a year-long project To strengthen existing controls. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:
update the risk register to reflect the correct level of residual risk.
ensure risk monitoring for the project is initiated.
conduct and document a business impact analysis (BIA).
verify cost-benefit of the new controls being implemented.
The risk practitioner should verify the cost-benefit of the new controls being implemented to ensure that they are aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and strategy, and that they provide value to the business. The other options are not as important as verifying the cost-benefit of the new controls, because:
Option A: Updating the risk register is a good practice, but it does not provide assurance that the new controls are effective and efficient.
Option B: Ensuring risk monitoring for the project is initiated is also a good practice, but it is not as urgent as verifying the cost-benefit of the new controls, which should be done before the project is closed.
Option C: Conducting and documenting a BIA is not relevant to the scenario, as the project is already completed and the new controls are implemented. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 184.
The PRIMARY goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to:
obtain the support of executive management.
map the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources.
identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services.
document the disaster recovery process.
The primary goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services. A BIA is a process of assessing the potential impact and consequences of a disruption or interruption of the business activities, operations, or functions. A continuity planning process is a process of developing, implementing, and maintaining a plan to ensure the continuity and recovery of the business activities, operations, or functions in the event of a disruption or interruption. The primary goal of conducting a BIA is to identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services, which are the business processes that are essential for the survival and success of the business, and the support services that are required to enable or facilitate the critical business processes, such as IT systems, human resources, facilities, or suppliers. Identifying critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services helps to determine the priorities and requirements for the continuity and recovery of the business activities, operations, or functions, and to select and implement the appropriate continuity and recovery strategies and solutions. Obtaining the support of executive management, mapping the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources, and documenting the disaster recovery process are not the primary goals of conducting a BIA, as they are either the benefits or the outputs of the BIA process, and they do not address the primary need of assessing the impact and consequences of the business disruption or interruption. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?
Monitoring risk responses
Applying risk treatments
Providing assurance of control effectiveness
Implementing internal controls
The primary risk management responsibility of the second line of defense is to monitor the risk responses. The second line of defense is the function that oversees and supports the risk management activities of the first line of defense, which is the function that owns and manages the risks. The second line of defense includes the risk management, compliance, and quality assurance functions, among others. The second line of defense is responsible for monitoring the risk responses, which are the actions taken to address the risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risks. The second line of defense monitors the risk responses to ensure that they are implemented effectively and efficiently, that they achieve the desired outcomes, and that they are aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The second line of defense also provides guidance, advice, and feedback to the first line of defense on the risk responses, and reports the results and issues to the senior management and the board. Applying risk treatments, providing assurance of control effectiveness, and implementing internal controls are not the primary risk management responsibilities of the second line of defense, as they are either the responsibilities of the first line of defense or the third line of defense, which is the function that provides independent assurance of the risk management activities, such as the internal audit function. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 36.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?
Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan
Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls
Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level
Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk
The primary focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk is to ensure that the control design reduces the risk to an acceptable level. This means that the risk owner should verify that the control objectives, specifications, and implementation are aligned with the risk mitigation plan, and that the control is effective in reducing the risk exposure to within the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. The risk owner should also ensure that the control design is consistent with the enterprise’s policies, standards, and procedures, and that it complies with any relevant laws, regulations, or contractual obligations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.4, page 185.
What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?
Flexibility and adaptability
Measurability and consistency
Robustness and resilience
Optimal cost and benefit
Measurability and consistency are the most essential attributes of an effective key control indicator (KCI), because they ensure that the KCI can be quantified, compared, and reported over time. A KCI should be able to measure the performance or effectiveness of a control in mitigating a risk and provide consistent results across different periods, sources, and methods. The other options are not the most essential attributes, although they may also be desirable for a KCI. Flexibility and adaptability are not the most essential attributes, because they may compromise the reliability and comparability of the KCI. Robustness and resilience are not the most essential attributes, because they are more relevant for the control itself, not the KCI. Optimal cost and benefit are not the most essential attributes, because they are more related to the value and feasibility of the KCI, not the quality and accuracy of the KCI. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers
Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of a data custodian in the risk management process?
Performing periodic data reviews according to policy
Reporting and escalating data breaches to senior management
Being accountable for control design
Ensuring data is protected according to the classification
 The primary role of a data custodian in the risk management process is to ensure that data is protected according to the classification. A data custodian is a person or entity that has the responsibility for implementing and maintaining the security controls for the data, such as access rights, encryption, backup, or disposal. A data custodian acts as an agent of the data owner, who is the person or entity that has the authority and accountability for the data. A data custodian should ensure that data is protected according to the classification, which is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity and criticality to the data, based on the impact of its loss, disclosure, or modification. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and risk responses for the data, and to comply with the relevant laws, regulations, or contractual obligations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 1271
The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:
have a better understanding of specific business needs
can balance the overall technical and business concerns
can see the overall impact to the business
are more objective than information security management.
 Continuity planning is the process of developing strategies and plans to ensure the continuity of critical business functions and processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. Continuity planning involves identifying the risks, impacts, and recovery options for various scenarios, as well as testing and updating the plans regularly. The primary advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they have a better understanding of specific business needs, such as the operational requirements, the customer expectations, and the dependencies and interdependencies of the business processes. End users can provide valuable input and feedback on the continuity plans, as well as participate in the testing and validation of the plans. End users can also help to ensure the alignment of the continuity plans with the business objectives and priorities, as well as the compliance with the relevant standards and regulations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, p. 204-205
To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should:
continuously monitor the environment.
develop key performance indicators (KPIs).
maintain a risk matrix.
maintain a risk register.
To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should continuously monitor the environment, as it can help to detect and respond to any changes or emerging risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and strategy. Continuous monitoring can also provide timely and relevant feedback and information to the decision-makers and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the risk strategy and response actions accordingly. Continuous monitoring can also help to ensure that the risk management process is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and supports the achievement of the organization’s goals and value creation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 243. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 243. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 243.
The PRIMARY objective of a risk identification process is to:
evaluate how risk conditions are managed.
determine threats and vulnerabilities.
estimate anticipated financial impact of risk conditions.
establish risk response options.
The primary objective of a risk identification process is to determine threats and vulnerabilities, which are the sources and causes of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. Threats are any events or circumstances that have the potential to harm or exploit the organization’s assets, such as people, information, systems, processes, or infrastructure1. Vulnerabilities are any weaknesses or gaps in the organization’s capabilities, controls, or defenses that may increase the likelihood or impact of the threats2. By determining threats and vulnerabilities, the organization can:
Identify and document all possible risks, regardless of whether they are internal or external, current or emerging, or positive or negative3.
Understand the nature and characteristics of the risks, such as their sources, causes, consequences, and interrelationships4.
Provide the basis for further risk analysis and evaluation, such as assessing the probability and severity of the risks, and prioritizing the risks according to their significance and urgency5.
References =
Threat - CIO Wiki
Vulnerability - CIO Wiki
Risk Identification - CIO Wiki
Risk Identification and Analysis - The National Academies Press
Risk Analysis - CIO Wiki
What should be the PRIMARY consideration related to data privacy protection when there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information?
Do not collect or retain data that is not needed.
Redact data where possible.
Limit access to the personal data.
Ensure all data is encrypted at rest and during transit.
Data privacy protection is the process of safeguarding the personal information of individuals from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. Personal information is any information that can be used to identify, locate, or contact an individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc. When there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information, the primary consideration related to data privacy protection is to do not collect or retain data that is not needed. This means that the organization should only collect the minimum amount of personal information that is necessary for the purpose of the business initiative, and should only retain the data for as long as it is required by law or business needs. By doing so, the organization can reduce the risk of data breaches, comply with the data protection regulations, respect the data subjects’ rights, and enhance the trust and reputation of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 159.
When is the BEST to identify risk associated with major project to determine a mitigation plan?
Project execution phase
Project initiation phase
Project closing phase
Project planning phase
 The best time to identify the risk associated with a major project to determine a mitigation plan is the project initiation phase. The project initiation phase is the first phase of the project management process, where the project is defined, authorized, and planned. The project initiation phase includes the activities of developing the project charter, identifying the stakeholders, and defining the scope and objectives of the project. The project initiation phase is the best time to identify the risk associated with the project, as it provides the opportunity to understand the project context, requirements, and expectations, and to establish the risk management framework, process, and plan. By identifying the risk early in the project, the mitigation plan can be integrated with the project plan, and the resources, budget, and schedule can be allocated accordingly. The other options are not as optimal as the project initiation phase, as they are related to the execution, closing, or planning of the project, not the definition or authorization of the project. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Management Process, page 15.
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure new IT policies address the enterprise's requirements?
involve IT leadership in the policy development process
Require business users to sign acknowledgment of the poises
involve business owners in the pokey development process
Provide policy owners with greater enforcement authority
To ensure that new IT policies address the enterprise’s requirements, it is important to involve the business owners who are the primary stakeholders of the IT services and processes. Business owners can provide valuable input on the business objectives, risks, and expectations that the IT policies should align with and support. By involving business owners in the policy development process, the IT policies will be more relevant, realistic, and acceptable to the business units. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Scenarios, page 23.
Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:
define recovery time objectives (RTOs).
define the information classification policy
conduct a sensitivity analyse
Identify information custodians
Before assigning sensitivity levels to information, it is most important to define the information classification policy. The information classification policy is a document that establishes the criteria, categories, roles, responsibilities, and procedures for classifying information according to its sensitivity, value, and criticality. The information classification policy provides the basis, guidance, and consistency for assigning sensitivity levels to information, and ensures that the information is protected and handled appropriately. The other options are not as important as defining the information classification policy, as they are related to the specific steps, activities, or outputs of the information classification process, not the overall structure and quality of the information classification process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
A zero-day vulnerability has been discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain
access to affected IT systems. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this situation?
Control effectiveness
Risk appetite
Risk likelihood
Key risk indicator (KRI)
The most likely factor to change as a result of a zero-day vulnerability being discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain access to affected IT systems is the risk likelihood. Risk likelihood is the probability or frequency of a risk event occurring, or the possibility of a risk event occurring within a given time period. Risk likelihood is one of the key dimensions of risk analysis, along with the risk impact. Risk likelihood helps to determine the severity and priority of the risk, and to select the most appropriate and effective risk response. Risk likelihood also helps to evaluate the cost-benefit and trade-off of the risk response, and to measure the residual risk and the risk performance. The risk likelihood is likely to change as a result of a zero-day vulnerability, because a zero-day vulnerability is a security flaw that has been discovered but not yet patched by the vendor, which means that it can be exploited by hackers before the affected systems can be updated or protected. A zero-day vulnerability increases the risk likelihood, because it creates a window of opportunity for hackers to launch attacks that could compromise the affected systems, and because it may not be detected or prevented by the existing security controls or measures. The other options are not as likely to change as the risk likelihood, although they may also be affected or influenced by the zero-day vulnerability. Control effectiveness, risk appetite, and key risk indicator (KRI) are all factors that could change as a result of a zero-day vulnerability, but they are not the most likely factor to change. Control effectiveness is the extent to which the risk controls or responses achieve the intended risk objectives or outcomes. Control effectiveness could change as a result of a zero-day vulnerability, because the existing controls may not be able to detect or prevent the exploitation of the vulnerability, or because new or additional controls may be needed to address the vulnerability. However, control effectiveness is not the most likely factor to change, because it depends on the type and level of the controls that are already in place or that can be implemented, and because it may not change until the vulnerability is actually exploited or the risk response is executed. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite could change as a result of a zero-day vulnerability, because the vulnerability could affect the organization’s objectives or operations, and because the organization may need to adjust its risk tolerance or threshold to cope with the vulnerability. However, risk appetite is not the most likely factor to change, because it is a strategic and long-term decision that is driven by the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and because it may not change until the vulnerability is resolved or the risk impact is realized. Key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that measures the likelihood and impact of risks, and helps monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. KRI could change as a result of a zero-day vulnerability, because the vulnerability could increase the likelihood and impact of the risks, and because the organization may need to update or revise its KRI to reflect the current risk situation. However, KRI is not the most likely factor to change, because it is a monitoring and reporting tool that is derived from the risk analysis and response, and because it may not change until the vulnerability is exploited or the risk response is implemented. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-25.
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk?
Prioritizing risk within each business unit
Reviewing risk ranking methodology
Promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness
Assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles
The best way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk is to assign risk ownership to appropriate roles. Risk ownership is the process of assigning the authority and responsibility to manage a specific risk or a group of related risks to a person or entity. Risk ownership helps to ensure adequate resources for managing risk, because it helps to define and clarify the roles and responsibilities of the risk owners, and to establish and enforce the expectations and standards for the risk owners. Risk ownership also helps to measure and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk owners, and to identify and address any issues or gaps in the risk management activities. The other options are not as effective as assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles, although they may be related to the risk management process. Prioritizing risk within each business unit, reviewing risk ranking methodology, and promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness are all activities that can help to support or improve the risk management process, but they do not necessarily ensure adequate resources for managing risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-11.
The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.
data logging and monitoring
data mining and analytics
data classification and labeling
data retention and destruction
The best way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for data retention and destruction. Data retention and destruction policies and procedures define the criteria, methods, and schedules for retaining and disposing of electronic data. They help to ensure that the electronic data is stored, managed, and deleted in a consistent, secure, and compliant manner. They also help to reduce the volume, complexity, and cost of retrieving electronic evidence, as they limit the scope, duration, and frequency of the data preservation and discovery process. The other options are not as effective as data retention and destruction policies and procedures, as they are related to the collection, analysis, or classification of electronic data, not the retention or destruction of electronic data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?
Regular testing of risk controls
Communication of audit findings
Procedures for security monitoring
Open communication of risk reporting
Open communication of risk reporting is the most important factor for promoting a risk-aware culture, because it fosters trust, transparency, and accountability among all stakeholders. It also enables timely and informed decision-making, feedback, and learning from risk events. Regular testing of risk controls, communication of audit findings, and procedures for security monitoring are all important aspects of risk management, but they do not necessarily create a risk-aware culture, which requires a shared understanding and commitment to risk management across the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2, page 1-9.
Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Management approval
Annual review
Relevance
Automation
The most important factor to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs) is relevance. KPIs are metrics that measure the achievement of the objectives or the performance of the processes. Relevance means that the KPIs are aligned with and support the strategic goals and priorities of the organization, and that they reflect the current and desired state of the outcomes or outputs. Relevance also means that the KPIs are meaningful and useful for the decision makers and stakeholders, and that they provide clear and actionable information for improvement or optimization. The other options are not as important as relevance, as they are related to the approval, review, or automation of the KPIs, not the quality or value of the KPIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Performance Indicators, page 183.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite?
To align with board reporting requirements
To assist management in decision making
To create organization-wide risk awareness
To minimize risk mitigation efforts
Risk tolerance and appetite are the expressions of the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that the organization is willing to allow for the outcome of its risk decisions. Risk appetite is the broad-based amount of risk that the organization is willing to accept in its activities. The primary objective of establishing an organization’s risk tolerance and appetite is to assist management in decision making, as they provide guidance and boundaries for the risk management activities and decisions. By establishing the risk tolerance and appetite, the organization can align its risk exposure with its strategic goals, optimize its risk-return trade-off, and enhance its risk culture and performance. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 61.
Which of the following statements describes the relationship between key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIs)?
KRI design must precede definition of KCIs.
KCIs and KRIs are independent indicators and do not impact each other.
A decreasing trend of KRI readings will lead to changes to KCIs.
Both KRIs and KCIs provide insight to potential changes in the level of risk.
KRIs and KCIs are both metrics that measure and monitor the risk and control environment of an enterprise. KRIs are indicators that reflect the level and trend of risk exposure, and help to identify potential risk events or issues. KCIs are indicators that reflect the performance and effectiveness of the risk controls, and help to ensure that the controls are operating as intended and mitigating the risk. Both KRIs and KCIs provide insight to potential changes in the level of risk, as they can signal the need for risk response actions, such as enhancing, modifying, or implementing new controls, or adjusting the risk strategy and objectives. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 240.
A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?
Assessing risk with no controls in place
Showing projected residual risk
Providing peer benchmarking results
Assessing risk with current controls in place
Showing projected residual risk is the most helpful way to respond to the request of explaining how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses1. Projected residual risk is the estimated level of risk that will remain at a future point in time, based on the assumptions and expectations of the risk responses2. By showing projected residual risk, the risk practitioner can:
Demonstrate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk treatment plans, and how they reduce the risk level from the inherent risk (the risk before the risk responses) to the residual risk3.
Compare the projected residual risk with the risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives4. This can help to determine whether the projected residual risk is acceptable or not, and whether the risk treatment plans are consistent and proportional to the risk level5.
Identify and address any gaps, issues, or challenges that may affect the achievement of the projected residual risk, and recommend and implement appropriate improvement actions or contingency plans6.
The other options are not the most helpful ways to respond to the request, because:
Assessing risk with no controls in place is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the current or future risk posture of the organization. Controls are the measures or actions that are implemented to modify the risk, such as prevent, detect, correct, or mitigate the risk7. Assessing risk with no controls in place can help to measure the inherent risk, but it does not show the impact or outcome of the risk treatment plans.
Providing peer benchmarking results is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the specific or unique risk profile of the organization. Peer benchmarking is the process of comparing the organization’s risk level and performance with its peers or competitors, based on a common set of criteria or indicators8. Providing peer benchmarking results can help to provide a reference or a standard for the risk posture, but it does not show the effect or result of the risk treatment plans.
Assessing risk with current controls in place is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the future or projected risk posture of the organization. Assessing risk with current controls in place can help to measure the current residual risk, but it does not show the expected or estimated residual risk at the end of the year.
References =
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Projected Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite and Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
Risk Monitoring and Review - The National Academies Press
Control - CIO Wiki
Benchmarking - CIO Wiki
[Risk Treatment - CIO Wiki]
When formulating a social media policy lo address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?
Sharing company information on social media
Sharing personal information on social media
Using social media to maintain contact with business associates
Using social media for personal purposes during working hours
The most important concern to address when formulating a social media policy to address information leakage is sharing company information on social media. Information leakage is the unauthorized or unintentional disclosure of confidential or sensitive information to unauthorized parties. Social media is a platform that enables the users to create and share content, such as text, images, videos, or links, with other users or the public. Sharing company information on social media is the most important concern, as it could expose the company’s trade secrets, intellectual property, customer data, financial data, or strategic plans to competitors, hackers, or regulators. Sharing company information on social media could also damage the company’s reputation, trust, or credibility, and result in legal or regulatory penalties, fines, or lawsuits. Therefore, a social media policy should clearly define what constitutes company information, and what are the rules and guidelines for sharing or not sharing company information on social media. A social media policy should also specify the roles and responsibilities of the employees, managers, and the social media team, and the consequences and sanctions for violating the policy. Sharing personal information on social media, using social media to maintain contact with business associates, and using social media for personal purposes during working hours are not as important as sharing company information on social media, as they do not directly involve the leakage of company information, and they may not have significant impact or risk on the company. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217
Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?
Key stakeholders are enrolled as members
Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management
Committee meets at least quarterly
Functional overlap across the business is minimized
The best way to ensure the effective decision-making of an IT risk management committee is to enroll key stakeholders as members. Key stakeholders are the individuals or groups who have an interest or influence in the IT risk management process, such as business owners, senior management, IT managers, auditors, regulators, customers, and suppliers. By involving key stakeholders in the IT risk management committee, the committee can benefit from their diverse perspectives, expertise, and experience, and ensure that the IT risk management decisions are aligned with the business objectives, priorities, and expectations. Key stakeholders can also provide valuable input, feedback, and support for the IT risk management activities, and help communicate and implement the IT risk management decisions across the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 36.
A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.
Build a business case to remediate the fix.
Research the types of attacks the threat can present.
Determine the impact of the missing threat.
Determining the impact of the missing threat is the best course of action for a peer review of a risk assessment, as it helps to assess the potential consequences and severity of the threat on the information system and the business objectives. Determining the impact of the missing threat is a process of estimating and quantifying the possible harm or loss that could result from the occurrence of the threat event, such as data breach, system failure, or service disruption. Determining the impact of the missing threat can help to:
Identify and prioritize the critical assets, processes, and functions that could be affected by the threat
Evaluate and measure the extent and magnitude of the damage or disruption caused by the threat
Analyze and compare the current and residual risk levels and control effectiveness
Develop and implement appropriate risk response and mitigation strategies and actions
Communicate and report the risk exposure and status to the relevant stakeholders
Determining the impact of the missing threat is an essential step to ensure the completeness and accuracy of the risk assessment and to improve the quality and reliability of the risk management and control processes.
The other options are not the best courses of action for a peer review of a risk assessment. Asking the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem is a possible action to allocate the resources and costs for the risk mitigation, but it does not address the root cause or the severity of the problem. Building a business case to remediate the fix is a possible action to justify and support the risk mitigation, but it does not provide a clear and comprehensive analysis of the problem. Researching the types of attacks the threat can present is a possible action to understand and anticipate the threat scenarios and techniques, but it does not evaluate the actual or potential impact of the threat. References = Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Peer Review Assessment Framework
A highly regulated organization acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls. Which of the following is the BEST way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company?
Identify previous data breaches using the startup company’s audit reports.
Have the data privacy officer review the startup company’s data protection policies.
Classify and protect the data according to the parent company's internal standards.
Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company's network.
Data protection is the process of safeguarding sensitive personal information from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. Data protection can help to ensure the privacy and security of the data subjects, and to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements that apply to the data processing activities1.
A highly regulated organization that acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls faces a high risk of data breaches, fines, lawsuits, reputational damage, or loss of customer trust. The best way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company is to classify and protect the data according to the parent company’s internal standards, because it can help to:
Identify and categorize the sensitive personal information based on its value, sensitivity, and criticality, such as confidential, restricted, internal, or public
Apply and enforce the appropriate data protection policies, procedures, and controls for each data category, such as encryption, access control, backup, retention, or disposal
Align and integrate the data protection practices and processes of the startup company with those of the parent company, and ensure the consistency and compliance across the organization
Balance and optimize the trade-off between data protection and data usability, and allow the startup company to leverage the data for innovation and growth, as long as it meets the data protection standards of the parent company23
The other options are not the best ways for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company, but rather some of the steps or aspects of data protection. Identify previous data breaches using the startup company’s audit reports is a step that can help to assess the current data protection status and gaps of the startup company, and to learn from the past incidents and mistakes, but it does not address the future data protection needs and challenges of the startup company. Have the data privacy officer review the startup company’s data protection policies is an aspect that can help to ensure the legal and regulatory compliance of the data protection activities of the startup company, and to provide guidance and oversight for the data protection issues and risks, but it does not ensure the technical and operational effectiveness and efficiency of the data protection controls of the startup company. Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company’s network is a control that can help to prevent or limit the external or internal attacks or threats to the data of the startup company, and to reduce the exposure or impact of a data breach, but it does not ensure the availability or accessibility of the data for the legitimate and authorized purposes of the startup company. References =
Data Protection - ISACA
Data Classification - ISACA
Data Protection Best Practices - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following controls BEST helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination?
Securing the network from attacks
Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender
Digitally signing individual messages
Encrypting data-in-transit
 Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender is a control that helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination, as it confirms the successful delivery of the data and allows the sender to resend the data in case of failure. Securing the network from attacks, digitally signing individual messages, and encrypting data-in-transit are controls that help to ensure the integrity and confidentiality of the data, but not the availability or delivery of the data. References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 199.
Which of the following BEST measures the impact of business interruptions caused by an IT service outage?
Sustained financial loss
Cost of remediation efforts
Duration of service outage
Average time to recovery
The best measure of the impact of business interruptions caused by an IT service outage is the sustained financial loss. This is the amount of money that the enterprise loses due to the disruption of its normal operations, such as lost revenue, increased expenses, or reduced profits. Sustained financial loss reflects the extent and severity of the business interruption, and the effect on the enterprise’s objectives and performance. Sustained financial loss also helps to determine the recovery objectives and priorities, and to justify the investment in risk mitigation and business continuity strategies. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 691
A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. Which of the following should be the practitioner's PRIMARY concern?
Sensitivity of the data
Readability of test data
Security of the test environment
Availability of data to authorized staff
Production data is the data that is used in the actual operation of a system or application, such as customer information, financial records, transactions, etc.
Test data is the data that is used in the testing or development of a system or application, such as dummy data, sample data, simulated data, etc.
A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. This indicates that there is a risk of unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction of the production data, which may affect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data.
The primary concern of the risk practitioner in this situation is the sensitivity of the data. This means that the risk practitioner should assess how valuable, critical, or confidential the data is, and what would be the impact or consequence if the data is compromised or lost.
The sensitivity of the data helps to determine the level of protection and control that is needed to safeguard the data, and the priority and urgency of the risk response actions.
The other options are not the primary concerns of the risk practitioner in this situation. They are either secondary or not essential for data protection.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 32
Information Technology & Security, page 26
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 24
Who should have the authority to approve an exception to a control?
information security manager
Control owner
Risk owner
Risk manager
 The control owner is the person who has the authority to approve an exception to a control. A control is a policy, procedure, or technical measure that is implemented to prevent or mitigate a risk. A control owner is responsible for the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of the control, as well as for monitoring and reporting its performance and effectiveness. A control owner is also accountable for the approval of any changes or exceptions to the control, based on the risk assessment and business justification. An information security manager, a risk owner, and a risk manager are not the best choices, as they do not have the same level of authority, responsibility, and knowledge as the control owner in relation to the control. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 35.
The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:
ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.
assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.
benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.
facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.
IT control status reporting is the process of collecting and analyzing data about the effectiveness and efficiency of IT controls. IT controls are the policies, procedures, and practices that ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and information. IT control status reporting helps to monitor the performance of IT controls against the predefined objectives and criteria, and to identify any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. IT control status reporting also provides information to the stakeholders about the current status and progress of IT control implementation and improvement.
The primary purpose of IT control status reporting is to facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states of IT controls. This means that IT control status reporting helps to evaluate the gap between the actual and expected performance of IT controls, and to determine the actions and resources needed to close the gap. IT control status reporting also helps to align the IT controls with the business goals and strategies, and to ensure that the IT controls are delivering value to the organization. By comparing the current and desired states of IT controls, IT control status reporting enables continuous improvement and optimization of IT control processes and outcomes.
The other options are not the primary purpose of IT control status reporting, but rather some of the benefits or outcomes of it. IT control status reporting can help to ensure compliance with IT governance strategy, but it is not the main reason for doing it. IT governance is the framework that defines the roles, responsibilities, and relationships among the stakeholders involved in IT decision making and oversight. IT control status reporting can support IT governance by providing relevant and reliable information to the stakeholders, and by demonstrating the accountability and transparency of IT control activities. However, IT control status reporting is not the same as IT governance, and it is not the only way to ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.
IT control status reporting can also assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts, but it is not the main objective of it. Internal audit is an independent and objective assurance and consulting activity that evaluates the adequacy and effectiveness of IT controls, and provides recommendations for improvement. IT control status reporting can provide input and evidence to the internal audit process, and help to identify the areas of IT control that need further review or testing. IT control status reporting can also help to monitor and track the implementation of the audit findings and recommendations, and to verify the results of the remediation efforts. However, IT control status reporting is not the same as internal audit, and it is not the only source of information for internal audit.
Finally, IT control status reporting can benchmark IT controls with industry standards, but it is not the main goal of it. Industry standards are the best practices or guidelines that define the minimum requirements or expectations for IT control performance and quality. IT control status reporting can help to compare the IT controls with the industry standards, and to identify the areas of IT control that need to be enhanced or updated. IT control status reporting can also help to demonstrate the compliance or conformance of IT controls with the industry standards, and to provide assurance to the external parties or regulators. However, IT control status reporting is not the same as industry standards, and it is not the only way to benchmark IT controls. References =
Service Reporting in ITIL: Process, Objectives and Examples - KnowledgeHut
Anatomy of an effective status report - Project Management Institute
How to Create a Project Status Report [Template & Examples]
Communicating Document Control Progress on a Project
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
The design of procedures to prevent fraudulent transactions within an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system should be based on:
stakeholder risk tolerance.
benchmarking criteria.
suppliers used by the organization.
the control environment.
Fraudulent transactions are those that involve deception, manipulation, or misrepresentation of information or data to obtain an unauthorized or improper benefit or advantage1. Fraudulent transactions can pose significant risks and losses for an organization, such as financial damages, legal liabilities, reputational damages, or operational disruptions2.
Enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems are integrated software applications that support the core business processes and functions of an organization, such as accounting, finance, human resources, supply chain, inventory, or customer relationship management3. ERP systems can facilitate the efficiency, accuracy, and security of business transactions, but they can also be vulnerable to fraudulent transactions, such as:
Creating fake vendors or customers and processing false invoices or payments
Manipulating or falsifying financial or accounting data or reports
Changing or deleting critical or sensitive information or records
Abusing or misusing access privileges or credentials
Bypassing or compromising the system controls or security measures4
The design of procedures to prevent fraudulent transactions within an ERP system should be based on the control environment. The control environment is the set of standards, processes, and structures that provide the basis for carrying out internal control across the organization. The control environment comprises the following elements:
The tone at the top, which reflects the leadership’s commitment and attitude towards internal control and ethical conduct
The organizational structure, which defines the roles and responsibilities, reporting lines, and authority levels for internal control
The human resource policies and practices, which ensure that the staff have the appropriate skills, competencies, and incentives for internal control
The risk assessment process, which identifies and evaluates the potential risks and threats to the organization’s objectives and transactions
The control activities, which are the specific policies, procedures, and mechanisms that prevent, detect, or correct errors or fraud in transactions
The information and communication systems, which provide reliable and timely data and information for internal control and decision-making
The monitoring and evaluation activities, which measure and report the performance and effectiveness of internal control and ensure continuous improvement
By basing the design of procedures to prevent fraudulent transactions within an ERP system on the control environment, the organization can:
Ensure that the procedures are aligned with the organization’s objectives, values, and expectations regarding internal control and fraud prevention
Provide clear and consistent guidance and instructions for the staff and stakeholders involved in the transactions and the ERP system
Implement adequate and appropriate controls and safeguards to mitigate the risks and vulnerabilities of the transactions and the ERP system
Monitor and evaluate the compliance and effectiveness of the procedures and the ERP system, and identify and address any issues or gaps
References = What is Fraud?, Fraud Risk Management - AICPA, What is ERP?, ERP Fraud: How to Prevent It - ERP Focus, [COSO – Control Environment - Deloitte], [How to use COSO to assess IT controls - Journal of Accountancy]
Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when ensuring that mitigated risk remains within acceptable limits?
Building an organizational risk profile after updating the risk register
Ensuring risk owners participate in a periodic control testing process
Designing a process for risk owners to periodically review identified risk
Implementing a process for ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness
The most helpful activity for a risk practitioner when ensuring that mitigated risk remains within acceptable limits is to implement a process for ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness. This would enable the risk practitioner to track the performance of the controls, identify any deviations or gaps, and take corrective actions as needed. Ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness would also provide assurance that the risk responses are working as intended, and that the residual risk is aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 188.
Several newly identified risk scenarios are being integrated into an organization's risk register. The MOST appropriate risk owner would be the individual who:
is in charge of information security.
is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM)
can implement remediation action plans.
is accountable for loss if the risk materializes.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, a risk owner is the person who is accountable for the risk and its associated mitigation actions. The risk owner is responsible for monitoring the risk, reporting the risk status, and implementing the risk response. Therefore, the most appropriate risk owner would be the individual who is accountable for loss if the risk materializes, as it implies that they have the authority and the incentive to manage the risk effectively. The other options are not the most appropriate risk owners, as they are not directly accountable for the risk or its consequences. The person who is in charge of information security is responsible for overseeing the IT security function and ensuring that the IT security policy is enforced, but they may not have the authority or the resources to manage the risk. The person who is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM) is responsible for establishing and maintaining the ERM framework and processes, but they may not have the knowledge or the involvement to manage the risk. The person who can implement remediation action plans is responsible for executing the risk response, but they may not have the decision-making power or the accountability to manage the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.2, page 108.
Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?
Expected frequency and potential impact
Risk tolerance
Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment
Risk appetite
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the significant IT risks that an organization faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. An IT risk register can help to provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the organization’s IT risk profile, and to support the decision making and reporting of the IT risk management function1.
One of the data that must be updated to maintain an IT risk register is the expected frequency and potential impact of each IT risk. The expected frequency is the probability or likelihood of the IT risk occurring, based on historical data, statistical analysis, expert judgment, or other methods. The potential impact is the magnitude or severity of the consequences or outcomes of the IT risk, measured in terms of cost, time, quality, reputation, or other criteria2.
Updating the expected frequency and potential impact of each IT risk is essential for maintaining an IT risk register, because it can help to:
Evaluate and prioritize the IT risks based on their risk level, which is calculated by multiplying the frequency and impact
Monitor and track the changes or trends in the IT risk exposure and performance over time
Identify and implement the appropriate risk response strategies and controls, based on the risk level and the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization
Report and communicate the IT risk status and progress to the stakeholders, using risk indicators, dashboards, or matrices3
The other options are not the data that must be updated to maintain an IT risk register, but rather the data that are used as inputs or outputs of the IT risk management process. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in the outcomes related to specific objectives or risks. Risk tolerance is used to measure the IT risk analysis and to guide the IT risk response. Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the IT risks across the organization. Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment is used to populate the IT risk register and to inform the IT risk response. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite is used to guide the IT risk analysis and to align the IT risk response. References =
Risk Register - ISACA
Risk Analysis - ISACA
Risk Register 2021-2022 - UNECE
[How To Conduct Business Impact Analysis in 8 Easy Steps - G2]
[Risk Appetite and Risk Tolerance - ISACA]
[Enterprise Risk Assessment - ISACA]
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?
Internal and external information security incidents
The risk department's roles and responsibilities
Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process
The organization's information security risk profile
The most important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff is the policy compliance requirements and exceptions process. This topic would help the staff to understand the enterprise’s risk policies, standards, and procedures, and how they apply to their roles and responsibilities. It would also help the staff to know the process for requesting, approving, and documenting any exceptions to the policies, and the consequences of non-compliance. This topic would enhance the staff’s risk awareness and responsibility, and foster a culture of compliance and accountability within the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 2491
The MOST important objective of information security controls is to:
Identify threats and vulnerability
Ensure alignment with industry standards
Provide measurable risk reduction
Enforce strong security solutions
The most important objective of information security controls is to provide measurable risk reduction. Information security controls are the policies, procedures, techniques, or technologies that are implemented to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets. The main purpose of information security controls is to reduce the risk of unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction of information assets, and to ensure that the information assets support the enterprise’s objectives and performance. Information security controls should be measurable, meaning that they should have clear and quantifiable criteria for evaluating their effectiveness and efficiency in reducing the risk exposure to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, page 1151
In which of the following system development life cycle (SDLC) phases should controls be incorporated into system specifications?
Implementation
Development
Design
Feasibility
Controls should be incorporated into system specifications in the design phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC), because this is the phase where the system requirements are translated into detailed specifications and architectures that define how the system will be built and operated. Incorporating controls in the design phase ensures that the system is secure, reliable, and compliant from the start, and reduces the cost and complexity of implementing controls later in the SDLC. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not the phases where controls are incorporated into system specifications. The implementation phase is the phase where the system is installed, configured, and tested. The development phase is the phase where the system is coded, integrated, and tested. The feasibility phase is the phase where the system concept and scope are defined and evaluated. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:
assess effectiveness of different projects.
define the risk assessment methodology.
ensure assets have low residual risk.
account for identified key risk factors.
 A risk register is a tool used to identify, assess, and prioritize risks in an organization. It typically includes a detailed description of each identified risk, an assessment of its likelihood and potential impact, and a plan for managing or mitigating the risk1. A risk register is usually created at the beginning of a project or a process, and is updated regularly throughout the risk management life cycle2.
The main reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to account for identified key risk factors. This means that the risk register helps to:
Document and track all the relevant risks that may affect the project or the organization, and their sources, causes, and consequences
Provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk profile and exposure of the project or the organization
Support the decision-making and prioritization of the risk responses and controls, based on the risk appetite and tolerance of the project or the organization
Communicate and report the risk information and status to the stakeholders and regulators, and ensure transparency and accountability
Enable the continuous improvement and learning from the risk management process and outcomes3
References = What is a risk register and why is it important?, Purpose of a risk register: Here’s what a risk register is used for, Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2024], Risk Register - Wikipedia
When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a ewe Business process. which of the following should be done FRST10 ensure continuity of operations?
a identity conditions that may cause disruptions
Review incident response procedures
Evaluate the probability of risk events
Define metrics for restoring availability
The first step to ensure continuity of operations when performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a new business process is to identify the conditions that may cause disruptions to the service or the process. This is because identifying the potential sources, causes, and scenarios of disruptions helps to determine the impact and likelihood of the risks, and to select the appropriate risk responses and recovery strategies. The other options are not the first steps, although they may also be part of the risk assessment process. Reviewing incident response procedures, evaluating the probability of risk events, and defining metrics for restoring availability are examples of subsequent steps that depend on the identification of the conditions that may cause disruptions. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature organizational risk culture?
Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members.
Risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk.
Risk policy has been published and acknowledged by employees.
Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches.
Organizational risk culture is the term describing the values, beliefs, knowledge, attitudes and understanding about risk shared by a group of people with a common purpose. Organizational risk culture influences how the organization identifies, assesses, and manages risks, and how it aligns its risk appetite and tolerance with its objectives and strategies1.
The best indication of a mature organizational risk culture is that risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk, because it means that the organization:
Clearly defines and assigns the roles and responsibilities of the risk owners, who are the individuals or groups who have the authority and ability to manage the risks within their scope or domain
Empowers and supports the risk owners to perform their risk management duties, such as identifying, assessing, responding, monitoring, and reporting the risks
Holds the risk owners accountable for the outcomes and consequences of the risks, and evaluates their performance and compliance with the risk policies, standards, and procedures
Encourages and rewards the risk owners for demonstrating risk awareness and competence, and for contributing to the risk management improvement and learning23
The other options are not the best indications of a mature organizational risk culture, but rather some of the elements or aspects of it. Corporate risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members to guide their risk decision making and behavior, and to ensure the consistency and alignment of the risk taking and tolerance across the organization. Risk policy is the document that establishes the principles, framework, and process for managing the risks within the organization. Risk policy is published and acknowledged by employees to ensure their awareness and compliance with the risk management expectations and requirements. Management is the group of individuals who have the authority and responsibility to direct and control the organization’s activities and resources. Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches to ensure the transparency and accountability of the risk management performance and outcomes, and to identify and address the risk management issues and gaps4. References =
Risk culture - Institute of Risk Management
Risk Owner - ISACA
Taking control of organizational risk culture | McKinsey
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?
Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed
Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding
Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities
Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed
A key control indicator (KCI) is a metric that measures the effectiveness of a control in mitigating a risk. A good KCI for a vulnerability management program should reflect how well the program is reducing the exposure to high-risk vulnerabilities. The percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed is a KCI that shows the proportion of identified high-risk vulnerabilities that have been remediated or mitigated within a defined time frame. This KCI can help monitor the progress and performance of the vulnerability management program and identify areas for improvement.
The other options are not the best KCI for a vulnerability management program because they do not measure the effectiveness of the control. The percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed is a measure of the completeness of the vulnerability scanning process, not the control. The number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding is a measure of the current risk exposure, not the control. The defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities are a measure of the risk appetite, not the control. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, Section 3.4: Risk Indicators, p. 133-134.
Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control would MOST likely be justified when:
automation cannot be applied to the control
business benefits exceed the loss exposure.
the end-user license agreement has expired.
the control is difficult to enforce in practice.
The most likely justification for risk acceptance of an exception to a security control is when the business benefits exceed the loss exposure. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging and tolerating the risk, without taking any action to reduce or transfer the risk. An exception to a security control is a deviation or non-compliance from the established security policy or standard, due to a valid business reason or circumstance. Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control may be justified when the business benefits exceed the loss exposure, which means that the value or advantage of the exception outweighs the potential cost or harm of the risk. For example, an exception to a security control may enable faster or easier access to the system or data, which may improve the productivity, efficiency, or satisfaction of the users or customers, and generate more revenue or profit for the business. The business benefits of the exception may exceed the loss exposure of the risk, which may be low or negligible, or may be mitigated by other controls or factors. Therefore, risk acceptance of an exception to a security control may be a reasonable and rational decision, based on the cost-benefit analysis of the exception and the risk. Automation cannot be applied to the control, the end-user license agreement has expired, and the control is difficult to enforce in practice are not the most likely justifications for risk acceptance of an exception to a security control, as they are either irrelevant or insufficient reasons, and they do not consider the business benefits or the loss exposure of the exception and the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
When an organization’s disaster recovery plan (DRP) has a reciprocal agreement, which of the following risk treatment options is being applied?
Acceptance
Mitigation
Transfer
Avoidance
A reciprocal agreement is an agreement made by two or more organizations to use each other’s resources during a disaster1. For example, two organizations with similar IT infrastructure may agree to provide backup servers or data centers for each other in case of a major disruption. By doing so, they transfer the risk of losing their IT capabilities to the other party, who agrees to share the responsibility and cost of recovery.
A reciprocal agreement is a form of risk transfer, which is one of the four risk treatment options according to ISO 270012. Risk transfer means that the organization shifts the potential negative consequences of a risk to another party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. This reduces the organization’s exposure and liability to the risk, but it does not eliminate the risk completely, as the other party may fail to fulfill their obligations or charge a high price for their services.
References = Reciprocal Agreement - Risky Thinking, ISO 27001 Risk Assessment & Risk Treatment: The Complete Guide - Advisera
Which of the following is the MOST important technology control to reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally?
Automated access revocation
Daily transaction reconciliation
Rule-based data analytics
Role-based user access model
 A role-based user access model is a type of technology control that assigns access rights and permissions to users based on their roles and responsibilities within the organization. A role-based user access model can reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally, because it can help to:
Enforce the principle of least privilege, which means that users only have the minimum level of access required to perform their duties
Implement segregation of duties, which means that users cannot perform conflicting or incompatible functions, such as initiating and approving payments
Prevent unauthorized or inappropriate access to sensitive data or systems, such as payment information or applications
Detect and deter fraud attempts by creating audit trails and logs of user activities and transactions
Simplify and streamline the management and maintenance of user access rights and permissions, such as adding, modifying, or deleting users or roles12
The other options are not as important as a role-based user access model for reducing the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally. Automated access revocation is a technology control that automatically revokes or suspends user access rights and permissions when certain conditions are met, such as termination of employment, change of role, or expiration of password. Automated access revocation can help to prevent fraud by former or inactive users, but it does not address the risk of fraud by current or active users3. Daily transaction reconciliation is a technology control that compares and verifies the transactions recorded in different systems or sources, such as bank statements and accounting records. Daily transaction reconciliation can help to detect fraud by identifying discrepancies or anomalies in the transactions, but it does not prevent fraud from occurring in the first place4. Rule-based data analytics is a technology control that applies predefined rules or criteria to analyze data and identify patterns, trends, or outliers. Rule-based data analytics can help to monitor fraud by generating alerts or reports of suspicious or unusual transactions, but it does not prevent fraud from happening or being attempted5. References =
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) - ISACA
Role-Based Access Control: What It Is and How It Works
Automated Access Revocation - ISACA
Reconciliation - ISACA
Rule-Based Data Analytics - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following represents a vulnerability?
An identity thief seeking to acquire personal financial data from an organization
Media recognition of an organization's market leadership in its industry
A standard procedure for applying software patches two weeks after release
An employee recently fired for insubordination
 A vulnerability is a weakness or gap in a system, application, or network that can be exploited by a threat to cause harm or gain unauthorized access1. A vulnerability can be caused by various factors, such as design flaws, coding errors, configuration errors, or outdated software2.
Among the four options given, only option C (a standard procedure for applying software patches two weeks after release) represents a vulnerability. This is because software patches are updates or fixes that address security weaknesses or bugs in software applications or systems3. By applying software patches two weeks after release, the organization is exposing itself to the risk of being attacked or compromised by malicious actors who may exploit the known vulnerabilities in the software before they are patched. This risk is especially high if the software is internet-facing or critical to the organization’s operations4.
References = What is a Vulnerability?, Vulnerability Definition & Meaning - Merriam-Webster, Vulnerability Patching: A Resource Guide - Rezilion, Why is Software Vulnerability Patching Crucial for Your Software and …
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an antivirus program?
Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions
Number of false positives defected over a period of time
Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software
Frequency of anti-vinjs software updates
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a metric that measures the achievement of a specific goal or objective. A KPI should be relevant, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-bound. For measuring the effectiveness of an antivirus program, a possible goal is to ensure that all IT assets are protected from malware infections. A KPI that can measure this goal is the percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions, which indicates how well the antivirus program can detect and prevent the latest malware threats. The higher the percentage, the more effective the antivirus program is. Therefore, this is the best KPI among the given options. References =
Cybersecurity KPIs to Track + Examples — RiskOptics - Reciprocity
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to …
Indicators - Program Evaluation - CDC
Who should be PRIMARILY responsible for establishing an organization's IT risk culture?
Business process owner
Executive management
Risk management
IT management
Executive management should be primarily responsible for establishing an organization’s IT risk culture, as they have the authority and accountability to define and communicate the vision, mission, values, and objectives of the organization, and to set the tone and direction for the IT risk management and control processes. Executive management is the highest level of management in an organization, and it consists of the board of directors, the chief executive officer (CEO), and other senior executives. Executive management is responsible for the strategic planning and decision making of the organization, and for ensuring the alignment of the organizational strategy and objectives with the stakeholder expectations and requirements.
Executive management should be primarily responsible for establishing an organization’s IT risk culture by providing the following benefits:
It demonstrates the leadership and commitment of the executive management to the IT risk management and control processes, and to the achievement of the organizational strategy and objectives.
It influences and motivates the behavior and attitude of the staff and managers towards IT risk management and control, and fosters a culture of risk awareness, ownership, and accountability across the organization.
It defines and communicates the IT risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and guides and supports the development and implementation of the IT risk policies, standards, and procedures.
It allocates and monitors the resources and performance of the IT risk management and control processes, and ensures the effectiveness and efficiency of the IT risk governance and oversight.
The other options are not the primary choices for establishing an organization’s IT risk culture. Business process owner is the person who has the responsibility and authority over the design, execution, and performance of a specific business process, and they are accountable for the risks and controls associated with their process, but they do not have the overall or strategic responsibility for the IT risk culture. Risk management is the function or department that is responsible for managing and monitoring the IT risk management and control processes, and for providing advice and guidance to the executive management and the business units, but they do not have the ultimate or final responsibility for the IT risk culture. IT management is the function or department that is responsible for managing and maintaining the IT operations and security, and for supporting the IT risk management and control processes, but they do not have the highest or broadest responsibility for the IT risk culture. References = Risk Culture - Open Risk Manual, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, The 6 key elements to creating and maintaining a good risk culture
Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a data protection management plan?
Perform a cost-benefit analysis.
Identify critical data.
Establish a data inventory.
Conduct a risk analysis.
A data protection management plan is a document that outlines how an organization will protect its sensitive data from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or loss. A data protection management plan should include the following components1:
The scope and objectives of the data protection management plan, and how it aligns with the organization’s data protection policy and strategy
The roles and responsibilities of the data protection team and other stakeholders, and how they will communicate and coordinate
The data protection risks and threats that the organization faces, and how they will be assessed and prioritized
The data protection controls and measures that the organization will implement and maintain, and how they will be monitored and evaluated
The data protection incidents and breaches that the organization may encounter, and how they will be reported and resolved
The data protection training and awareness programs that the organization will provide and conduct, and how they will be measured and improved
The first step that should be done when developing a data protection management plan is to identify critical data. This means that the organization should:
Define what constitutes sensitive data in the organization, such as personal data, confidential data, or regulated data
Identify and classify the sensitive data that the organization collects, processes, stores, or transfers, and assign appropriate labels or tags
Determine the value and importance of the sensitive data to the organization and its stakeholders, and the potential impacts or consequences of data loss or compromise
Map the data flows and locations of the sensitive data within the organization and across its partners or vendors, and document the data lifecycle stages and activities
By identifying critical data, the organization can:
Establish a clear and consistent understanding of the data protection scope and objectives, and ensure that they are relevant and realistic
Provide a comprehensive and accurate data inventory that can support the data protection risk assessment and control implementation
Identify and prioritize the data protection needs and requirements of the organization and its stakeholders, and align them with the data protection laws and standards
Communicate and report the data protection status and performance to the stakeholders and regulators, and ensure transparency and accountability
References = Guide to Developing a Data Protection Management Programme
The PRIMARY reason to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register is to ensure:
risk is treated appropriately
mitigating actions are prioritized
risk entries are regularly updated
risk exposure is minimized.
The primary reason to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register is to ensure that risk is treated appropriately, as risk owners are responsible for implementing the risk response strategies and monitoring the risk status and outcomes. Risk owners are also accountable for the risk and its impact on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. Having risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register helps to clarify the roles and responsibilities, improve the communication and coordination, and enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management process. Mitigating actions are prioritized, risk entries are regularly updated, and risk exposure is minimized are not the primary reasons to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register, but rather the results or benefits of having risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register. References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 206; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 206.
Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?
Al requires entirely new risk management processes.
Al potentially introduces new types of risk.
Al will result in changes to business processes.
Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.
Artificial intelligence (AI) solutions can offer significant benefits to an organization, such as improved efficiency, accuracy, and innovation. However, AI also poses new challenges and risks that need to be considered and addressed by senior management. Some of these risks include:
Ethical and social risks: AI solutions may have unintended or undesirable impacts on human values, rights, and behaviors, such as privacy, fairness, accountability, and transparency. For example, AI systems may exhibit bias, discrimination, or manipulation, or may infringe on personal data or autonomy.
Technical and operational risks: AI solutions may have vulnerabilities, errors, or failures that affect their performance, reliability, or security. For example, AI systems may be subject to hacking, tampering, or misuse, or may malfunction or produce inaccurate or harmful outcomes.
Legal and regulatory risks: AI solutions may have unclear or conflicting legal or regulatory implications or obligations, such as liability, compliance, or governance. For example, AI systems may raise questions about ownership, responsibility, or accountability, or may violate existing laws or regulations, or create new ones.
Therefore, a risk practitioner should communicate to senior management that AI potentially introduces new types of risk that need to be identified, assessed, and managed in alignment with the organization’s objectives, values, and risk appetite. References = ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, page 113.
Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Relevance
Annual review
Automation
Management approval
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics that reflect how well an organization is achieving its goals and objectives. KPIs should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound. The most important characteristic of a KPI is its relevance, meaning that it should be aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, strategy, and values. A relevant KPI should also be meaningful and useful for the intended audience, such as the management, the staff, or the stakeholders. A relevant KPI should provide insight into the performance and progress of the organization, as well as enable decision making and improvement actions. A KPI that is not relevant may be misleading, inaccurate, or irrelevant, and may not reflect the true state of the organization or its goals. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, p. 116-117
Which of the following BEST facilitates the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states?
Develop a risk treatment plan.
Validate organizational risk appetite.
Review results of prior risk assessments.
Include the current and desired states in the risk register.
Developing a risk treatment plan is the best way to facilitate the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states. A risk treatment plan is a document that outlines the actions and resources needed to implement the chosen risk response strategy for each risk scenario. A risk treatment plan should include the following elements:
Risk scenario description and risk ID
Risk owner and other stakeholders
Risk response strategy and objectives
Risk response actions and tasks
Resources, costs, and benefits
Roles and responsibilities
Timeline and milestones
Performance indicators and monitoring mechanisms
Contingency plans and triggers
A risk treatment plan helps to close the gaps between the current and desired risk environment states by providing a clear and comprehensive roadmap for risk mitigation. It also helps to ensure that the risk response actions are aligned with the organizational risk appetite, objectives, and priorities. A risk treatment plan also facilitates the communication, coordination, and collaboration among the risk owners and other stakeholders involved in the risk mitigation process.
The other options are not the best ways to facilitate the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states. Validating organizational risk appetite is an important step in establishing the risk criteria and thresholds for the risk assessment process, but it does not directly address the gaps between the current and desired risk environment states. Reviewing results of prior risk assessments can provide useful insights and lessons learned for the current risk assessment process, but it does not necessarily lead to the development and implementation of effective risk response actions. Including the current and desired states in the risk register can help to document and monitor the risk scenarios and their status, but it does not provide the details and guidance for risk mitigation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4: Risk Response, Section 4.2: Risk Treatment, p. 189-191.
When evaluating enterprise IT risk management it is MOST important to:
create new control processes to reduce identified IT risk scenarios
confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management
review alignment with the organization's investment plan
 Enterprise IT risk management is the process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the IT-related risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or assets1. Enterprise IT risk management should be aligned with the organization’s overall risk management framework and strategy, and support the organization’s value creation and protection2.
When evaluating enterprise IT risk management, it is most important to confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to take in order to meet its strategic objectives3. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that an organization is willing to accept around its risk appetite4. By confirming the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, the evaluation can:
Ensure that the enterprise IT risk management is consistent and compatible with the organization’s risk culture and vision
Provide clear and measurable criteria and boundaries for assessing and prioritizing the IT risks and their impacts
Guide the selection and implementation of the appropriate risk responses and controls that balance the costs and benefits of risk mitigation
Enable the monitoring and reporting of the IT risk performance and outcomes, and the adjustment of the IT risk strategy and objectives as needed5
References = Enterprise IT Risk Management - ISACA, Enterprise Risk Management - Wikipedia, Risk Appetite - COSO, Risk Tolerance - COSO, Risk Appetite and Tolerance - IRM
Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization's overall IT control environment?
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Risk heat maps
Internal audit findings
Periodic penetration testing
The IT control environment is the set of standards, processes, and structures that provide the basis for carrying out IT internal control across the organization1. The IT control environment comprises the IT governance, IT policies and procedures, IT organizational structure, IT roles and responsibilities, IT competencies and training, and IT culture and ethics2. The effectiveness of the IT control environment can be measured by how well it supports the achievement of the organization’s IT objectives, such as IT reliability, security, compliance, and performance3.
One of the best ways to provide the most up-to-date information about the effectiveness of the organization’s overall IT control environment is to perform periodic penetration testing. Penetration testing is the process of simulating real-world cyberattacks on the organization’s IT systems, networks, and applications, to identify and exploit any vulnerabilities, weaknesses, or gaps in the IT control environment4. Penetration testing can help to:
Evaluate the current state and maturity of the IT control environment and its alignment with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
Detect and prioritize the most critical and urgent IT risks and threats that may compromise the organization’s IT objectives or assets
Test and validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the existing IT controls and their ability to prevent, detect, or respond to cyberattacks
Provide recommendations and feedback for improving the IT control environment and enhancing the IT security posture and resilience of the organization
References = COSO – Control Environment - Deloitte, How to use COSO to assess IT controls - Journal of Accountancy, What is Penetration Testing?, [Penetration Testing: A Guide for Business Leaders]
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?
Evaluating risk impact
Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)
Conducting internal audits
Creating quarterly risk reports
The most effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios is to evaluate the risk impact. Risk impact is the extent of the potential consequences or losses that may result from a risk event. Evaluating the risk impact involves considering the stakeholder concerns, expectations, and perspectives, as they may have different views on the value of the assets, the severity of the threats, and the acceptability of the outcomes. Evaluating the risk impact can help to ensure that the risk scenarios reflect the stakeholder interests and priorities, and that the risk responses are aligned with the stakeholder objectives. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs), conducting internal audits, and creating quarterly risk reports are not as effective as evaluating the risk impact, as they are not directly related to the development of risk scenarios, and may not capture the stakeholder concerns adequately. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a selected risk treatment plan is effective?
Identifying key risk indicators (KRIs)
Evaluating the return on investment (ROI)
Evaluating the residual risk level
Performing a cost-benefit analysis
 A risk treatment plan is a document that describes the actions and resources required to implement the chosen risk response for a specific risk scenario. A risk response can be to accept, avoid, transfer, or mitigate the risk. The effectiveness of a risk treatment plan can be measured by how well it reduces the risk exposure and achieves the desired outcomes. The best evidence that a selected risk treatment plan is effective is to evaluate the residual risk level, which is the remaining risk after the risk treatment plan has been implemented. The residual risk level should be within the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and should reflect the actual risk reduction and value creation of the risk treatment plan. Evaluating the residual risk level can also help to identify any gaps or issues that need to be addressed, and to monitor and report on the risk performance and improvement. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, p. 108-109
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?
Improved senior management communication
Optimized risk treatment decisions
Enhanced awareness of risk management
Improved collaboration among risk professionals
The greatest benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment is optimized risk treatment decisions. Risk treatment decisions are the choices made by the organization on how to respond to the identified risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting them. Optimized risk treatment decisions are those that align with the organizational risk appetite and objectives, and provide the best balance between the costs and benefits of the risk response actions.
Updating the risk register promptly after the completion of a risk assessment helps to optimize risk treatment decisions by providing the most current and accurate information on the risk exposure and control environment. By updating the risk register, the organization can ensure that the risk scenarios, risk levels, risk owners, risk responses, and risk indicators are consistent with the risk assessment results and reflect the changes in the internal and external environment. Updating the risk register also helps to prioritize the risks and allocate the resources more effectively and efficiently for risk treatment. Updating the risk register also facilitates the communication, collaboration, and accountability among the stakeholders involved in the risk management and control processes.
The other options are not the greatest benefits to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment. Improved senior management communication is a benefit of updating the risk register, as it helps to inform and involve the senior management in the risk management and control processes, but it is not the greatest benefit. Enhanced awareness of risk management is a benefit of updating the risk register, as it helps to educate and engage the staff and other stakeholders in the risk management and control processes, but it is not the greatest benefit. Improved collaboration among risk professionals is a benefit of updating the risk register, as it helps to coordinate and integrate the efforts and expertise of the risk professionals, but it is not the greatest benefit. References = Risk Register: Examples, Benefits, and Best Practices, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Discover 10 major benefits for keeping a risk register
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?
Align business objectives with risk appetite.
Enable risk-based decision making.
Design and implement risk response action plans.
Update risk responses in the risk register
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the primary purpose of periodically reviewing an organization’s risk profile is to enable risk-based decision making, because it helps to ensure that the risk information is current, relevant, and accurate. The risk profile is a snapshot of the organization’s risk exposure at a given point in time, based on the risk identification, analysis, and evaluation processes. Periodically reviewing the risk profile allows the organization to monitor the changes in the risk environment, the effectiveness of the risk responses, and the impact of the risk events. This enables the organization to make informed decisions about the risk management strategies and priorities. The other options are not the primary purpose of periodically reviewing the risk profile, as they are related to other aspects of the risk management process. Aligning business objectives with risk appetite is the purpose of establishing the risk context, which defines the scope and boundaries of the risk management activities. Designing and implementing risk response action plans is the purpose of the risk response process, which involves selecting and executing the appropriate risk responses. Updating risk responses in the risk register is the outcome of the risk monitoring and reporting process, which involves tracking the risk performance and communicating the risk information to the stakeholders. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.4, page 86.
The PRIMARY purpose of using a framework for risk analysis is to:
improve accountability
improve consistency
help define risk tolerance
help develop risk scenarios.
The primary purpose of using a framework for risk analysis is to improve consistency. A framework for risk analysis is a set of principles, standards, methods, and tools that guide and govern the risk analysis process. Risk analysis is the process of estimating the impact and likelihood of the risk events, and determining the level and nature of the risk exposure. A framework for risk analysis helps to improve consistency, which is the degree of uniformity and agreement among the risk analysis results and practices. Improving consistency helps to ensure that the risk analysis is performed in a systematic and structured way, and that the risk analysis results are comparable and reliable. Improving consistency also helps to reduce the bias, uncertainty, and variability in the risk analysis process, and to enhance the quality and accuracy of the risk analysis results. Improving accountability, helping define risk tolerance, and helping develop risk scenarios are not the primary purposes of using a framework for risk analysis, as they are either the benefits or the objectives of the risk analysis process, and they do not address the primary need of improving the quality and reliability of the risk analysis results. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
A risk practitioner has just learned about new malware that has severely impacted industry peers worldwide data loss?
Customer database manager
Customer data custodian
Data privacy officer
Audit committee
The data privacy officer is the best person to notify in case of a new malware that has severely impacted industry peers with data loss. The data privacy officer is responsible for ensuring that the enterprise complies with the applicable privacy laws and regulations, and that the personal data of the customers, employees, and other stakeholders are protected from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or destruction. The data privacy officer can assess the potential impact of the malware on the enterprise’s data privacy obligations and risks, and coordinate the appropriate response and remediation actions. The customer database manager, the customer data custodian, and the audit committee are not the best persons to notify, as they do not have the same level of authority, responsibility, and expertise as the data privacy officer in dealing with data privacy issues. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 191.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?
Ongoing availability of data
Ability to aggregate data
Ability to predict trends
Availability of automated reporting systems
Ongoing availability of data is the most important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time, as it ensures that the KRIs can provide timely and reliable information on the current and future risk status and performance. KRIs are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and they should be aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and objectives. Ongoing availability of data means that the data sources and collection methods for the KRIs are consistent, accessible, and sustainable, and that the data quality and integrity are maintained and verified. Ability to aggregate data, ability to predict trends, and availability of automated reporting systems are not the most important considerations, as they do not affect the validity and usefulness of the KRIs, but rather the presentation and analysis of the KRI data. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question213; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 213.
A deficient control has been identified which could result in great harm to an organization should a low frequency threat event occur. When communicating the associated risk to senior management the risk practitioner should explain:
mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period.
this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios.
the current level of risk is within tolerance.
an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated.
The risk practitioner should explain to senior management that mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period, as this would demonstrate a proactive and responsible approach to risk management. Mitigation plans are documents that outline the actions and resources needed to reduce the likelihood and/or impact of a specific risk scenario. Mitigation plans should include the following elements:
Risk scenario description and risk ID
Risk owner and other stakeholders
Risk response strategy and objectives
Risk response actions and tasks
Resources, costs, and benefits
Roles and responsibilities
Timeline and milestones
Performance indicators and monitoring mechanisms
Contingency plans and triggers
Mitigation plans help to address the gap between the current and desired risk levels and align the risk response with the organizational risk appetite and objectives. Mitigation plans also facilitate the communication, coordination, and collaboration among the risk owners and other stakeholders involved in the risk response process. Mitigation plans should be prepared in the current planning period, as this would allow the organization to act timely and effectively in the event of a low frequency threat event. Preparing mitigation plans in advance would also help to avoid or minimize the potential harm to the organization and its reputation.
The other options are not the best ways to communicate the associated risk to senior management. Explaining that this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios may not accurately reflect the true nature and severity of the risk. Explaining that the current level of risk is within tolerance may not convey the urgency and importance of addressing the risk. Explaining that an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated may not provide a clear and actionable solution for the risk. References = Four steps for managing risk at the CEO level, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, How to Communicate Risk to Stakeholders | Anitian
An information system for a key business operation is being moved from an in-house application to a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor. Which of the following will have the GREATEST impact on the ability to monitor risk?
Reduced ability to evaluate key risk indicators (KRIs)
Reduced access to internal audit reports
Dependency on the vendor's key performance indicators (KPIs)
Dependency on service level agreements (SLAs)
 Reduced ability to evaluate key risk indicators (KRIs) will have the greatest impact on the ability to monitor risk when an information system for a key business operation is moved from an in-house application to a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor, as it may limit the visibility and control over the risk exposure and performance of the system. KRIs are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and they should be aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and objectives. When the system is moved to a SaaS vendor, the enterprise may lose access to the data and processes that are used to calculate and report the KRIs, or the KRIs may become irrelevant or inconsistent with the vendor’s environment and standards. This may impair the ability to monitor risk and to take timely and appropriate actions to manage risk. Reduced access to internal audit reports, dependency on the vendor’s key performance indicators (KPIs), and dependency on service level agreements (SLAs) are not the greatest impacts on the ability to monitor risk, as they do not affect the measurement and reporting of the risk status and performance, but rather the assurance and evaluation of the system quality and reliability. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question221; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 221.
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization's user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:
accounts without documented approval
user accounts with default passwords
active accounts belonging to former personnel
accounts with dormant activity.
User accounts provisioning is the process of creating, managing, and modifying user accounts within a system or an application, based on the user’s roles, responsibilities, and requirements. User accounts provisioning is an essential part of identity and access management (IAM), which aims to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system or the application, and the information or resources that it handles or supports1.
The best key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization’s user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of accounts without documented approval, because it can help to measure how well the organization follows the policies, standards, and procedures for user accounts provisioning, and how effectively the organization controls and audits the user accounts provisioning activities. The percentage of accounts without documented approval can indicate:
The level of compliance and accountability of the user accounts provisioning process, and the extent to which the user accounts provisioning requests and actions are authorized and verified by the appropriate parties, such as managers, IT staff, or security officers
The level of risk and exposure of the user accounts provisioning process, and the likelihood and impact of unauthorized or inappropriate user accounts provisioning, such as granting excessive or unnecessary access privileges, creating duplicate or fraudulent accounts, or violating legal or regulatory requirements
The level of quality and efficiency of the user accounts provisioning process, and the ability and capacity of the organization to manage and maintain the user accounts provisioning records and documents, such as forms, logs, or reports23
The other options are not the best KPIs for monitoring adherence to an organization’s user accounts provisioning practices, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. User accounts with default passwords are user accounts that have not changed their passwords from the initial or default values that are assigned by the system or the application. User accounts with default passwords are a factor that can increase the risk of unauthorized or malicious access to the system or the application, as the default passwords may be easily guessed or compromised by attackers. Active accounts belonging to former personnel are user accounts that have not been deactivated or deleted after the users have left the organization. Active accounts belonging to former personnel are an outcome of ineffective or inefficient user accounts deprovisioning, which is the process of revoking or removing the user accounts and access privileges when they are no longer needed or valid. Accounts with dormant activity are user accounts that have not been used or accessed for a long period of time. Accounts with dormant activity are an outcome of poor or inconsistent user accounts management, which is the process of updating or modifying the user accounts and access privileges according to the changes or needs of the users or the organization4. References =
User Provisioning for SaaS Apps: Top 10 Best Practices | Resmo
Top Identity and Access Management Metrics
KPI-driven approach to Identity & Access Management - Elimity
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?
Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives
Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.
Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.
Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.
Data leakage is the unauthorized or accidental disclosure of sensitive or confidential data to unauthorized parties. Data leakage can cause serious damages or losses to the organization, such as data breaches, fines, lawsuits, reputational harm, or loss of customer trust. Data leakage can occur due to various reasons, such as human errors, malicious attacks, or inadequate controls1.
An organization that uses a vendor to destroy hard drives faces a risk of data leakage, as the vendor may not properly or securely destroy the hard drives, or may access or misuse the data stored on them. The best way to reduce this risk is to use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives, because it means that the vendor:
Has been certified or verified by a reputable or recognized authority or organization, such as ISACA, NAID, or R2, to provide hard drive destruction services
Follows the industry standards and best practices for hard drive destruction, such as NIST 800-88 or DoD 5220.22-M, and ensures the compliance with the legal and regulatory requirements, such as HIPAA, PCI DSS, or GDPR
Provides a secure and transparent process for hard drive destruction, such as using a specialized shredder, issuing a certificate of destruction, or allowing the customer to witness the destruction
Maintains a high level of professionalism and integrity, and does not compromise the confidentiality or security of the customer’s data234
The other options are not the best ways to reduce the risk of data leakage, but rather some of the steps or aspects of hard drive destruction. Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives is a step that can help to erase the data on the hard drives by using a strong magnetic field. However, degaussing may not be effective or reliable for some types of hard drives, such as solid state drives (SSDs), and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the data before degaussing5. Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives is an aspect that can help to protect the data on the hard drives by using a cryptographic algorithm to make it unreadable without a key. However, encryption may not be sufficient or applicable for some types of data, such as metadata, and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the key or the encrypted data6. Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager is a step that can help to verify that the hard drives have been destroyed by the vendor, and to document the process and the outcome. However, confirmation of destruction may not be accurate or authentic, and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the data before destruction7. References =
Data Leakage - ISACA
Hard Drive Shredding Services | Hard Drive Destruction & Disposal
Hard Drive Shredding and Destruction Service | CompuCycle
Electronic Destruction & Recycling | Shred Nations
Degaussing - ISACA
Encryption - ISACA
Certificate of Destruction - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
A maturity model is MOST useful to an organization when it:
benchmarks against other organizations
defines a qualitative measure of risk
provides a reference for progress
provides risk metrics.
A maturity model is a framework that describes the stages or levels of development and improvement of a certain domain, such as a process, a function, or an organization. A maturity model is most useful to an organization when it provides a reference for progress, meaning that it helps the organization to assess its current state, identify its strengths and weaknesses, set its goals and objectives, and measure its performance and improvement over time. A maturity model can also help the organization to compare itself with best practices and standards, but benchmarking against other organizations is not its primary purpose. A maturity model can also help the organization to manage its risks, but defining a qualitative measure of risk or providing risk metrics is not its main function. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2.1, p. 118-119
The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:
corporate culture alignment
low risk tolerance
high risk tolerance
corporate culture misalignment.
The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure most likely demonstrates corporate culture misalignment, as it indicates that the organization is not following the principles and values of effective risk management, and that there is a lack of communication and coordination among the risk owners and stakeholders. Corporate culture misalignment can also result in inefficient and wasteful use of resources, and reduced risk-return trade-off. The organization should align its corporate culture with its risk appetite and tolerance, and ensure that the control costs are proportional and justified by the risk exposure and the expected benefits. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 255. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 255. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the country where it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?
Analyze data protection methods.
Understand data flows.
Include a right-to-audit clause.
Implement strong access controls.
The first step when addressing the situation of moving the payroll system to a SaaS application and complying with the new data privacy regulation is to understand the data flows. This means identifying where the data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred, and who has access to it. Understanding the data flows can help to determine the scope and impact of the regulation, as well as the potential risks and gaps in the current state. It can also help to identify the roles and responsibilities of the organization and the SaaS provider regarding data protection and compliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1.2, p. 237-238
What is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?
To determine the likelihood and impact of threats to business operations
To identify important business processes in the organization
To estimate resource requirements for related business processes
To evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption
 The primary purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA) is to evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption. A BIA is a process that identifies and analyzes the potential effects of various types of disruptions on the enterprise’s critical business functions and processes. A BIA helps to determine the recovery objectives, such as the recovery time objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO), for each business operation, based on the impact of disruption on the enterprise’s objectives, reputation, compliance, and stakeholders. A BIA also helps to identify the dependencies, resources, and interdependencies of the business operations, and to rank them according to their importance and urgency. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 671
Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?
It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.
It requires more resources than other methods
It produces the results in numeric form.
It is based on impact analysis of information assets.
The drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis is that it requires more resources than other methods. Quantitative risk analysis is a method of risk analysis that assigns numeric values to the exposures of assets, the impact and likelihood of risk events, and the cost and benefit of risk responses. Quantitative risk analysis can provide more precise and objective results, and support the risk-based decision making process. However, quantitative risk analysis also requires more resources than other methods, such as data, time, expertise, and tools, to collect, validate, and analyze the quantitative information, and to perform the complex calculations and simulations. Quantitative risk analysis may also be limited by the availability, reliability, and accuracy of the data, and the assumptions and models used. Assigning numeric values to exposures of assets, producing the results in numeric form, and being based on impact analysis of information assets are not drawbacks, but characteristics of quantitative risk analysis. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?
Balanced scorecard
Threat and vulnerability assessment
Compliance assessments
Business impact analysis (BIA)
A threat and vulnerability assessment is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential sources and impacts of risk events on an organization’s assets, processes, and objectives. It also estimates the probability of occurrence and the severity of consequences for each risk event. A threat and vulnerability assessment is the best way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization, as it provides a numerical or qualitative measure of the risk exposure and the level of uncertainty associated with the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, p. 68-69
Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?
Mean time to recover (MTTR)
IT system criticality classification
Incident management service level agreement (SLA)
Recovery time objective (RTO)
The best indicator of the risk appetite and tolerance level for the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures is the recovery time objective (RTO). The RTO is the maximum acceptable time or duration that a business process or an IT system can be disrupted or interrupted before it causes unacceptable impact or harm to the business. The RTO reflects the risk appetite and tolerance level for the business interruption risk, as it indicates how much disruption or interruption the business can tolerate or accept, and how quickly the business needs to resume or recover the business process or the IT system. The RTO also helps to determine the priorities and requirements for the business continuity and recovery planning, and to select and implement the appropriate continuity and recovery strategies and solutions. Mean time to recover (MTTR), IT system criticality classification, and incident management service level agreement (SLA) are not the best indicators of the risk appetite and tolerance level for the business interruption risk, as they are either the measures or the outcomes of the business continuity and recovery performance, and they do not directly indicate how much disruption or interruption the business can tolerate or accept. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50
An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?
The third party's IT operations manager
The organization's process owner
The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)
The organization's risk practitioner
The organization’s process owner should own the risk of exposing the payroll data due to a control weakness at the third party, because the process owner is the person who is responsible for the business process that generates, uses, or transfers the payroll data. The process owner should also ensure that the third party complies with the contractual obligations and service level agreements that define the expected performance and security standards of the payroll data processing. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not the primary owners of the risk, although they may also be involved in the risk management process. The third party’s IT operations manager, the third party’s chief risk officer (CRO), and the organization’s risk practitioner are examples of secondary owners or stakeholders of the risk, who may provide support, guidance, or oversight to the risk owner, but they are not accountable for the risk or the risk response strategy. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?
Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests
Decreased number of reported security incidents
Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations
Number of employees that complete security training
The best indicator of an effective IT security awareness program is the decreased success rate of internal phishing tests. Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that attempts to trick the users into revealing their personal or confidential information, or clicking on malicious links or attachments, by impersonating a legitimate entity or person. Internal phishing tests are simulated phishing attacks that are conducted by the enterprise to test the awareness and behavior of the employees in response to phishing emails. A decreased success rate of internal phishing tests means that fewer employees fall victim to the phishing attempts, and that they are more aware and vigilant of the phishing threats and techniques. A decreased success rate of internal phishing tests also implies that the IT security awareness program has effectively educated and trained the employees on how to recognize and report phishing emails, and how to protect themselves and the enterprise from phishing attacks. A decreased number of reported security incidents, a number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations, and a number of employees that complete security training are not as good indicators of an effective IT security awareness program as a decreased success rate of internal phishing tests, as they do not directly measure the awareness and behavior of the employees in relation to phishing, and may be influenced by other factors such as reporting mechanisms, enforcement policies, and training availability. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 220.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems?
A record of incidents is maintained.
Forensic investigations are facilitated.
Security violations can be identified.
Developing threats are detected earlier.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the greatest benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems is to detect developing threats earlier, because it helps to identify and correlate the patterns, trends, and anomalies that may indicate a potential attack or compromise. Log analysis is the process of examining and interpreting the log data generated by various systems, such as firewalls, servers, routers, and applications. Log analysis can provide valuable insights into the activities and events that occur on the systems, and can enable the timely detection and response to the emerging threats. The other options are not the greatest benefits of analyzing logs, as they are less proactive or less strategic than detecting developing threats earlier. Maintaining a record of incidents is a benefit of logging, but not of analyzing logs, as it involves storing and preserving the log data for future reference. Facilitating forensic investigations is a benefit of analyzing logs, but it is a reactive and tactical activity that occurs after an incident has happened. Identifying security violations is a benefit of analyzing logs, but it is a specific and operational activity that focuses on the compliance and enforcement of the security policies and standards. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 263.
Print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room. Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information?
Requiring a printer access code for each user
Using physical controls to access the printer room
Using video surveillance in the printer room
Ensuring printer parameters are properly configured
The best control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information when print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room is to require a printer access code for each user. A printer access code is a unique and secret code that the user needs to enter on the printer device to release and retrieve the print job. Requiring a printer access code for each user is the best control, as it helps to prevent or limit the unauthorized access, viewing, or copying of the confidential information on the print job, especially if the print job is left unattended or forgotten on the printer device. Requiring a printer access code for each user also helps to ensure the accountability and traceability of the user who sent the print job, and to support the audit and monitoring of the printer activity. Using physical controls to access the printer room, using video surveillance in the printer room, and ensuring printer parameters are properly configured are also useful controls, but they are not as effective as requiring a printer access code for each user, as they do not directly prevent or limit the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information on the print job, and they may not deter or detect the unauthorized access or misuse of the print job by the authorized users who have access to the printer room or device. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
Which of the following is MOST important when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Alignment with regulatory requirements
Availability of qualitative data
Properly set thresholds
Alignment with industry benchmarks
The most important factor when developing key risk indicators (KRIs) is to properly set thresholds, which are the predefined values or ranges that indicate the acceptable or unacceptable level of risk1. Thresholds can help to:
Trigger alerts or actions when the risk level exceeds or falls below the threshold, and enable timely and appropriate risk responses2.
Measure and monitor the performance and effectiveness of the risk responses, and ensure that the residual risk is within the risk appetite and tolerance3.
Communicate and report the risk status and performance to the stakeholders, and facilitate the decision-making and accountability for the risk management4.
The other factors are not the most important when developing KRIs, because:
Alignment with regulatory requirements is a necessary but not sufficient factor when developing KRIs, as it ensures that the KRIs comply with the applicable laws, rules, or standards that govern the organization’s activities and operations5. However, alignment with regulatory requirements does not guarantee that the KRIs are relevant and useful for the organization’s specific risk profile and objectives.
Availability of qualitative data is a desirable but not essential factor when developing KRIs, as it provides additional information or insights that may not be captured by quantitative data, such as opinions, perceptions, or feedback. However, availability of qualitative data does not ensure that the KRIs are reliable and consistent, as qualitative data may be subjective and difficult to measure and compare.
Alignment with industry benchmarks is a useful but not critical factor when developing KRIs, as it provides a reference or a standard for comparing the organization’s risk level and performance with its peers or competitors. However, alignment with industry benchmarks does not ensure that the KRIs are suitable and feasible for the organization’s specific context and capabilities.
References =
Threshold - CIO Wiki
Risk Thresholds: How to Set Them and When to Use Them - ProjectManager.com
Risk Appetite and Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Reporting - CIO Wiki
Regulatory Compliance - CIO Wiki
[Regulatory Risk - CIO Wiki]
[Qualitative Data - CIO Wiki
A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.
Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.
Outsource the process for updating the risk register.
Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.
 The best course of action for a newly hired risk practitioner who finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year is to identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews. This would help the risk practitioner to update the risk register with the current and relevant information on the risks facing the enterprise, such as their sources, drivers, indicators, likelihood, impact, and responses. It would also help the risk practitioner to evaluate the effectiveness of the existing controls, and to identify any new or emerging risks that need to be addressed. Identifying changes in risk factors and initiating risk reviews would enable the risk practitioner to maintain the accuracy and completeness of the risk register, and to provide valuable input for the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.1.1, page 2271
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system?
Complete an offsite business continuity exercise.
Conduct a compliance check against standards.
Perform a vulnerability assessment.
Measure the change in inherent risk.
A business system is a set of interconnected processes, functions, or activities that support the operations and objectives of a business1. A security gap is a weakness or flaw in a business system that can be exploited by a threat to cause harm or gain unauthorized access2. A control is a measure or mechanism that reduces the likelihood or impact of a security gap or threat3.
The best way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system is to perform a vulnerability assessment. A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the security gaps and threats in a business system, and testing the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls that are implemented to address them. A vulnerability assessment can help to:
Measure and compare the current and desired state of the security posture and performance of the business system
Detect and prioritize the most critical and urgent security gaps and threats that may compromise the business system or its objectives
Validate and validate the adequacy and reliability of the new controls and their ability to prevent, detect, or respond to security incidents or breaches
Provide feedback and recommendations for improving the security of the business system and enhancing the security awareness and culture of the organization
References = What is a Business System?, What is a Security Gap?, What is a Control?, [What is a Vulnerability Assessment?], [Vulnerability Assessment: A Guide for Business Leaders]
An IT department has provided a shared drive for personnel to store information to which all employees have access. Which of the following parties is accountable for the risk of potential loss of confidential information?
Risk manager
Data owner
End user
IT department
The data owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility to classify, label, and protect the information assets of the organization. The data owner is accountable for the risk of potential loss of confidential information, as they are the ones who determine the level of protection and access required for the data. The risk manager is responsible for identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks that may affect the organization, but they are not accountable for the data itself. The end user is the person who uses the information assets for their operational tasks, but they are not accountable for the data protection or classification. The IT department is responsible for providing the technical support and infrastructure for the information assets, but they are not accountable for the data ownership or risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Data Classification, p. 69-70.
An organization has initiated a project to launch an IT-based service to customers and take advantage of being the first to market. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to senior management?
More time has been allotted for testing.
The project is likely to deliver the product late.
A new project manager is handling the project.
The cost of the project will exceed the allotted budget.
Being the first to market is a competitive advantage that can help an organization gain market share, customer loyalty, and brand recognition. However, this advantage can be lost if the project is delayed and the competitors catch up or surpass the organization. Therefore, the project delivery time is of greatest concern to senior management, as it directly affects the strategic objective of the project. The other options are less critical, as they can be managed or mitigated by the project team. More time for testing can improve the quality and reliability of the product, a new project manager can bring fresh ideas and perspectives, and the cost overrun can be justified by the expected benefits and revenues of the product. References = Project Initiation: The First Step to Project Management [2023] • Asana, 12 Steps to Initiate and Plan a Successful Project
Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?
Cost-benefit analysis
Internal and external audit reports
Threat and vulnerability analysis
Control effectiveness assessment
IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how IT-related risks can affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or assets1. IT risk scenarios help to make IT risk more concrete and tangible, and to enable proper risk analysis and assessment2. IT risk scenarios are developed after IT risks are identified, and are used as inputs for risk analysis, where the frequency and impact of the scenarios are estimated3.
The most important factor to the successful development of IT risk scenarios is threat and vulnerability analysis. Threat and vulnerability analysis is the process of identifying and evaluating the potential sources and causes of IT risks, such as malicious actors, natural disasters, human errors, or technical failures4. Threat and vulnerability analysis can help to:
Define the scope and boundaries of the IT risk scenarios, and ensure that they are relevant and realistic
Identify the critical assets, processes, or functions that are exposed or affected by the IT risks, and assess their value and importance to the organization
Determine the likelihood and methods of the threat events, and the existing or potential weaknesses or gaps in the IT control environment
Estimate the potential consequences and impacts of the IT risks, such as financial losses, operational disruptions, reputational damages, or compliance violations5
References = IT Scenario Analysis in Enterprise Risk Management - ISACA, IT Risk Scenarios - Morland-Austin, Threat and Vulnerability Analysis - Wikipedia, Threat and Vulnerability Analysis - ISACA
Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for risk related to IT infrastructure failure?
Number of times the recovery plan is reviewed
Number of successful recovery plan tests
Percentage of systems with outdated virus protection
Percentage of employees who can work remotely
A key control indicator (KCI) is a metric that provides information on the extent to which a given control is meeting its intended objectives in terms of loss prevention, reduction, etc. A KCI should have an explicit relationship to both the specific control and the specific risk against which the control has been implemented. For risk related to IT infrastructure failure, a possible control is to have a recovery plan that can restore the critical IT services and minimize the impact of the failure. A KCI that can measure the effectiveness of this control is the number of successful recovery plan tests, which indicates how well the recovery plan can be executed in a real scenario. The higher the number of successful tests, the lower the risk of IT infrastructure failure. Therefore, this is the best KCI among the given options. References =
Integrating KRIs and KPIs for Effective Technology Risk Management
Key Control Indicator (KCI) - CIO Wiki
Infrastructure Issues: Understanding and Mitigating Risks
A global organization is planning to collect customer behavior data through social media advertising. Which of the following is the MOST important business risk to be considered?
Regulatory requirements may differ in each country.
Data sampling may be impacted by various industry restrictions.
Business advertising will need to be tailored by country.
The data analysis may be ineffective in achieving objectives.
 Customer behavior data is the information that reflects how customers interact with a brand, product, or service, such as their preferences, needs, motivations, and feedback1. Collecting customer behavior data through social media advertising can help an organization to understand its target market, improve its customer experience, and optimize its marketing strategies2.
However, collecting customer behavior data through social media advertising also poses significant business risks, especially for a global organization that operates in different countries. Among the four options given, the most important business risk to be considered is the regulatory requirements that may differ in each country. This means that the organization should:
Be aware of the different laws and regulations that govern the collection, processing, storage, and transfer of personal data in each country, such as the GDPR in the EU, the CCPA in California, or the PDPA in Singapore3
Ensure that the organization complies with the relevant data protection and privacy rules and standards in each country, such as obtaining consent, providing notice, ensuring security, and respecting rights4
Avoid or mitigate the potential legal, financial, reputational, or operational consequences of violating the data protection and privacy laws and regulations in each country, such as fines, lawsuits, sanctions, or loss of trust5
References = What is Customer Behavior Data?, How to Collect Customer Behavior Data for Marketing, Data Protection Laws Around the World, Data Protection and Privacy: The Age of Intelligent Machines, The Risks of Non-Compliance with Data Protection Laws
The MOST important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether:
the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value
there are sufficient internal resources to implement the control
the mitigation measures create compounding effects
the control eliminates the risk
The most important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value, because this determines the cost-benefit ratio of the control. A control should not be implemented if the cost of implementing and maintaining it is higher than the expected benefit of reducing the risk exposure. The other options are not the most important considerations, although they may also influence the control selection process. The availability of internal resources, the potential compounding effects, and the possibility of eliminating the risk are secondary factors that depend on the cost and value of the control. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?
Robust organizational communication channels
Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy
Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks
Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)
 Robust organizational communication channels are the best way to support ethical IT risk management practices, as they enable transparent and consistent sharing of risk information and decisions among all stakeholders. Ethical IT risk management requires that the risk management process and outcomes are aligned with the enterprise’s values, objectives, and obligations, and that the risk management activities are conducted with integrity, accountability, and respect. Robust organizational communication channels facilitate these aspects by ensuring that the risk management roles and responsibilities are clearly defined and communicated, that the risk management policies and procedures are widely disseminated and understood, that the risk management performance and results are regularly reported and reviewed, and that the risk management feedback and improvement suggestions are solicited and addressed. Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy, capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks, and rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs) are not directly related to ethical IT risk management practices, but rather to the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management process. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question201; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 201.
Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
The owner of the financial reporting process
The risk rating of affected financial processes
The list of relevant financial controls
The most important element of an organization’s risk register to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system is the risk rating of affected financial processes. A risk rating is a measure of the level and nature of the risk exposure, based on the impact and likelihood of the risk events. A risk rating can help to prioritize and respond to the risks, and to monitor and report the risk status. A new financial reporting system may introduce new or different risks, or change the existing risks, that could affect the financial processes of the organization, such as data quality, accuracy, timeliness, compliance, or security. Therefore, the risk rating of affected financial processes should be updated to reflect the current risk situation and to ensure that the risk register is accurate and complete. Key risk indicators (KRIs), the owner of the financial reporting process, and the list of relevant financial controls are not as important as the risk rating of affected financial processes, as they are not directly affected by the commissioning of a new financial reporting system, and they do not measure the risk exposure and impact of the financial processes. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 48.
Which of the following methods is an example of risk mitigation?
Not providing capability for employees to work remotely
Outsourcing the IT activities and infrastructure
Enforcing change and configuration management processes
Taking out insurance coverage for IT-related incidents
Risk mitigation is a proactive business strategy to identify, assess, and mitigate potential threats or uncertainties that could harm an organization’s objectives, assets, or operations1. It entails specific action plans to reduce the likelihood or impact of these identified risks2.
There are several recognized ways to mitigate risk, such as accepting, avoiding, hedging, transferring, or reducing the risk3. Among the options given, only C is an example of risk reduction, which involves implementing controls or safeguards to minimize the negative effects of the risk3. Change and configuration management processes are methods to ensure that changes to the IT systems or infrastructure are properly authorized, documented, tested, and implemented, and that the configuration of the IT assets is consistent and accurate. These processes can help prevent or detect errors, defects, or vulnerabilities that could compromise the IT performance, security, or availability.
The other options are not examples of risk mitigation, but rather risk avoidance (A), risk transfer (B), or risk acceptance (D). Risk avoidance means eliminating the risk entirely by not engaging in the activity that causes the risk3. Not providing capability for employees to work remotely could avoid the risk of data breaches or network issues, but it could also limit the productivity and flexibility of the workforce. Risk transfer means shifting the responsibility or burden of the risk to another party, such as a vendor or an insurer3. Outsourcing the IT activities and infrastructure could transfer the risk of IT failures or incidents to the service provider, but it could also introduce new risks such as vendor dependency or loss of control. Risk acceptance means acknowledging the risk and its consequences without taking any action to address it3. Taking out insurance coverage for IT-related incidents could provide some financial compensation in case of a loss, but it does not reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk itself. References =
5 Key Risk Mitigation Strategies (With Examples) | Indeed.com
10 Risk Mitigation techniques you need to know - Stakeholdermap.com
Risk Mitigation Strategies: Types & Examples (+ Free Template)
[Change and Configuration Management - ISACA]
Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?
Perform a risk assessment.
Perform root cause analysis.
Initiate disciplinary action.
Update the incident response plan.
An incident is an unplanned event that disrupts or degrades the normal operation or performance of an IT service, system, or network1. An incident can cause various negative impacts, such as service outages, data losses, security breaches, or customer dissatisfaction2. An incident can recur if the underlying cause or problem of the incident is not properly identified and resolved3.
The best course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring is to perform root cause analysis. Root cause analysis is a systematic process of finding and eliminating the fundamental cause or problem that led to the incident4. Root cause analysis can help to:
Prevent or minimize the recurrence of the incident by addressing the source of the problem, not just the symptoms or effects
Identify and implement corrective or preventive actions that can effectively resolve or mitigate the problem
Learn from the incident and improve the IT service, system, or network quality and reliability
Enhance the incident management and problem management processes and capabilities5
References = What is an Incident?, Incident Management - Wikipedia, Problem Management - Wikipedia, Root Cause Analysis - Wikipedia, Root Cause Analysis: A Guide for Business Leaders
Which of the following is MOST important to include in a risk assessment of an emerging technology?
Risk response plans
Risk and control ownership
Key controls
Impact and likelihood ratings
The most important thing to include in a risk assessment of an emerging technology is the impact and likelihood ratings of the risks associated with the technology. Impact and likelihood ratings are the measures of the potential consequences and probabilities of the risk events that could affect the achievement of the enterprise’s objectives. Impact and likelihood ratings can help to evaluate the level and nature of the risk exposure, and to prioritize the risks for further analysis and response. Impact and likelihood ratings can also help to communicate the risk profile and appetite of the enterprise, and to support the risk-based decision making. Risk response plans, risk and control ownership, and key controls are not as important as impact and likelihood ratings, as they are the outputs or outcomes of the risk assessment process, and not the inputs or components of the risk assessment process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?
Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process
Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives
Number of current test plans and procedures
Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test
 The best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes is the percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives. Recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable time period within which a business process or an IT service must be restored after a disruption. Recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time before the disruption. The percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO indicates how well the disaster recovery test meets the business continuity and recovery requirements and expectations, and how effectively the disaster recovery plan and procedures are executed. The percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO can also help to identify the gaps, weaknesses, and opportunities for improvement in the disaster recovery capabilities. Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process, number of current test plans and procedures, and number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test are not as good as the percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO, as they do not directly measure the achievement of the recovery objectives, and may not reflect the actual impact and performance of the disaster recovery test. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 130.
When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?
identification of control requirements
Alignment to business objectives
Consideration of new business strategies
inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance
Alignment to business objectives is the most important factor when developing a business case for a proposed security investment, because it demonstrates how the investment will support the enterprise’s mission, vision, and goals. A business case should show how the security investment will contribute to the value creation, risk reduction, and performance improvement of the enterprise. The other options are not the most important factors, although they may also be included in the business case. The identification of control requirements, the consideration of new business strategies, and the inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance are secondary factors that depend on the alignment to business objectives. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers
Which of the following BEST indicates whether security awareness training is effective?
User self-assessment
User behavior after training
Course evaluation
Quality of training materials
Security awareness training is a process of educating and informing the users about the security policies, procedures, and best practices of the organization, and the potential threats and risks that may affect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information and systems.
The best indicator of whether security awareness training is effective is user behavior after training. This means that the users demonstrate and apply the knowledge and skills that they have learned from the training, such as following the security rules and guidelines, reporting any security incidents or issues, avoiding any risky or malicious actions, etc.
User behavior after training helps to measure the actual impact and outcome of the training, compare them with the expected or desired objectives and standards, identify any gaps or issues that may affect the training effectiveness or efficiency, and take appropriate actions to address them.
The other options are not the best indicators of whether security awareness training is effective. They are either subjective or not essential for security awareness training.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 30
Information Technology & Security, page 24
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 22
Senior management has asked the risk practitioner for the overall residual risk level for a process that contains numerous risk scenarios. Which of the following should be provided?
The sum of residual risk levels for each scenario
The loss expectancy for aggregated risk scenarios
The highest loss expectancy among the risk scenarios
The average of anticipated residual risk levels
Residual risk is the remaining risk after the risk response has been implemented. Residual risk can be expressed as a combination of the probability and impact of the risk scenario, or as a single value such as loss expectancy. Residual risk can be compared with the inherent risk, which is the risk level before considering the existing controls or responses, to evaluate the risk reduction and value creation of the risk response. Senior management has asked the risk practitioner for the overall residual risk level for a process that contains numerous risk scenarios. The best way to provide this information is to calculate the average of anticipated residual risk levels for each risk scenario, and to present it as a single value or a range. This can help to provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the residual risk exposure and performance of the process, as well as to align it with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. The sum of residual risk levels for each scenario, the loss expectancy for aggregated risk scenarios, or the highest loss expectancy among the risk scenarios are not the best ways to provide the overall residual risk level, as they may overestimate or underestimate the risk exposure and performance of the process, and may not reflect the actual risk reduction and value creation of the risk response. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, p. 108-109
Legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by:
the jurisdiction in which an organization has its principal headquarters
international law and a uniform set of regulations.
the laws and regulations of each individual country
international standard-setting bodies.
The legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by the laws and regulations of each individual country. Legal and regulatory risk is the risk of non-compliance or violation of the applicable laws and regulations that govern the business activities, operations, or transactions. Business conducted over the Internet involves the use of the global network of interconnected computers and devices to exchange information, goods, or services across the geographic boundaries. Business conducted over the Internet may expose the enterprise to various legal and regulatory risks, such as data protection, privacy, security, intellectual property, consumer protection, taxation, or jurisdiction issues. The legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by the laws and regulations of each individual country, as each country may have different or conflicting laws and regulations that apply to the business conducted over the Internet, and that may change or vary over time. The laws and regulations of each individual country may also impose different or additional obligations, requirements, or restrictions on the enterprise, and may subject the enterprise to different or multiple enforcement actions, penalties, or disputes. The jurisdiction in which an organization has its principal headquarters, international law and a uniform set of regulations, and international standard-setting bodies are not the drivers of the legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet, as they do not reflect the diversity and complexity of the legal and regulatory landscape that the enterprise may face when conducting business over the Internet. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of violating privacy laws when transferring personal information lo a supplier?
Encrypt the data while in transit lo the supplier
Contractually obligate the supplier to follow privacy laws.
Require independent audits of the supplier's control environment
Utilize blockchain during the data transfer
 Contractually obligating the supplier to follow privacy laws is the best way to mitigate the risk of violating privacy laws when transferring personal information to a supplier, because it ensures that the supplier is legally bound to comply with the applicable laws and regulations that protect the privacy and security of the personal information. This also creates a clear accountability and liability for the supplier in case of a privacy breach, and defines the rights and obligations of both parties in relation to the personal information. The other options are not the best ways to mitigate the risk of violating privacy laws, although they may also be helpful in reducing the likelihood or impact of a privacy breach. Encrypting the data while in transit to the supplier, requiring independent audits of the supplier’s control environment, and utilizing blockchain during the data transfer are examples of technical or assurance controls that aim to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the personal information, but they do not address the legal or contractual aspects of the privacy laws. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
The PRIMARY reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure:
the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled.
security controls are tested prior to implementation.
compliance with corporate policies.
the risk response strategy has been decided.
The primary reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure that the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled, as this can help to reduce the risk exposure of the organization and to achieve the desired risk objectives. Tracking the status of risk mitigation plans can also help to monitor and evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the risk controls, and to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise during the implementation. Tracking the status of risk mitigation plans can also provide feedback and information to the risk owners and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the risk strategy and response actions accordingly. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 251. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 251. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 251. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of The following should be of GREATEST concern for an organization considering the adoption of a bring your own device (BYOD) initiative?
Device corruption
Data loss
Malicious users
User support
 A bring your own device (BYOD) initiative allows employees to use their personal devices, such as smartphones, tablets, or laptops, for work purposes. This can provide benefits such as increased productivity, flexibility, and employee satisfaction. However, it also introduces significant risks, such as data loss, data leakage, malware infection, unauthorized access, and compliance violations. Among these risks, data loss is of greatest concern for an organization, as it can have severe consequences, such as reputational damage, legal liability, financial loss, and competitive disadvantage. Data loss can occur due to various reasons, such as device theft, loss, damage, or disposal, accidental deletion, unauthorized transfer, or malicious attack. Therefore, an organization considering the adoption of a BYOD initiative should implement appropriate controls, such as encryption, authentication, remote wipe, backup, and data classification, to protect the data stored or accessed on the personal devices. References = Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) Policy: What You Need to Know, BYOD Risks: What You Need to Know, BYOD Security: 8 Risks and How to Mitigate Them
An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?
Number of training sessions completed
Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score
Percentage of attendees versus total staff
Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a metric that reflects how well an organization is achieving its goals and objectives. A KPI should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound. For an IT department that has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies, the best KPI to reflect the effectiveness of the training is the percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score. This KPI measures the level of knowledge and understanding of the security policies among the staff members, as well as the quality and impact of the training sessions. It also indicates whether the training sessions have met the predefined criteria and standards for success. A high percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score implies that the training sessions have been effective in improving user awareness of organizational information security policies. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, p. 117-118
An organization has detected unauthorized logins to its client database servers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?
Potential increase in regulatory scrutiny
Potential system downtime
Potential theft of personal information
Potential legal risk
Potential theft of personal information should be of greatest concern for an organization that has detected unauthorized logins to its client database servers, as it poses a serious threat to the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the client data and the reputation and trust of the organization. Potential theft of personal information is a scenario that involves the unauthorized access, disclosure, or use of the client data by malicious actors, such as hackers, competitors, or insiders. Potential theft of personal information can have significant impacts and consequences for the organization and its clients, such as:
It can compromise the privacy and security of the client data, and expose the clients to identity theft, fraud, or blackmail.
It can violate the legal and regulatory obligations and requirements of the organization, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), or the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), and result in fines, penalties, or lawsuits.
It can damage the reputation and credibility of the organization, and erode the confidence and loyalty of the clients, and lead to loss of business or market share.
The other options are not the greatest concerns for an organization that has detected unauthorized logins to its client database servers. Potential increase in regulatory scrutiny is a possible consequence of the unauthorized logins, as it may trigger audits, investigations, or sanctions by the relevant authorities, but it is not the most critical or immediate concern. Potential system downtime is a possible consequence of the unauthorized logins, as it may disrupt or degrade the performance or availability of the database servers or the applications that depend on them, but it is not the most severe or lasting concern. Potential legal risk is a possible consequence of the unauthorized logins, as it may expose the organization to litigation or liability claims by the affected clients or parties, but it is not the most direct or urgent concern. References = Data Breach Response: A Guide for Business - Federal Trade Commission, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, How to Prevent Unauthorized Access to Your Database - ScaleGrid
When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is MOST important to verify whether the:
business process objectives have been met.
control adheres to regulatory standards.
residual risk objectives have been achieved.
control process is designed effectively.
When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is most important to verify whether the residual risk objectives have been achieved, as this indicates the extent to which the control processes have reduced the risk to an acceptable level. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls, and it should be aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. Business process objectives, regulatory standards, and control process design are not the most important factors to verify, as they do not directly measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the control processes in managing the risk. References = CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 209.
A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Report the issue to internal audit.
Submit a request to change management.
Conduct a risk assessment.
Review the business impact assessment.
The first course of action for a risk practitioner when discovering a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched is to conduct a risk assessment. A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that could affect the achievement of the objectives of the system or the organization. A risk assessment helps to determine the level and nature of the risk exposure, and to prioritize and respond to the risks. Conducting a risk assessment is the first course of action, as it helps to understand the source, cause, and impact of the deficiency, and to estimate the likelihood and consequences of the risk events that could exploit the deficiency. Conducting a risk assessment also helps to identify and evaluate the existing or potential controls or mitigations that could address the deficiency, and to recommend the appropriate risk treatment options. Reporting the issue to internal audit, submitting a request to change management, and reviewing the business impact assessment are not the first courses of action, as they are either the outputs or the inputs of the risk assessment process, and they do not address the primary need of assessing the risk situation and status. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
Senior management has asked a risk practitioner to develop technical risk scenarios related to a recently developed enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. These scenarios will be owned by the system manager. Which of the following would be the BEST method to use when developing the scenarios?
Cause-and-effect diagram
Delphi technique
Bottom-up approach
Top-down approach
A cause-and-effect diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram or an Ishikawa diagram, is a graphical tool that helps to identify and analyze the potential causes and effects of a problem or an event. A cause-and-effect diagram can be used to develop technical risk scenarios related to a recently developed ERP system, because it can help to:
Break down the complex problem or event into manageable and measurable categories and subcategories of causes and effects
Visualize the relationships and interactions among the various factors that contribute to the problem or event
Identify the root causes and the most significant effects of the problem or event
Generate ideas and hypotheses for testing and validating the problem or event
Communicate and present the problem or event clearly and logically to the stakeholders1
A cause-and-effect diagram can be constructed by following these steps:
Define the problem or event and write it in a box on the right side of the diagram
Draw a horizontal line from the box to the left side of the diagram, representing the main spine of the fishbone
Identify the major categories of causes that affect the problem or event, such as people, process, technology, environment, etc., and write them on the branches of the spine
For each category, brainstorm and list the possible subcategories and specific causes that influence the problem or event, and write them on the sub-branches of the spine
For each cause, identify and list the possible effects or consequences that result from the problem or event, and write them on the sub-sub-branches of the spine
Analyze the diagram and prioritize the causes and effects based on their frequency, severity, and controllability
Develop technical risk scenarios based on the most critical causes and effects, and describe how they could affect the ERP system and the organization1
Which of the following practices BEST mitigates risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization?
Customized regional training on local laws and regulations
Policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions
Ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture
Zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers
The best practice to mitigate risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization is to provide ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture. A common risk culture is a set of shared values, beliefs, and behaviors that influence how the organization identifies, analyzes, responds to, and monitors risks. Ongoing awareness training can help to promote a common risk culture by educating the employees about the enterprise’s risk management objectives, policies, procedures, roles, and responsibilities, as well as the ethical standards and expectations that apply to their work. Ongoing awareness training can also help to reinforce the benefits of ethical decision making and the consequences of unethical behavior. Customized regional training on local laws and regulations, policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions, and zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers are also useful practices, but they are not as effective as ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 37.
Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?
Threat event
Vulnerability event
Technical event
Loss event
A loss event is the result of a realized risk scenario, as it represents the actual occurrence of an adverse outcome or impact due to the exploitation of a vulnerability by a threat. A threat event, a vulnerability event, and a technical event are not the results of a realized risk scenario, as they are more related to the sources, conditions, or mechanisms of the risk, respectively, rather than the outcome or impact of the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?
Service level agreements (SLA)
Vendor references
Benchmarking data
Accountability matrix
Service level agreements (SLA) are contracts that define the expected level of performance and quality of service that an IT service provider will deliver to its customers. SLA are the best indicators that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements, as they specify the measurable and verifiable criteria that the IT service provider must meet or exceed, such as availability, reliability, security, and responsiveness. SLA also establish the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved, the methods of monitoring and reporting the service performance, and the consequences of non-compliance or breach of the agreement. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 232. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 232. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 232.
Which of the following is MOST important requirement to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor contract to ensure data is protected?
The vendor must provide periodic independent assurance reports.
The vendor must host data in a specific geographic location.
The vendor must be held liable for regulatory fines for failure to protect data.
The vendor must participate in an annual vendor performance review.
The vendor must host data in a specific geographic location to ensure that the data is protected by the applicable data protection laws of the EU or the country where the data originates. This is especially important for SaaS customers who transfer personal data from the EU to third countries, as they need to comply with the GDPR and the new Standard Contractual Clauses (SCCs) that regulate such transfers. The vendor must also provide adequate security measures and guarantees to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or loss. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: IT Risk Mitigation, Section 5.3: IT Risk Mitigation Strategies and Approaches, Page 253; Data Protection – New EU Standard Contractual Clauses - Bodle Law.
The PRIMARY benefit of selecting an appropriate set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:
serve as a basis for measuring risk appetite.
align with the organization's risk profile.
provide a warning of emerging high-risk conditions.
provide data for updating the risk register.
According to the ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control study guide and handbook, the primary benefit of selecting an appropriate set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they provide a warning of emerging high-risk conditions. KRIs are metrics that monitor changes in the level of risk exposure and contribute to the early warning signs that enable organizations to report risks, prevent crises, and mitigate them in time. KRIs help risk managers to identify potential threats, assess their impact and likelihood, and take proactive measures to reduce the risk or seize the opportunity12
1: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Study Guide, 4th Edition, page 33 2: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Handbook, 1st Edition, page 25
An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?
Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.
Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.
Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.
Transfer a read-only version of the data.
Using a VPN ensures secure transmission of data over a public network by encrypting the communication channel, mitigating risks associated with data interception. This is consistent with Data Security Controls within the CRISC framework.
Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?
Vulnerability assessment
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Penetration testing
Root cause analysis
A vulnerability assessment is a process that identifies and quantifies vulnerabilities in a system. It is the most effective process to determine the relevance of threats for risk scenarios as it helps in identifying potential security threats and vulnerabilities, quantifying the seriousness of each, and prioritizing techniques to mitigate attack and protect IT resources1.
References
2Identifying and Estimating Cybersecurity Risk for Enterprise Risk Management
3Threat Modeling Process | OWASP Foundation
1Threat modeling explained: A process for anticipating cyber attacks
4Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment: A Guide - SafetyCulture
5How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA
Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?
To provide insight into the effectiveness of the internal control environment
To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls
To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers
To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level
The ultimate objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process is to provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level, as they indicate the performance and adequacy of the controls, and alert the stakeholders to any control gaps or deficiencies that may affect the risk exposure and impact. The other options are not the ultimate objectives, as they are more related to the insight, basis, or benchmark of the risk management process, respectively, rather than the early warning sign of the risk management process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
Which of the following is MOST important for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management's risk appetite?
Risk management budget
Risk management industry trends
Risk tolerance
Risk capacity
The most important factor for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management’s risk appetite is C. Risk tolerance1
According to the CRISC Review Manual, risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that management is willing to allow for any specific risk as the enterprise pursues its objectives. Risk tolerance reflects the degree of uncertainty that an organization is prepared to accept in relation to achieving its goals2
When an IT initiative exceeds management’s risk appetite, it means that the potential benefits of the initiative are outweighed by the potential negative consequences or losses that could result from the initiative. However, management may still decide to invest in the initiative if the level of uncertainty or variation is within the organization’s risk tolerance. For example, management may accept a higher level of risk for a strategic or innovative initiative that could provide a competitive advantage or a significant return on investment3
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?
Regularly updated risk management procedures
A management-approved risk dashboard
A current control framework
A regularly updated risk register
ï‚· Understanding the Question:
The question asks what provides the best evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization.
ï‚· Analyzing the Options:
A. Regularly updated risk management procedures: Important but not as comprehensive as a risk register.
B. A management-approved risk dashboard: Useful for reporting but not as comprehensive as a risk register.
C. A current control framework: Important but does not provide ongoing evidence of risk management practices.
D. A regularly updated risk register: Provides comprehensive and current information on risks, their status, and the effectiveness of risk management efforts.
ï‚· Detailed Explanation:
Risk Register: A regularly updated risk register reflects the organization's ongoing risk management activities. It includes details of identified risks, their assessments, mitigation strategies, and current status, providing a comprehensive view of the risk landscape.
Evidence of Practices: Keeping the risk register up-to-date demonstrates that the organization is actively monitoring and managing risks, making it a clear indicator of robust risk management practices.
References:
CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Reporting, highlights the importance of maintaining an updated risk register as part of effective risk management practices​​.
The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
Insufficient risk tolerance
Optimized control management
Effective risk management
Over-controlled environment
 The situation where the cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss is best described as an over-controlled environment, as it indicates that the control is not cost-effective and may be unnecessary or excessive. Insufficient risk tolerance, optimized control management, and effective risk management are not the best descriptions, as they do not reflect the imbalance between the control cost and the potential loss. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 149.
Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?
Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted
Revoking access for users changing roles
Monitoring user activity using security logs
Granting access based on least privilege
Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted helps to mitigate risks associated with excessive access by authorized users. This practice ensures that users have only the necessary permissions required to perform their roles and that any outdated or unnecessary access rights are removed promptly. Here’s a detailed explanation:
Periodic Reviews of Authorizations Granted:
Regular Audits: Regularly scheduled reviews or audits help identify any discrepancies in user access levels. These audits ensure that users' access rights align with their current roles and responsibilities within the organization.
Detection of Excessive Privileges: During these reviews, any excessive or unnecessary access privileges that have been granted can be identified and revoked. This reduces the risk of unauthorized activities, either intentional or accidental, by users who have more access than required.
Compliance with Policies: Ensuring that user access rights are reviewed periodically aligns with best practices and regulatory requirements, supporting the overall governance framework of the organization.
Comparison with Other Options:
Revoking Access for Users Changing Roles: While revoking access for users changing roles is crucial, it is a reactive measure that only applies when roles change. Periodic reviews are proactive and continuous.
Monitoring User Activity Using Security Logs: Monitoring security logs is essential for detecting and responding to suspicious activities but does not prevent the initial granting of excessive access.
Granting Access Based on Least Privilege: Least privilege is a fundamental principle, but it needs to be continuously enforced and validated through periodic reviews to be effective.
Best Practices:
Automation: Implementing automated tools for access reviews can streamline the process and reduce human errors.
Documentation: Maintaining detailed records of the reviews and any changes made helps in compliance and provides an audit trail.
Segregation of Duties: Ensuring that the review process itself is subject to segregation of duties, preventing conflicts of interest and ensuring objectivity.
CRISC Review Manual: Discusses the importance of periodic reviews in ensuring the effectiveness of access controls and maintaining a secure environment.
ISACA Standards and Guidelines: Emphasize the need for continuous monitoring and review of user access to mitigate risks associated with excessive permissions.
References:
A poster has been displayed in a data center that reads. "Anyone caught taking photographs in the data center may be subject to disciplinary action." Which of the following control types has been implemented?
Corrective
Detective
Deterrent
Preventative
 A deterrent control is a type of control that has been implemented by displaying a poster that reads “Anyone caught taking photographs in the data center may be subject to disciplinary action.â€, as it aims to discourage or prevent unauthorized or malicious activities by warning the potential perpetrators of the consequences or sanctions. The other options are not the correct types of control, as they are more related to the correction, detection, or prevention of unauthorized or malicious activities, respectively, rather than the deterrence of unauthorized or malicious activities. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for providing assurance to the board of directors and senior management during the evaluation of a risk management program implementation?
Risk management
Business units
External audit
Internal audit
Role of Internal Audit:
Independent Assurance: Internal audit provides an independent assessment of the effectiveness of the risk management program, offering assurance to the board of directors and senior management.
Objective Evaluation: They evaluate whether the risk management processes are properly designed and operating effectively.
Responsibilities of Internal Audit:
Review Risk Management Implementation: Assess how well the risk management program has been implemented and whether it meets the organization's goals.
Compliance Check: Ensure that the risk management program complies with relevant regulations and standards.
Reporting: Provide detailed reports to the board and senior management on the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management program.
Comparison with Other Options:
Risk Management: While involved in the implementation, they are not independent and therefore cannot provide objective assurance.
Business Units: They are responsible for managing risks but not for providing independent assurance.
External Audit: While they provide assurance, their scope is generally broader and less frequent compared to the continuous oversight by internal audit.
Best Practices:
Regular Audits: Conduct regular audits to ensure continuous improvement and alignment with organizational goals.
Stakeholder Communication: Maintain clear communication channels between internal audit, the board, and senior management.
CRISC Review Manual: Emphasizes the importance of internal audit in providing assurance to the board and senior management on the effectiveness of the risk management program​​.
ISACA Standards: Highlight the critical role of internal audit in risk governance and compliance​​.
References:
Which of the following is MOST important when identifying an organization's risk exposure associated with Internet of Things (loT) devices?
Defined remediation plans
Management sign-off on the scope
Manual testing of device vulnerabilities
Visibility into all networked devices
The most important factor when identifying an organization’s risk exposure associated with IoT devices is visibility into all networked devices. This means having a comprehensive inventory of all the IoT devices connected to the organization’s network, as well as their configurations, functions, and security status. Visibility enables the organization to identify the potential threats and vulnerabilities that IoT devices pose, as well as the impact and likelihood of those risks. Visibility also helps the organization to monitor the behavior and performance of IoT devices, detect any anomalies or incidents, and respond accordingly. Without visibility, the organization may be unaware of the existence, location, or condition of some IoT devices, which could lead to undetected breaches, data loss, or operational disruptions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, Page 28; 8 Internet of Things Threats and Risks to Be Aware of - SecurityScorecard Blog.
An organization uses a web application hosted by a cloud service that is populated by data sent to the vendor via email on a monthly basis. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when analyzing the risk associated with the application?
Whether the service provider's data center is located in the same country
Whether the data sent by email has been encrypted
Whether the data has been appropriately classified
Whether the service provider contract allows right of onsite audit
Data classification is the process of assigning labels or categories to data based on its sensitivity, value, and criticality to the organization. Data classification is the first consideration when analyzing the risk associated with the web application hosted by a cloud service, as it determines the level of protection and controls required for the data. Data classification can help the organization to comply with legal, regulatory, and contractual obligations, such as GDPR, CCPA, and PCI DSS, and to prevent data breaches, leaks, or losses. Data classification can also help the organization to evaluate the suitability and trustworthiness of the cloud service provider, and to negotiate the terms and conditions of the service level agreement (SLA).
References:
•ISACA, Cloud Computing: Business Benefits With Security, Governance and Assurance Perspectives, 2009, p. 141
•ISACA, Data Classification: What It Is, Why You Should Care and How to Perform It2
Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?
Proportion of end users having more than one account
Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)
Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts
Percentage of accounts that have not been activated
ï‚· User Access Management:
Effective user access management ensures that accounts are properly created, managed, and disabled to prevent unauthorized access.
Monitoring the percentage of accounts disabled within the SLA helps ensure that the organization responds promptly to changes in user status, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
ï‚· Importance of KPI:
This KPI measures the efficiency and effectiveness of the user access management process by tracking how quickly accounts are disabled when no longer needed.
A high percentage indicates timely action, reducing the risk of orphaned accounts being exploited.
ï‚· Comparing Other KPIs:
Proportion of End Users Having More Than One Account: Useful but not directly related to the timeliness of disabling accounts.
Proportion of Privileged to Non-Privileged Accounts: Important for monitoring privilege distribution but does not measure process efficiency.
Percentage of Accounts Not Activated: Indicates potential inefficiencies but does not address the risk of active accounts.
ï‚· References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the importance of timely account management to mitigate access risks (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3 User Access Management)​​.
The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of:
network operations.
the cybersecurity function.
application development.
the business function.
The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of the business function, because they are the primary stakeholder and beneficiary of the web application, and they are responsible for defining and achieving the business objectives and requirements that the web application supports or enables. An operational risk is a risk of loss or damage resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, or systems, or from external events. An attack on a web application is a type of operational risk that involves a malicious or unauthorized attempt to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the web application, such as a denial-of-service attack, a SQL injection attack, or a cross-site scripting attack. A web application is an application that runs on a web server and can be accessed or used through a web browser, such as an online shopping site, a social media platform, or a web-based email service. A business function is a set of activities or tasks that support or enable the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy, such as marketing, sales, or customer service. A risk owner is a person or role that has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk, and to implement and monitor the risk response and controls. The individual in charge of the business function should be the risk owner, as they have the best understanding and interest of the web application and its business value and impact, and they have the ability and responsibility to manage the operational risk associated with the attacks on the web application. The individual in charge of network operations, the cybersecurity function, or application development are all possible candidates for the risk owner, but they are not the best choice, as they may not have the same level of stake and influence in the web application and its business objectives and requirements, and they may have different or conflicting priorities or perspectives on the operational risk and its management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 101
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?
Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)
Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register
Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)
Developing contingency plans for key processes
Key risk indicators provide predictive insights into emerging risks, enabling timely interventions to keep risks within acceptable levels. This aligns with Risk Monitoring and Reporting best practices.
Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?
Creating metrics to track remote connections
Updating the organizational policy for remote access
Updating remote desktop software
Implementing multi-factor authentication
Automated asset management software is the best method to track asset inventory, as it can provide accurate, timely, and comprehensive information about the organization’s IT assets, such as their location, status, configuration, ownership, and value. Automated asset management software can also help to optimize the utilization, performance, and lifecycle of the IT assets, and to reduce the risks of loss, theft, damage, or obsolescence. Automated asset management software can integrate with other systems, such as configuration management database (CMDB), service desk, and security tools, to enable better visibility, control, and governance of the IT assets.
References:
•ISACA, IT Asset Valuation, Risk Assessment and Control Implementation Model1
•ISACA, IT Asset Management: It’s All About Process2
•ISACA, IT Asset Management Audit/Assurance Program3
A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Implement new controls.
Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).
Redesign the process.
Re-evaluate the existing control design.
ï‚· Understanding KPIs:
Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are metrics used to evaluate the efficiency and effectiveness of a process. They must be accurate and relevant to provide meaningful insights.
ï‚· Process Inefficiency Despite No Control Issues:
If a KPI shows inefficiency but no control issues are noted, it suggests that the KPI may not be accurately reflecting the process performance.
Recalibrating the KPI ensures that it correctly measures what it is intended to, providing a true picture of the process efficiency.
ï‚· Steps for Recalibration:
Review the current KPI and its alignment with process objectives.
Adjust the KPI parameters or thresholds to better reflect process performance.
Validate the recalibrated KPI with historical data to ensure accuracy.
ï‚· Comparing Other Actions:
Implementing New Controls: Premature without understanding the root cause of the KPI discrepancy.
Redesigning the Process: Extensive and unnecessary if the KPI is simply miscalibrated.
Re-Evaluating Existing Control Design: Important but secondary to ensuring KPI accuracy.
ï‚· References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of accurate KPIs in monitoring process performance and the need for recalibration when discrepancies are found (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.14 Key Performance Indicators)​​.
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of relevant risk scenarios?
Perform quantitative risk analysis of historical data.
Adopt an industry-recognized risk framework.
Use qualitative risk assessment methodologies.
Conduct brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders.
Brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders are the best way to facilitate the development of relevant risk scenarios, as they can generate diverse and creative ideas, perspectives, and insights about the potential risks and their impact on the organization’s objectives and operations. Brainstorming sessions can also foster collaboration, communication, and engagement among the stakeholders, and help to identify and prioritize the most significant and realistic risk scenarios. Brainstorming sessions can be guided by an industry-recognized risk framework, such as ISACA’s Risk IT, and supported by qualitative or quantitative risk assessment methodologies, but they are not sufficient by themselves to develop relevant risk scenarios.
References:
•ISACA, How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements1
•ISACA, Risk Scenario Development and Analysis2
Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?
Balanced scorecard
Risk management framework
Capability maturity model
Risk scenario analysis
The most useful tool for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state is the capability maturity model, as it provides a structured and standardized way to assess the current and target levels of maturity, performance, and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to identify the gaps and improvement opportunities. The balanced scorecard, the risk management framework, and the risk scenario analysis are not the most useful tools, as they are more related to the evaluation, design, or identification of the risk management process, respectively, rather than the measurement of the risk management process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
The MOST important measure of the effectiveness of risk management in project implementation is the percentage of projects:
introduced into production without high-risk issues.
having the risk register updated regularly.
having key risk indicators (KRIs) established to measure risk.
having an action plan to remediate overdue issues.
The percentage of projects introduced into production without high-risk issues is the most important measure of the effectiveness of risk management in project implementation, as it reflects the ability of risk management to ensure that the project deliverables meet the quality, functionality, and security requirements, and do not introduce unacceptable risks to the organization. The percentage of projects having the risk register updated regularly, having key risk indicators (KRIs) established to measure risk, or having an action plan to remediate overdue issues are not the most important measures, as they are more related to the process, performance, or compliance of risk management, rather than the outcome or value of risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?
Negotiating terms of adoption
Understanding the timeframe to implement
Completing a gap analysis
Initiating the conversion
Completing a gap analysis identifies discrepancies between current controls and the requirements of the IT control framework, ensuring a focused approach to compliance. This supports Risk Assessment for Compliance Requirements.
Which of the following events is MOST likely to trigger the need to conduct a risk assessment?
An incident resulting in data loss
Introduction of a new product line
Changes in executive management
Updates to the information security policy
The introduction of a new product line is most likely to trigger the need to conduct a risk assessment. Here’s a detailed explanation:
Risk Assessment Triggers:
New Initiatives: New initiatives, such as the introduction of a new product line, significantly alter the business landscape. They introduce new processes, technologies, and potentially new regulatory requirements, all of which bring new risks that must be assessed.
Business Impact: A new product line can affect multiple areas of the business, including production, marketing, sales, and customer service. It can also impact the existing product portfolio and market position, requiring a thorough risk assessment to understand these impacts.
Comparison with Other Events:
Incident Resulting in Data Loss: While significant, an incident resulting in data loss is typically a reactive trigger for a specific security or forensic investigation rather than a comprehensive risk assessment.
Changes in Executive Management: Changes in executive management may necessitate a review of strategic risks but are less likely to trigger a comprehensive risk assessment compared to launching a new product.
Updates to the Information Security Policy: Updating the information security policy is an internal process that may not fundamentally alter the risk landscape like introducing a new product line.
Best Practices:
Comprehensive Planning: Before launching a new product, conduct a comprehensive risk assessment to identify potential risks, develop mitigation strategies, and ensure alignment with business objectives.
Stakeholder Involvement: Engage key stakeholders from various departments to provide insights and ensure all potential risks are considered.
CRISC Review Manual: Highlights the importance of conducting risk assessments in response to significant changes in the business environment, such as new product introductions.
ISACA Guidelines: Emphasize the need for risk assessments to ensure that new initiatives align with organizational risk appetite and tolerance.
References:
An organization has just started accepting credit card payments from customers via the corporate website. Which of the following is MOST likely to increase as a result of this new initiative?
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Inherent risk
Residual risk
Inherent risk is the most likely to increase as a result of the new initiative, because it is the risk that exists before any controls or mitigating factors are applied. Inherent risk reflects the natural or raw level of exposure that the organization faces from a given risk source or scenario. Accepting credit card payments from customers via the corporate website introduces new sources and types of risk, such as fraud, theft, data breach, or non-compliance, that increase the inherent risk level of the organization. Risk tolerance, risk appetite, and residual risk are all related to the risk management process, but they are not the most likely to increase as a result of the new initiative, as they depend on the organization’s risk strategy, objectives, and controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 51
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?
Requirements for regulatory obligations.
Cost of control implementation.
Effectiveness of risk treatment.
Number of risk response options.
The effectiveness of risk treatment determines whether the selected response sufficiently mitigates the identified risk. This consideration ensures alignment with risk appetite and reduces residual risk to acceptable levels, reflecting the priorities set out in the Risk Response and Treatment domain of CRISC.
When confirming whether implemented controls are operating effectively, which of the following is MOST important to review?
Results of benchmarking studies
Results of risk assessments
Number of emergency change requests
Maturity model
The number of emergency change requests is the most important factor to review when confirming whether implemented controls are operating effectively, as it indicates the frequency and severity of incidents or issues that require urgent changes to the controls, and may reflect the control deficiencies or failures. The results of benchmarking studies, the results of risk assessments, and the maturity model are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the comparison, evaluation, or improvement of the controls, respectively, rather than the confirmation of the control effectiveness. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?
Regional competitors' policies and standards
Ability to monitor and enforce compliance
Industry-standard templates
Differences in regulatory requirements
Differences in regulatory requirements are the most important factor for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards. This is because different countries or regions may have different laws, regulations, or standards that govern the protection of information and data, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) in the United States, or the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada. A multinational organization must comply with the applicable regulatory requirements in each jurisdiction where it operates, or it may face legal, financial, or reputational risks. Therefore, the organization should develop its security policies and standards in a way that meets or exceeds the minimum regulatory requirements, and also aligns with its business objectives and risk appetite. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key elements of IT governance is to ensure compliance with external laws and regulations1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, differences in regulatory requirements is the correct answer to this question2.
Regional competitors’ policies and standards, ability to monitor and enforce compliance, and industry-standard templates are not the most important factors for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards. These factors may be useful or relevant, but they are not as critical or mandatory as the differences in regulatory requirements. Regional competitors’ policies and standards may provide some insights or benchmarks, but they may not reflect the organization’s specific needs or risks. Ability to monitor and enforce compliance is an important aspect of implementing and maintaining security policies and standards, but it does not determine the content or scope of the policies and standards. Industry-standard templates may offer some guidance or best practices, but they may not cover all the regulatory requirements or the organization’s unique circumstances.
After an annual risk assessment is completed, which of the following would be MOST important to communicate to stakeholders?
A decrease in threats
A change in the risk profile
An increase in reported vulnerabilities
An increase in identified risk scenarios
 A change in the risk profile would be the most important information to communicate to stakeholders after an annual risk assessment is completed, as it indicates how the risk landscape of the organization has changed over time, and how it affects the achievement of the business goals and objectives. A decrease in threats, an increase in reported vulnerabilities, and an increase in identified risk scenarios are also important information, but they are not the most important, as they are specific aspects of the risk profile, and do not provide a holistic view of the risk exposure and appetite of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations?
Escalate to senior management.
Transfer the risk.
Implement monitoring controls.
Recalculate the risk.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations is to escalate to senior management, as they have the authority and responsibility to decide on the appropriate risk response and allocate the necessary resources. Transferring the risk, implementing monitoring controls, and recalculating the risk are possible risk responses, but they require senior management approval and direction. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit, page 19; CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 107.
Which of the following should be reported periodically to the risk committee?
System risk and control matrix
Emerging IT risk scenarios
Changes to risk assessment methodology
Audit committee charter
Reporting to the Risk Committee:
Role of Risk Committee: The risk committee is responsible for overseeing the organization’s risk management practices, including identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks.
Emerging IT Risks: Reporting emerging IT risk scenarios to the committee ensures that new and evolving threats are identified and addressed proactively.
Importance of Emerging IT Risk Scenarios:
Proactive Risk Management: By staying informed about emerging risks, the committee can implement preventive measures and avoid potential impacts.
Strategic Planning: Understanding emerging risks allows for better strategic planning and resource allocation to address these risks.
Comparison with Other Options:
System Risk and Control Matrix: Useful for ongoing monitoring but may not capture new and emerging risks.
Changes to Risk Assessment Methodology: Important for refining risk management processes but not as critical as identifying new risks.
Audit Committee Charter: Relevant for governance but not directly related to proactive risk management.
Best Practices:
Regular Updates: Provide the risk committee with regular updates on emerging IT risk scenarios.
Collaborative Approach: Engage various stakeholders in identifying and reporting emerging risks.
References:
CRISC Review Manual: Highlights the importance of monitoring and reporting emerging IT risks to ensure effective risk management .
ISACA Guidelines: Stress the need for continuous risk assessment and reporting to keep the risk committee informed of new threats ​​.
Who should be responsible for determining which stakeholders need to be involved in the development of a risk scenario?
Risk owner
Risk practitioner
Compliance manager
Control owner
The risk practitioner is responsible for determining which stakeholders need to be involved in the development of a risk scenario, as they have the knowledge and skills to facilitate the process and ensure that the relevant perspectives and information are considered. The risk owner, the compliance manager, and the control owner are examples of stakeholders who may participate in the risk scenario development, but they are not responsible for determining who should be involved. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit, page 9; CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?
Making data available to a larger audience of customers
Data not being disposed according to the retention policy
Personal data not being de-identified properly
Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into
Data Privacy Principles:
Consent and Purpose Limitation: According to data privacy regulations like GDPR, data subjects must provide explicit consent for specific purposes. Using data for purposes beyond what was consented to violates these principles, posing significant compliance risks.
Transparency and Accountability: Organizations must be transparent about how they use personal data and ensure accountability in data processing. Using data without consent undermines this transparency and accountability.
Greatest Risk of Noncompliance:
Legal and Regulatory Risks: Using personal data without consent can lead to severe penalties under laws like GDPR and CPRA. These laws impose heavy fines for noncompliance, making this scenario the highest risk.
Reputational Damage: Unauthorized use of personal data can severely damage an organization’s reputation, leading to loss of customer trust and potential financial losses.
Operational Impact: Ensuring compliance with consent requirements is fundamental to an organization's data processing activities. Failure to do so can disrupt business operations and necessitate significant remediation efforts.
Comparison with Other Options:
Making Data Available to a Larger Audience of Customers: While potentially risky, this does not inherently violate data privacy principles if done within consented uses.
Data Not Being Disposed According to the Retention Policy: This poses risks related to data minimization and retention principles but is less severe than unauthorized data use.
Personal Data Not Being De-identified Properly: This is a significant risk but typically involves fewer direct legal and regulatory implications compared to using data without consent.
References:
CRISC Review Manual: Discusses the importance of informed consent and the principles of data privacy, emphasizing the severe implications of using personal data without consent .
ISACA Guidelines: Highlight the need for transparency and accountability in data processing, aligning with global privacy regulations .
During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Report the infraction.
Perform a risk assessment.
Conduct risk awareness training.
Discontinue the process.
Perform a Risk Assessment:
Immediate Action: The first step when discovering a non-compliant implementation is to understand the potential risks it poses to the organization. This involves identifying threats, vulnerabilities, and potential impacts of the non-fungible token (NFT) asset program.
Risk Identification and Evaluation: Assess the new program’s impact on the organization’s risk profile. Determine if it introduces significant security, compliance, or operational risks.
Documentation and Reporting: Document the findings and present them to senior management along with recommendations for mitigation or further action.
Comparison with Other Options:
Report the Infraction: Reporting is necessary but should follow the risk assessment to provide a clear understanding of the implications and necessary mitigations.
Conduct Risk Awareness Training: Training is preventive and should be part of a long-term strategy, not the immediate response to a specific incident.
Discontinue the Process: Discontinuing the process may be a necessary step after assessing the risk, but the assessment must come first to justify such an action.
Best Practices:
Comprehensive Risk Assessment: Ensure that the risk assessment covers all aspects, including financial, reputational, and regulatory risks.
Stakeholder Involvement: Involve relevant stakeholders in the assessment process to gather diverse perspectives and ensure a thorough evaluation.
Actionable Recommendations: Provide clear, actionable recommendations based on the risk assessment findings.
CRISC Review Manual: Discusses the importance of performing risk assessments when new systems or processes are implemented without following established procedures.
ISACA Standards: Emphasize the need for a systematic approach to identifying and assessing risks introduced by new initiatives or changes within the organization.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST risk management approach for the strategic IT planning process?
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are established to track IT strategic initiatives.
The IT strategic plan is reviewed by the chief information security officer (CISO) and enterprise risk management (ERM).
The IT strategic plan is developed from the organization-wide risk management plan.
Risk scenarios associated with IT strategic initiatives are identified and assessed.
Identifying and assessing the risk scenarios associated with IT strategic initiatives is the best risk management approach for the strategic IT planning process, because it helps to understand and evaluate the potential or actual threats or opportunities that may affect the achievement or implementation of the IT strategic initiatives, and to determine the appropriate risk responses and controls. A risk scenario is a hypothetical situation or event that describes the source, cause, consequence, and impact of a risk. A risk scenario can be positive or negative, depending on whether it represents an opportunity or a threat. An IT strategic initiative is a project or program that supports or enables the IT strategy, which is a plan that defines how IT supports and aligns with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy. The strategic IT planning process is a process of developing, implementing, and monitoring the IT strategy and its associated IT strategic initiatives. Identifying and assessing the risk scenarios is the best risk management approach, as it helps to anticipate and prepare for the potential or actual outcomes of the IT strategic initiatives, and to optimize the risk-reward balance and the value delivery of IT. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs) to track IT strategic initiatives, reviewing the IT strategic plan by the chief information security officer (CISO) and enterprise risk management (ERM), and developing the IT strategic plan from the organization-wide risk management plan are all possible risk management approaches for the strategic IT planning process, but they are not the best approach, as they do not directly address the identification and assessment of the risk scenarios associated with IT strategic initiatives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, page 37
The results of a risk assessment reveal risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence. Which of the following would be the BEST action to address these scenarios?
Assemble an incident response team.
Create a disaster recovery plan (DRP).
Develop a risk response plan.
Initiate a business impact analysis (BIA).
Developing a risk response plan is the best action to address the risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence, because it helps to define and implement the appropriate actions to reduce or eliminate the risk, or to prepare for and recover from the potential consequences. A risk response plan is a document that outlines the strategies and tactics for managing the identified risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risk. A risk response plan also assigns the roles and responsibilities for the risk owners and stakeholders, and sets the timelines and budgets for the risk response activities. A risk scenario with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence is a rare but severe event that may cause significant disruption or damage to the organization or its objectives, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a pandemic. Therefore, developing a risk response plan is the best action to address these scenarios, as it helps to minimize the exposure and impact of the risk, and to enhance the resilience and recovery of the organization. Assembling an incident response team, creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP), and initiating a business impact analysis (BIA) are all important actions to perform as part of the risk response plan, but they are not the best action, as they do not cover the whole spectrum of risk response strategies and activities. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.2, page 103
Which of the following is BEST measured by key control indicators (KCIs)?
Historical trends of the organizational risk profile.
Cost efficiency of risk treatment plan projects.
Comprehensiveness of risk assessment procedures.
Effectiveness of organizational defense in depth.
Key control indicators measure the operational effectiveness of specific controls, such as those contributing to defense-in-depth strategies. Monitoring these indicators ensures controls are functioning as intended, aligning with Control Effectiveness Monitoring.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?
Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)
Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register
Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)
Developing contingency plans for key processes
Key risk indicators provide early warnings about potential deviations from risk appetite. Monitoring these metrics ensures timely adjustments to maintain risk within acceptable thresholds, a principle emphasized in the Risk Monitoring domain.
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure risk management practices are effective at all levels within the organization?
Communicating risk awareness materials regularly
Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk management processes
Ensuring that business activities minimize inherent risk
Embedding risk management in business activities
Embedding Risk Management:
Integrated Approach: Embedding risk management in business activities ensures that risk considerations are part of everyday decision-making processes and operations.
Cultural Shift: Promotes a risk-aware culture where all employees understand their role in managing risk, leading to more proactive and effective risk management practices.
Comparison with Other Options:
Communicating Risk Awareness Materials: Important for education but less impactful than embedding risk management in daily activities.
Establishing KRIs: Useful for monitoring but does not ensure risk management practices are integrated into all business processes.
Minimizing Inherent Risk: This is an outcome of effective risk management rather than a method to ensure its effectiveness.
Best Practices:
Training and Awareness: Provide ongoing training to employees to embed risk management practices in their roles.
Policy and Procedures: Develop and enforce policies and procedures that integrate risk management into all business activities.
Leadership Support: Ensure strong support from leadership to promote and sustain a risk-aware culture.
CRISC Review Manual: Emphasizes the importance of embedding risk management into business activities to ensure comprehensive and effective risk practices .
ISACA Guidelines: Support the integration of risk management into all levels of the organization to achieve effective risk management outcomes .
References:
Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?
Data protection officer
Chief information officer (CIO)
Information asset custodian
Information asset owner
The organizational role that should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified is the information asset owner, as they have the authority and responsibility to define the classification, retention, and disposal requirements for the information assets they own, and to manage the risk and controls related to the information assets. The other options are not the correct roles, as they have different roles and responsibilities related to the protection, governance, or maintenance of the information assets, respectively, rather than the classification of the information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
A legacy application used for a critical business function relies on software that has reached the end of extended support Which of the following is the MOST effective control to manage this application?
Subscribe to threat intelligence to monitor external attacks.
Apply patches for a newer version of the application.
Segment the application within the existing network.
Increase the frequency of regular system and data backups.
 Segmenting the application within the existing network is the most effective control to manage a legacy application that relies on software that has reached the end of extended support, as it isolates the application from the rest of the network and reduces the attack surface and the potential impact of a compromise. Subscribing to threat intelligence, applying patches for a newer version of the application, and increasing the frequency of regular system and data backups are not the most effective controls, as they may not address the root cause of the risk, or may introduce additional costs or complexities, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?
Comparing risk rating against appetite
Obtaining input from business units
Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk
Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence
Comparing risk rating against appetite is the most helpful criterion when prioritizing action plans for identified risk, as it helps to determine the urgency and importance of addressing the risk. Risk rating is the level of risk after considering the likelihood and impact of a risk event, and risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. By comparing risk rating against appetite, an organization can identify which risks are above, within, or below its tolerance level, and prioritize the action plans accordingly. Risks that are above the appetite level should be treated with the highest priority, as they pose a significant threat to the organization’s objectives and performance. Risks that are within the appetite level should be monitored and controlled regularly, as they are acceptable but still require attention. Risks that are below the appetite level should be reviewed periodically, as they are negligible or insignificant.
References:
•ISACA, Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, 2019, p. 751
•ISACA, Tips for Prioritizing Risk in Your Risk Register2
A risk practitioner learns that a risk owner has been accepting gifts from a supplier of IT products. Some of these IT products are used to implement controls and to mitigate risk to acceptable levels. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Initiate disciplinary action against the risk owner.
Reassess the risk and review the underlying controls.
Review organizational ethics policies.
Report the activity to the supervisor.
Reporting the activity to the supervisor is the first thing that the risk practitioner should do when learning that a risk owner has been accepting gifts from a supplier of IT products. This is because accepting gifts from a supplier of IT products can create a conflict of interest, compromise the integrity and objectivity of the risk owner, and violate the organizational ethics policies. Reporting the activity to the supervisor can help ensure that the issue is escalated to the appropriate authority, investigated, and resolved in a timely and transparent manner. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key risk response techniques is to report the risk to the relevant stakeholders, such as the supervisor1. According to the web search results, reporting the activity to the supervisor is a common and recommended action when encountering a potential ethical violation in the workplace
An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on the organization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?
Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.
Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.
Use a secure channel to transmit the files.
Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.
Obfuscating customer information ensures data privacy by rendering sensitive details unintelligible to unauthorized parties, reducing the risk of exposure during transit or processing. This aligns with Data Protection and Privacy Regulations under risk management frameworks, emphasizing safeguarding personally identifiable information.
An online payment processor would be severely impacted if the fraud detection system has an outage. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this risk?
Implement continuous control monitoring.
Communicate the risk to management.
Introduce recovery control procedures.
Document a risk response plan.
Introducing recovery control procedures is the best way to address the risk of an outage of the fraud detection system for an online payment processor, because it helps to restore the functionality and availability of the system as quickly and effectively as possible, and to minimize the impact and disruption to the business operations and customers. A fraud detection system is a system that monitors and analyzes the transactions and activities of an online payment processor, and detects and prevents any fraudulent or suspicious behavior, such as identity theft, money laundering, or chargebacks. An outage is a situation where the system is unavailable or inaccessible, due to factors such as technical failure, human error, or malicious attack. An outage of the fraud detection system may have severe consequences for the online payment processor, such as financial losses, reputational damage, customer dissatisfaction, or regulatory penalties. A recovery control procedure is a procedure that defines the steps and actions to be taken to recover the system from an outage, such as identifying the root cause, isolating the affected components, restoring the data and functionality, testing the system, and reporting the incident. Introducing recovery control procedures is the best way to address the risk, as it helps to ensure that the system is back online and operational as soon as possible, and that the risk exposure and impact are reduced and contained. Implementing continuous control monitoring, communicating the risk to management, and documenting a risk response plan are all possible ways to address the risk, but they are not the best way, as they do not directly address the recovery of the system from an outage, and they may not be sufficient or effective to mitigate the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 208
Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?
Variances between organizational risk appetites
Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios
Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems
Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols
The greatest challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations is the variances between organizational risk appetites, as they may indicate a significant difference in the risk culture, strategy, and objectives of the two organizations, and may require a complex and lengthy process of alignment and integration. Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios, disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems, and dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols are not the greatest challenges, as they are more related to the technical, operational, or procedural aspects of risk management, rather than the strategic or cultural aspects of risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.
Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.
Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.
Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.
The first course of action for the risk practitioner when identifying ineffective controls is to determine whether the impact of the control failure is outside the risk appetite of the organization. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. If the impact is within the risk appetite, the risk practitioner may decide to accept the risk or monitor the situation. If the impact is outside the risk appetite, the risk practitioner may need to escalate the issue, report the ineffective control, request a formal acceptance of risk, or deploy a compensating control.
References: The answer is based on the following sources:
•CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Reporting, pages 149-1501
•CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 12 Month Subscription, Question ID: QID-10042
•Effective Risk Management Strategies | CRISC Exam Preparation3
Which of the following is MOST important to update following a change in organizational risk appetite and tolerance?
Business impact assessment (BIA)
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Risk profile
Industry benchmark analysis
The risk profile is the most important document to update following a change in organizational risk appetite and tolerance, because it summarizes the current and target state of the organization’s risk exposure, as well as the risk response strategies and actions. The risk profile should reflect the alignment of the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance with its strategic objectives and operational capabilities. Updating the risk profile will help the organization to monitor and manage its risks effectively and efficiently.
References
•ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Domain 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2.1: Risk Profile
•Risk Profile - ISACA
•What is a Risk Profile? Definition, Examples, and More
Which of the following factors will have the GREATEST impact on the implementation of a risk mitigation strategy for an organization?
Cost-benefit analysis
Risk tolerance
Known vulnerabilities
Cyber insurance
Risk tolerance defines the boundaries for acceptable risk levels and directly impacts decision-making for mitigation strategies. A well-defined tolerance helps prioritize actions and allocate resources effectively, emphasizing its central role in the Risk Response domain.
The risk to an organization's reputation due to a recent cybersecurity breach is PRIMARILY considered to be:
financial risk.
data risk.
operational risk.
strategic risk.
ï‚· Understanding Strategic Risk:
Strategic risk refers to the potential losses that can arise from adverse business decisions, improper implementation of decisions, or lack of responsiveness to changes in the business environment.
ï‚· Reputational Impact of Cybersecurity Breaches:
A cybersecurity breach can severely damage an organization's reputation, affecting customer trust, investor confidence, and market value.
Such impacts go beyond immediate financial losses and can have long-term strategic implications for the organization's competitive position and strategic objectives.
ï‚· Classification of Risk:
Financial Risk: Direct financial losses due to a breach (e.g., fines, legal costs) but does not cover reputational impacts.
Data Risk: Focuses on the loss or compromise of data but not the broader strategic impact.
Operational Risk: Pertains to disruptions in business operations, while reputational damage influences the organization’s strategic direction and goals.
ï‚· Strategic Risk and Reputation:
Reputational damage from a cybersecurity breach can lead to a loss of customer base, reduced market share, and difficulties in strategic partnerships, all of which are strategic concerns.
Addressing reputational risk requires strategic planning, proactive communication, and long-term efforts to rebuild trust and credibility.
ï‚· References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights that reputational risk is a significant aspect of strategic risk, especially following cybersecurity incidents (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 1: Governance, Section 1.1.3 Importance and Value of IT Risk Management)​​.
Which of the following BEST protects organizational data within a production cloud environment?
Data encryption
Continuous log monitoring
Right to audit
Data obfuscation
Data encryption is the best method to protect organizational data within a production cloud environment, as it ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data. Data encryption is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm, so that only authorized parties can access and decrypt the data. Data encryption can protect data at rest (stored in the cloud) and data in transit (transferred over the network) from unauthorized access, modification, or deletion by malicious actors or accidental errors. Data encryption can also help organizations comply with legal, regulatory, and contractual requirements for data protection and privacy, such as GDPR, CCPA, and PCI DSS.
References:
•The Complexity Conundrum: Simplifying Data Security1
•Practical Data Security and Privacy for GDPR and CCPA2
An organization allows programmers to change production systems in emergency situations. Which of the following is the BEST control?
Implementing an emergency change authorization process
Periodically reviewing operator logs
Limiting the number of super users
Reviewing the programmers' emergency change reports
Implementing an emergency change authorization process is the best control for an organization that allows programmers to change production systems in emergency situations, because it helps to ensure that the changes are justified, approved, documented, and tested before they are implemented, and that they are monitored and reviewed after they are implemented. An emergency change is a change that is required to resolve or prevent a critical issue or incident that may affect the availability, performance, or security of the production systems. A production system is a system that is used to support or enable the operational or business functions or processes of the organization. An emergency change authorization process is a process that defines the roles and responsibilities, criteria and procedures, and tools and techniques for managing and controlling the emergency changes. Implementing an emergency change authorization process is the best control, as it helps to minimize the risks and impacts of the emergency changes, and to maintain the integrity and reliability of the production systems. Periodically reviewing operator logs, limiting the number of super users, and reviewing the programmers’ emergency change reports are all possible controls for an organization that allows programmers to change production systems in emergency situations, but they are not the best control, as they do not provide a comprehensive and consistent approach to the emergency change management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 208
A risk action plan has been changed during the risk mitigation effort. Which of the following is MOST important for the risk practitioner to verify?
Impact of the change on inherent risk
Approval for the change by the risk owner
Business rationale for the change
Risk to the mitigation effort due to the change
Risk owner approval ensures accountability and alignment of the changes with the enterprise’s risk management strategy. It reflects adherence to the principles of Risk Ownership and Governance, critical for maintaining control over mitigation activities.
An organization is developing a risk universe to create a holistic view of its overall risk profile. Which of the following is the GREATEST barrier to achieving the initiative's objectives?
Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops within the organization
Lack of common understanding of the organization's risk culture
Lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure
Lack of an integrated risk management system to aggregate risk scenarios
Lack of common understanding of the organization’s risk culture is the greatest barrier to achieving the initiative’s objectives, because it hinders the alignment and integration of risk management across the organization. Risk culture is the set of shared values, beliefs, and behaviors that influence how risk is perceived and managed in an organization. A risk universe is a comprehensive and structured representation of all the sources and types of risk that an organization faces. Developing a risk universe requires a common understanding of the organization’s risk culture, as it affects the risk appetite, tolerance, and strategy of the organization. Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops, lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure, and lack of an integrated risk management system are all challenges that may affect the development of a risk universe, but they are not the greatest barrier, as they can be overcome with appropriate tools and techniques. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 44
A penetration test reveals several vulnerabilities in a web-facing application. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in selecting a risk response?
Correct the vulnerabilities to mitigate potential risk exposure.
Develop a risk response action plan with key stakeholders.
Assess the level of risk associated with the vulnerabilities.
Communicate the vulnerabilities to the risk owner.
The first step in selecting a risk response after a penetration test reveals several vulnerabilities in a web-facing application is to assess the level of risk associated with the vulnerabilities, as it involves evaluating the likelihood and impact of the vulnerabilities being exploited, and comparing them with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. Correcting the vulnerabilities, developing a risk response action plan, and communicating the vulnerabilities are possible steps in selecting a risk response, but they are not the first step, as they require the prior knowledge of the risk level and the optimal risk response. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 108.
Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise's current appetite for risk?
Comparative analysis of peer companies
Reviews of brokerage firm assessments
Interviews with senior management
Trend analysis using prior annual reports
Conducting interviews with senior management is the best method for determining an enterprise’s current appetite for risk, because it helps to obtain the direct and qualitative input and feedback from the senior management on their expectations and preferences regarding the level and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept or pursue, in relation to its objectives and strategy. Risk appetite is the amount and nature of risk that an enterprise is willing to take in order to achieve its objectives and create value. Risk appetite is influenced by factors such as the enterprise’s culture, values, vision, mission, and strategy, as well as the external environment and stakeholders. Risk appetite may vary depending on the context and situation, and may change over time. Conducting interviews with senior management is the best method, as it helps to understand and capture the current and explicit risk appetite of the enterprise, and to align the risk management process and activities with the senior management’s risk vision and direction. Conducting comparative analysis of peer companies, reviewing brokerage firm assessments, and performing trend analysis using prior annual reports are all possible methods for determining an enterprise’s current appetite for risk, but they are not the best method, as they may provide only indirect, quantitative, or historical information, and may not reflect the current and specific risk appetite of the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 45
An organization's IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?
Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.
The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.
The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.
Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.
The lack of due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor should be of greatest concern to the risk practitioner, because it exposes the organization to potential risks and issues related to the security, reliability, performance, and compliance of the cloud service provider. Due diligence is a process of conducting a thorough investigation and evaluation of a potential vendor or partner before entering into a contractual relationship. Due diligence helps to verify the vendor’s credentials, capabilities, reputation, and track record, and to identify any red flags or gaps that may affect the quality or suitability of the service. Cloud computing is a model of delivering IT services over the internet, where the service provider owns and manages the IT infrastructure, platforms, or applications, and the customer pays only for the resources or functions they use. Cloud computing can offer cost savings, scalability, and flexibility for the business, but it also introduces new risks and challenges, such as data privacy, security breaches, vendor lock-in, service outages, or regulatory compliance. Therefore, performing due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor is essential to ensure that the organization’s expectations and requirements are met, and that the risks and issues are identified and addressed. The business introducing new SaaS solutions without IT approval, the maintenance of IT infrastructure being outsourced to an IaaS provider, and the architecture responsibilities not being clearly defined are all possible concerns for the risk practitioner, but they are not the greatest concern, as they can be mitigated or resolved with appropriate controls, policies, or agreements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 183
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of integrating risk and security requirements in an organization's enterprise architecture (EA)?
Adherence to legal and compliance requirements
Reduction in the number of test cases in the acceptance phase
Establishment of digital forensic architectures
Consistent management of information assets
Integrating risk and security requirements in an organization’s enterprise architecture (EA) helps to ensure that information assets are consistently managed throughout their life cycle, and that the risks associated with them are identified and mitigated. (Risk and Information Systems Control Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 5th Edition, page 112)
An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?
Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.
Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.
Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.
Obtain certification to a global information security standard.
Which of the following analyses is MOST useful for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets?
SWOT analysis
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Cost-benefit analysis
Root cause analysis
Business impact analysis (BIA) is the most useful analysis for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets, because it evaluates the potential consequences of disruption to critical business functions and processes. BIA helps to identify the most significant risks and the most urgent recovery needs. SWOT analysis, cost-benefit analysis, and root cause analysis are all useful tools for different purposes, but they do not directly address the impact of risk scenarios on business continuity and resilience. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 143
Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying loss magnitude during risk analysis of a new system?
Recovery time objective (RTO)
Cost-benefit analysis
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Cyber insurance coverage
Business impact analysis (BIA) is the most helpful tool in identifying loss magnitude during risk analysis of a new system, as it involves estimating the potential financial and operational losses resulting from the disruption or degradation of the system. Recovery time objective (RTO), cost-benefit analysis, and cyber insurance coverage are not the most helpful tools, as they are more related to the recovery, evaluation, and transfer of the risk, respectively, rather than the identification of the loss magnitude. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 108.
An organization's decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:
The region in which the organization operates.
Established business culture.
Risk appetite set by senior management.
Identified business process controls.
Risk appetite determined by senior management reflects the enterprise's willingness to accept certain levels of risk, including noncompliance. This decision underscores the strategic trade-offs made in risk management, a key element in Governance and Risk Policy Alignment.
Who is accountable for authorizing application access in a cloud Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?
Cloud service provider
IT department
Senior management
Business unit owner
The business unit owner is accountable for authorizing application access in a SaaS environment because they are responsible for aligning access controls with business needs. They determine the roles and permissions needed to ensure operational effectiveness while adhering to the principle of Access Management in the CRISC framework.
Within the three lines of defense model, the PRIMARY responsibility for ensuring risk mitigation controls are properly configured belongs with:
Line management
The IT risk function
Enterprise compliance
Internal audit
Line management owns the day-to-day responsibility for configuring and maintaining controls, ensuring they align with the organization’s risk management strategy. This is central to Operational Risk Management.
Which of the following information is MOST useful to a risk practitioner for developing IT risk scenarios?
Published vulnerabilities relevant to the business
Threat actors that can trigger events
Events that could potentially impact the business
IT assets requiring the greatest investment
ï‚· Developing IT Risk Scenarios:
Risk scenarios are hypothetical events that describe potential threats and their impact on business operations. These scenarios are essential for identifying and assessing risks.
ï‚· Importance of Potential Impact Events:
Events that could potentially impact the business provide the most useful information for developing risk scenarios because they directly relate to the organization’s objectives and operations.
Understanding these events helps in crafting realistic and relevant risk scenarios that can guide risk assessment and mitigation efforts.
ï‚· Components of Risk Scenarios:
Threat Actors: Identify who might exploit vulnerabilities.
Threat Events: Describe the specific events that could impact the business.
Business Impact: Assess how these events would affect business operations, finances, reputation, etc.
ï‚· Using Impact Events for Scenario Development:
Focusing on events that could disrupt critical business functions ensures that the scenarios are relevant and actionable.
It enables the risk practitioner to communicate the potential consequences effectively to stakeholders and prioritize mitigation efforts accordingly.
ï‚· Comparing Other Information Sources:
Published Vulnerabilities: Useful for understanding specific threats but may not directly relate to business impact.
Threat Actors: Important for identifying potential sources of risk but not sufficient alone for scenario development.
IT Assets: Relevant for risk assessment but secondary to understanding potential impact events.
ï‚· References:
The CRISC Review Manual discusses the importance of considering events that could impact the business when developing risk scenarios (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4 Risk Scenario Development)​​.
An organization has identified the need to implement an asset tiering model to establish the appropriate level of impact. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk assessment methodology for a risk practitioner to use for this initiative?
Qualitative method
Industry calibration method
Threat-based method
Quantitative method
Implementing an asset tiering model to establish the appropriate level of impact is best served by a quantitative risk assessment methodology. This approach provides a numeric value to the risk levels, which is crucial for accurately tiering assets.
Quantitative Risk Assessment:
Numeric Values: Quantitative methods assign numerical values to the probability and impact of risks, which allows for precise calculations of risk levels. This precision is essential when establishing tiers for assets based on their impact levels.
Data-Driven Decisions: These methods use statistical data and models to predict potential losses and the probability of various risk events, leading to more informed decision-making.
Asset Tiering Model:
Impact Assessment: Quantitative methods allow for detailed impact assessments. By using numeric values, it is easier to compare the potential impacts of different assets and categorize them into appropriate tiers.
Resource Allocation: Precise risk calculations help in the effective allocation of resources. Higher-tier assets (those with higher impact) can be allocated more resources for protection.
References:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, quantitative risk assessment methods are suitable for situations requiring precise impact assessments and detailed analysis, as they provide a clear, numeric representation of risks​​.
Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk treatment plan cannot be completed on time?
Implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed.
Develop additional key risk indicators (KRIs) until the preferred action can be completed.
Replace the action owner with a more experienced individual.
Change the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance.
Implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed, because it helps to reduce the residual risk to an acceptable level, while allowing the preferred action to be delayed or postponed. A risk treatment plan is a document that describes the actions and resources required to implement the chosen risk response strategy for a specific risk. A risk response strategy is a course of action that is selected to address a risk, such as avoid, transfer, mitigate, or accept. A compensating control is a control that provides an alternative or additional measure of protection or assurance, when the primary or preferred control is not feasible or effective. Implementing compensating controls is the best approach, as it helps to maintain the risk management process and objectives, and to avoid or minimize the negative consequences of the delay or postponement of the preferred action.
Developing additional key risk indicators (KRIs), replacing the action owner with a more experienced individual, and changing the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance are all possible approaches when a risk treatment plan cannot be completed on time, but they are not the best approach, as they may not address the residual risk level, and they may introduce new risks or issues.
A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:
Aligned with risk management capabilities.
Based on industry trends.
Related to probable events.
Mapped to incident response plans.
Risk scenarios should reflect probable events to ensure relevance and practicality in risk assessments. This guidance supports the Risk Identification and Scenario Development process.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for the prioritization of risk responses?
Residual risk
Risk appetite
Mitigation cost
Inherent risk
Risk Appetite:
Risk appetite defines the level of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. It serves as a benchmark for evaluating and prioritizing risk responses.
Prioritizing Risk Responses:
When determining how to address risks, the primary consideration should be whether the residual risk falls within the organization’s risk appetite.
If a risk exceeds the appetite, it needs to be mitigated, transferred, or avoided. If it is within the appetite, it might be accepted.
Influence of Other Factors:
Residual Risk: Important but must be evaluated against the risk appetite to determine if it is acceptable.
Mitigation Cost: Relevant for decision-making but secondary to aligning with risk appetite.
Inherent Risk: Initial risk assessment before controls are applied, but prioritization is based on residual risk and risk appetite.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the role of risk appetite in guiding the prioritization of risk responses (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.2.1 Prioritizing Risk Responses)​​.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?
Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs).
Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register.
Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs).
Developing contingency plans for key processes.
KRIs provide predictive metrics to monitor changes in risk levels, enabling timely interventions to maintain risks within the organization's appetite. This aligns with the Risk Monitoring and Reporting framework, which emphasizes proactive identification of risk thresholds.
The BEST way to validate that a risk treatment plan has been implemented effectively is by reviewing:
results of a business impact analysis (BIA).
the original risk response plan.
training program and user awareness documentation.
a post-implementation risk and control self-assessment (RCSA).
A post-implementation RCSA is a process of verifying whether the risk treatment plan has been executed as intended and whether the residual risk is within the acceptable level. It involves testing the effectiveness of the controls that have been implemented to mitigate the risk and identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A BIA, the original risk response plan, and the training program and user awareness documentation are not sufficient to validate the effectiveness of the risk treatment plan, as they do not measure the actual performance of the controls or the residual risk.
References:
•ISACA, Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, 2019, p. 761
•ISACA, Risk and Information Systems Control Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2020, p. 2112
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address risk associated with technical complexity?
Documenting system hardening requirements
Minimizing dependency on technology
Aligning with a security architecture
Establishing configuration guidelines
Establishing configuration guidelines reduces complexity by standardizing processes, making systems easier to manage and secure. This is a fundamental aspect of Technical Risk Management.
Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization's cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?
The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization's systems from cyberattacks.
The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.
The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.
The policy has not been approved by the organization's board.
The policy has not been approved by the organization’s board should be of most concern, as it indicates a lack of governance and oversight for the organization’s cybersecurity posture. The board is ultimately responsible for setting the strategic direction, objectives, and risk appetite of the organization, and for ensuring that the cybersecurity policy aligns with them. Without the board’s approval, the policy may not reflect the organization’s vision, mission, values, and culture, and may not be communicated, implemented, or enforced effectively. The board’s approval also demonstrates the commitment and support of the senior management for the cybersecurity program, and enhances the accountability and responsibility of the stakeholders involved.
References:
•ISACA, Essential Functions of a Cybersecurity Program1
•ISACA, Cybersecurity: Based on the NIST Cybersecurity Framework2
Which of the following emerging technologies is frequently used for botnet distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks?
Internet of Things (IoT)
Quantum computing
Virtual reality (VR)
Machine learning
Internet of Things (IoT) is an emerging technology that refers to the network of devices, such as cameras, sensors, appliances, or vehicles, that can communicate and exchange data via the internet. IoT is frequently used for botnet distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, which are cyberattacks that aim to disrupt or disable a target’s online services by overwhelming them with traffic from multiple sources. IoT devices are often unsecured, unpatched, or misconfigured, which makes them vulnerable to being infected by malware and controlled by attackers. Attackers can use IoT devices to create large and powerful botnets that can launch DDoS attacks against various targets, such as websites, servers, or networks. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, IoT is one of the key emerging technologies that pose new IT risks, including DDoS attacks1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, IoT is the correct answer to this question2. According to the web search results, IoT devices are commonly used for botnet DDoS attacks, such as the Mirai botnet, the Emotet botnet, and the BoT-IoT dataset345.
A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?
A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.
A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.
Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.
Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.
Independent Assessment:
Objective Evaluation: An assessment by a qualified independent party ensures that the evaluation of the new controls is unbiased and thorough. It provides a credible verification of the control's effectiveness.
Expertise and Standards: Independent assessors bring specialized expertise and follow established standards and best practices, ensuring a comprehensive review of the control implementation.
Validation and Assurance: This assessment provides assurance to stakeholders that the controls are functioning as intended and meet the required security and operational standards.
Comparison with Other Options:
Post-Implementation Review by Key Personnel: While valuable, this review may lack the objectivity and thoroughness of an independent assessment.
Senior Management Sign-Off: Sign-off from senior management is important but does not provide the detailed validation of control effectiveness that an independent assessment offers.
Daily Operation of Robots without Human Interference: This indicates operational stability but does not verify that all controls are functioning as intended.
Best Practices:
Regular Independent Assessments: Schedule regular independent assessments to continuously validate the effectiveness of controls.
Comprehensive Reporting: Ensure that the independent assessment includes comprehensive reporting on findings and recommendations for improvement.
Follow-Up Actions: Implement any recommended actions from the assessment to address identified gaps or weaknesses in the controls.
CRISC Review Manual: Recommends independent assessments as a best practice for validating control effectiveness and ensuring comprehensive risk management.
ISACA Standards: Support the use of independent assessments to provide objective and credible evaluations of control implementations.
References:
Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization's risk register?
Limit access to senior management only.
Encrypt the risk register.
Implement role-based access.
Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.
A risk register is a document that contains information about potential cybersecurity risks that could threaten a project’s success, or even the business itself2. Therefore, it is important to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the risk register from unauthorized or inappropriate access, modification, or disclosure. One way to do this is to implement role-based access, which is a method of restricting access to the risk register based on the roles or responsibilities of the users1. This way, only authorized users who need to view or edit the risk register for legitimate purposes can do so, and the access rights can be revoked or modified as needed. This would most effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in the risk register. The other options are not as effective or feasible as option C, as they do not address the need to balance the security and availability of the risk register. Option A, limiting access to senior management only, would compromise the availability and usefulness of the risk register, as other stakeholders such as project managers, risk owners, or auditors may need to access the risk register for risk identification, analysis, response, or monitoring purposes3. Option B, encrypting the risk register, would enhance the security of the risk register, but it would not prevent authorized users from exposing the vulnerabilities to unauthorized parties, either intentionally or unintentionally. Encryption also adds complexity and cost to the risk register management process, and may affect the performance or usability of the risk register4. Option D, requiring users to sign a confidentiality agreement, would rely on the compliance and ethics of the users, but it would not prevent or detect any breaches of the agreement. A confidentiality agreement also does not specify the access rights or roles of the users, and may not be legally enforceable in some cases5.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY reason for considering existing controls during initial risk assessment?
To determine the inherent risk level
To determine the acceptable risk level
To determine the current risk level
To determine the desired risk level
During an initial risk assessment, it is crucial to consider existing controls primarily to determine the current risk level. Here's a detailed explanation:
Understanding Existing Controls:
Existing controls are measures already in place to mitigate risks. These controls can include technical, administrative, and physical safeguards designed to protect organizational assets.
Knowing what controls are currently in place helps to understand the organization’s current defense mechanisms against potential threats.
Assessing the Current Risk Level:
The current risk level is the risk that remains after considering the effectiveness of existing controls, often referred to as residual risk.
By evaluating these controls, one can determine how much risk is actually mitigated and what level of risk remains.
For instance, if an organization has implemented firewalls and intrusion detection systems, these controls would reduce the risk of cyber attacks. The effectiveness of these controls will determine the residual risk level.
Differentiating Between Risk Types:
Inherent Risk: This is the level of risk that exists before any controls are applied. It’s the raw risk associated with a particular asset or process.
Residual Risk: This is the risk that remains after existing controls have been applied. It's the actual risk that an organization faces after mitigation efforts.
Current Risk: This term is often used interchangeably with residual risk but focuses on the risk level at the present moment, considering the existing controls.
Primary Objective in Initial Risk Assessment:
The primary objective of considering existing controls during the initial risk assessment is to gain an accurate picture of the current risk landscape. This allows risk practitioners to understand what additional controls or modifications might be needed to further reduce risk to acceptable levels.
Without considering existing controls, the assessment would only reflect the inherent risk, which doesn’t provide a realistic view of the organization's risk exposure.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of understanding the current risk level by assessing existing controls (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.9.3 Current Risk).
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?
Scheduling periodic audits
Assigning a data custodian
Implementing technical controls over the assets
Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Scheduling periodic audits is the best way to facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements, because it helps to verify and validate that the data are classified and handled according to the established policies, standards, and guidelines, and that the data classification requirements are updated and aligned with the changes in the data environment or regulations. Data classification is a process of categorizing data according to their sensitivity, confidentiality, and value to the organization, and specifying the appropriate handling and protection measures for each category. Data classification requirements are the rules or criteria that define how data should be classified and treated. Scheduling periodic audits is the best way to ensure that the data classification requirements are followed and maintained, and that any issues or gaps are identified and addressed. Assigning a data custodian, implementing technical controls over the assets, and establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution are all useful ways to facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements, but they are not the best way, as they do not provide a comprehensive and independent review and assessment of the data classification process and outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
A key risk indicator (KRI) that incorporates data from external open-source threat intelligence sources has shown changes in risk trend data. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?
Impact of risk occurrence
Frequency of risk occurrence
Cost of risk response
Legal aspects of risk realization
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that provides information on the level of exposure to a given risk. Changes in risk trend data indicate that the likelihood or probability of a risk occurring has changed. Therefore, the frequency of risk occurrence should be updated in the risk register to reflect the current risk profile. The impact, cost, and legal aspects of risk realization are not directly affected by the changes in risk trend data, unless the nature or severity of the risk has also changed. (Risk and Information Systems Control Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 5th Edition, page 972
Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's patch management process?
Average time to implement patches after vendor release
Number of patches tested prior to deployment
Increase in the frequency of patches deployed into production
Percent of patches implemented within established timeframe
The percent of patches implemented within established timeframe is the best metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization’s patch management process, as it measures how well the organization meets its patching objectives and reduces its exposure to vulnerabilities. This metric reflects the timeliness, completeness, and quality of the patching process, and can be compared against the organization’s patch management policy and standards. A high percent of patches implemented within established timeframe indicates that the organization has a mature and efficient patch management process that minimizes the risk of security breaches or operational disruptions due to unpatched systems.
References:
•ISACA, Risk and Information Systems Control Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2020, p. 2501
•ISACA, Practical Patch Management and Mitigation2
•NIST, Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Planning3
If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?
Confidentiality
Accountability
Availability
Integrity
Integrity is the property of data that ensures its accuracy, completeness, and consistency2. If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, the integrity of the data may be compromised, as it may lead to concurrency problems such as lost update, unrepeatable read, or phantom read3. These problems can cause the data to be incorrect, incomplete, or inconsistent, which may affect the reliability and validity of the data. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it reflects the impact of improper concurrent update transactions on the data integrity. The other options are not correct, as they do not directly relate to the effect of concurrent update transactions on the data. Option A, confidentiality, is the property of data that ensures its protection from unauthorized access or disclosure2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the confidentiality of the data, as they do not involve exposing the data to unauthorized parties. Option B, accountability, is the property of data that ensures its traceability and auditability2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the accountability of the data, as they do not involve losing the records or logs of the data transactions. Option C, availability, is the property of data that ensures its accessibility and usability2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the availability of the data, as they do not involve preventing the access or use of the data.
An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on the organization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?
Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.
Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.
Use a secure channel to transmit the files.
Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.
Obfuscating customer data minimizes privacy risks by rendering sensitive information unreadable during processing. This method complies with Data Privacy and Protection Standards, reducing the potential impact of data breaches.
Which of the following events is MOST likely to trigger the need to conduct a risk assessment?
An incident resulting in data loss
Changes in executive management
Updates to the information security policy
Introduction of a new product line
Conducting a risk assessment is a critical process that helps organizations identify, evaluate, and prioritize risks that could impact their objectives. The introduction of a new product line is most likely to trigger the need for a risk assessment due to the following reasons:
Introduction of a New Product Line (Answer D):
Significance: Launching a new product involves significant changes to business processes, technologies, and possibly market dynamics. It introduces new elements that could affect the organization's risk profile.
Complexity and Uncertainty: New products often come with unknown risks and uncertainties. Understanding these risks is crucial to ensure they are managed effectively.
Impact on Operations: A new product can impact various facets of the organization, including production, supply chain, IT infrastructure, and customer support. Assessing risks helps in planning and mitigating potential disruptions.
Compliance and Regulatory Considerations: New products might have to comply with new regulations or standards, necessitating a review of associated risks.
Comparison with Other Options:
A. An incident resulting in data loss:
Purpose: While incidents like data loss are serious and require immediate response and investigation, they typically trigger incident management and post-incident reviews rather than a full risk assessment.
B. Changes in executive management:
Purpose: Changes in leadership can influence the strategic direction and priorities of the organization, but they do not inherently introduce new operational risks that necessitate an immediate risk assessment.
C. Updates to the information security policy:
Purpose: Policy updates are often based on previously identified risks and aim to mitigate them. They are more about adjusting controls rather than reassessing the risk landscape completely.
References:
ISACA CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2, "IT Risk Assessment," which highlights the importance of conducting risk assessments in response to significant organizational changes, such as the introduction of new products, which can significantly alter the risk profile of the organization. This aligns with the need to reassess risks to ensure appropriate controls and mitigation strategies are in place for new initiatives​​.
A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Report the incident.
Plan a security awareness session.
Assess the new risk.
Update the risk register.
According to the CRISC exam content outline2, one of the tasks of a risk practitioner is to “report on risk, in line with organizational reporting requirements, to enable decision making and escalationâ€. Therefore, the first thing that the risk practitioner should do after discovering a policy violation is to report the incident to the appropriate authority, such as the IT security manager or the risk management committee. This will ensure that the incident is properly documented, investigated, and resolved, and that any potential impact or consequences are minimized.
The other options are not the first actions that the risk practitioner should take. Planning a security awareness session (B) may be a preventive measure to avoid future incidents, but it does not address the current one. Assessing the new risk © may be part of the risk response process, but it should be done after reporting the incident and gathering more information. Updating the risk register (D) may be a result of the risk assessment and response, but it should not be done before reporting the incident and following the organizational procedures.
An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?
Risk profile
Risk tolerance
Risk capacity
Risk appetite
The risk profile is the most important thing to reassess when an organization implements new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation (RPA). The risk profile is a comprehensive and dynamic view of the organization’s risks, their ratings, responses, and status. RPA can introduce new risks or change the existing risks related to the organization’s objectives, operations, and performance. For example, RPA can create risks such as system failures, data breaches, compliance violations, human errors, or ethical dilemmas. Therefore, the organization should reassess its risk profile to identify, assess, treat, monitor, and review the risks associated with RPA, and to ensure that the risk management strategy is aligned with the business needs and expectations.
References:
•ISACA, Robotic Process Automation for Internal Audit1
•ISACA, Key Considerations for Robotic Process Automation2
Which of the following has the GREATEST positive impact on ethical compliance within the risk management process?
Senior management demonstrates ethics in their day-to-day decision making.
An independent ethics investigation team has been established.
Employees are required to complete ethics training courses annually.
The risk practitioner is required to consult with the ethics committee.
According to the ISACA Risk IT Framework, one of the key principles for effective risk management is to establish tone at the top and accountability. This means that senior management should set an example of ethical behavior and culture, and communicate the importance of ethics and compliance to the entire organization. Senior management should also ensure that the risk management process is aligned with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and code of conduct, and that ethical risks are identified, assessed, and treated appropriately. By demonstrating ethics in their day-to-day decision making, senior management can have the greatest positive impact on ethical compliance within the risk management process, as they can influence the attitudes, behaviors, and actions of all stakeholders.
References:
•ISACA, Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, 2019, p. 741
•ISACA, The Role of Ethics in Risk Management2
Which of the following BEST indicates the effective implementation of a risk treatment plan?
Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level.
Residual risk is managed within appetite and tolerance.
Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers.
Key controls are identified and documented.
The effective implementation of a risk treatment plan is best indicated by managing residual risk within the organization’s appetite and tolerance levels. Residual risk is the remaining risk after controls have been applied, and ensuring it is within acceptable levels demonstrates that the risk treatment plan is effective.
Managing Residual Risk within Appetite and Tolerance (Answer B):
Definition: Residual risk is the risk remaining after risk treatment measures have been implemented.
Significance: Managing residual risk within the set appetite and tolerance levels shows that the implemented controls are effective and aligned with the organization’s risk management objectives.
Outcome: It ensures that the organization's risk exposure is kept within acceptable boundaries, thereby protecting its assets and operations.
Comparison with Other Options:
A. Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level:
Definition: Inherent risk is the risk before any controls are applied.
Limitation: The focus should be on residual risk post-treatment.
C. Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers:
Purpose: While benchmarking is useful, it does not directly indicate the effectiveness of risk treatment.
D. Key controls are identified and documented:
Purpose: Identifying and documenting controls is necessary, but effectiveness is shown by managing residual risk.
References:
ISACA CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3, "Risk Response and Reporting", which highlights the importance of managing residual risk within the organization’s appetite and tolerance.
Which of the following is the MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?
Common attacks in other industries.
Identification of risk events.
Impact on critical assets.
Probability of disruptive risk events.
Risk scenarios require the identification of specific risk events to ensure they are realistic and actionable. This process is fundamental to effective risk assessments and responses, forming a core part of the Risk Scenario Development methodology.
Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?
Transaction log monitoring
Access control attestation
Periodic job rotation
Whistleblower program
Whistleblower Program:
Definition: A whistleblower program allows employees to report unethical or illegal activities within the organization anonymously.
Detection of Ethical Violations: Employees are often in the best position to observe unethical behavior. A well-structured whistleblower program encourages them to report such behavior without fear of retaliation.
Anonymity and Protection: Providing anonymity and protection to whistleblowers increases the likelihood that employees will report violations, thus enabling the organization to detect and address ethical issues more effectively.
Comparison with Other Options:
Transaction Log Monitoring: While useful for detecting anomalies and potential fraud, it is not specifically focused on ethical violations and may not capture all types of unethical behavior.
Access Control Attestation: This ensures that users have the correct access permissions but does not directly detect unethical behavior.
Periodic Job Rotation: This can help prevent fraud by reducing the risk of collusion and providing fresh perspectives on processes, but it does not directly detect ethical violations.
Best Practices:
Clear Reporting Channels: Ensure that the whistleblower program has clear and accessible reporting channels.
Training and Awareness: Regularly train employees on the importance of reporting unethical behavior and the protections offered by the whistleblower program.
Follow-up and Action: Ensure that reports are investigated thoroughly and appropriate actions are taken to address verified violations.
References:
CRISC Review Manual: Emphasizes the importance of ethical behavior and the role of whistleblower programs in detecting and addressing ethical violations within organizations.
ISACA Guidelines: Support the implementation of whistleblower programs as a key component of a comprehensive risk management and ethical governance framework.
A large organization recently restructured the IT department and has decided to outsource certain functions. What action should the control owners in the IT department take?
Conduct risk classification for associated IT controls.
Determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk.
Perform vulnerability and threat assessments.
Analyze and update IT control assessments.
According to the ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control study guide and handbook, the control owners in the IT department should determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk after a restructuring and outsourcing of certain functions. This is because the restructuring and outsourcing may have changed the risk profile, the control environment, and the control activities of the IT department. The control owners should review the existing risk responses and evaluate if they are still appropriate, adequate, and efficient in mitigating the risks associated with the outsourced functions. The control owners should also monitor the performance and compliance of the service providers and ensure that the contractual obligations and service level agreements are met12
1: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Study Guide, 4th Edition, page 33 2: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Handbook, 1st Edition, page 25
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?
Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology
Monitoring the enterprise's use of the Internet
Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage
Developing training and awareness campaigns
Scanning the Internet for unauthorized usage of the enterprise's brand proactively identifies fraudulent activities and enables timely response. This aligns with Brand Protection and Risk Mitigation strategies.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input to determine risk tolerance?
Regulatory requirements
Organizational objectives
Annual loss expectancy (ALE)
Risk management costs
Organizational objectives should be the primary input to determine risk tolerance, as they define the desired outcomes and performance of the organization, and guide the selection of the acceptable level of risk that the organization is willing to take to achieve those objectives. Regulatory requirements, annual loss expectancy (ALE), and risk management costs are not the primary inputs, as they are more related to the external or internal constraints or factors that affect the risk tolerance, rather than the drivers or determinants of the risk tolerance. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
During the creation of an organization's IT risk management program, the BEST time to identify key risk indicators (KRIs) is while:
Interviewing data owners
Reviewing risk response plans with internal audit
Developing a risk monitoring process
Reviewing an external risk assessment
KRIs should be identified during the development of a risk monitoring process to ensure alignment with organizational objectives and effective risk tracking. This reflects Proactive Risk Monitoring.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?
Requirements for regulatory obligations
Cost of control implementation
Effectiveness of risk treatment
Number of risk response options
Effectiveness of risk treatment ensures that the implemented response aligns with risk reduction goals, meeting regulatory and strategic objectives. This is a core principle of the Risk Response domain, prioritizing responses that best mitigate identified risks.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason an organization would engage an independent reviewer to assess its IT risk management program?
To ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating emerging risk
To confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed in quantitative terms
To evaluate threats to the organization's operations and strategy
To identify gaps in the alignment of IT risk management processes and strategy
An independent review is typically sought to provide an objective assessment of the IT risk management program, ensuring that it aligns with the organization’s overall strategy and objectives. The reviewer can identify areas where the program may not be effectively addressing the organization’s strategic goals or where improvements can be made to better manage IT risks.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for prioritizing risk treatment plans when faced with budget limitations?
Inherent risk and likelihood
Management action plans associated with audit findings
Residual risk relative to appetite and tolerance
Key risk indicator (KRI) trends
Detailed Explanation:When prioritizing risk treatment plans under budget constraints, the focus should be on residual risk relative to appetite and tolerance. This ensures that resources are allocated to risks that exceed the organization’s risk appetite, aligning treatment efforts with strategic objectives and minimizing critical exposure.
During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?
Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk.
Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk.
Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes.
Educate business executives on IT risk concepts.
IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations or occurrences that illustrate the potential impact of IT-related threats or opportunities on the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation12.
Business risk scenarios are hypothetical situations or occurrences that illustrate the potential impact of business-related threats or opportunities on the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation34.
The best way for the risk practitioner to address the concerns of the business executives who question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios is to describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk, which is a technique that involves translating and communicating the IT risk scenarios into the language and context of the business risk scenarios, and highlighting the linkages and dependencies between them56.
Describing IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk is the best way because it helps the business executives to understand and appreciate the relevance and importance of IT risk scenarios, and how they affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders56.
Describing IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk is also the best way because it helps the business executives to accept and fulfill their roles and responsibilities as the owners of IT risk scenarios, and to collaborate and coordinate with the IT team and other stakeholders in the risk management process56.
The other options are not the best ways, but rather possible alternatives or supplements that may support or enhance the description of IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk. For example:
Recommending the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk is a way that involves establishing and empowering a group of senior leaders from different business units and functions to provide the strategic direction, guidance, and oversight for the IT risk management process78. However, this way is not the best way because it does not directly address the concerns of the business executives who question why they have been assigned ownership of IT risk scenarios, and it may not be feasible or effective without a clear and common understanding of IT risk scenarios among the council members78.
Providing an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes is a way that involves quantifying and communicating the potential loss or disruption of the IT systems or services that support the organization’s operations, if the IT risk scenarios occur9 . However, this way is not the best way because it does not fully capture or convey the impact of IT risk scenarios on the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation, and it may not be relevant or meaningful for some IT risk scenarios that are not related to IT system downtime9 .
Educating business executives on IT risk concepts is a way that involves providing and delivering the knowledge and skills on the principles, frameworks, and techniques of IT risk management, and the roles and responsibilities of the IT risk owners and stakeholders . However, this way is not the best way because it does not specifically address the concerns of the business executives who question why they have been assigned ownership of IT risk scenarios, and it may not be sufficient or effective without a practical and contextual application of IT risk concepts to the organization’s situation and goals . References =
1: IT Scenario Analysis in Enterprise Risk Management - ISACA2
2: New Toolkit and Course From ISACA Help Practitioners Develop Risk Scenarios - ISACA1
3: Business Risk - Investopedia3
4: Business Risk: Definition, Types, Examples & How to Manage4
5: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
6: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
7: Executive Risk Council - ISACA5
8: Executive Risk Council: A Guide to Success6
9: IT System Downtime - ISACA7
: IT System Downtime: Causes, Costs, and How to Prevent It8
: IT Risk Education - ISACA9
: IT Risk Education: A Guide to Success
Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?
Obtaining logs m an easily readable format
Providing accurate logs m a timely manner
Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems
implementing an automated log analysis tool
The most important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) using log analysis is providing accurate logs in a timely manner, because this ensures that the risk data is reliable, relevant, and up-to-date. Logs are records of events or activities that occur in IT systems, such as network traffic, user actions, system errors, or security incidents. Log analysis is the process of reviewing and interpreting logs to identify and assess risks, such as performance issues, operational failures, compliance violations, or cyberattacks. By providing accurate logs in a timely manner, an organization can monitor the current status and trends of its KRIs, which are metrics that measure the level and impact of risks. Accurate logs mean that the logs are complete, consistent, and free of errors or anomalies that may distort the risk data. Timely logs mean that the logs are available as soon as possible after the events or activities occur, and that they are updated frequently to reflect the latest changes. Providing accurate logs in a timely manner can help an organization to detect and respond to risks promptly, and to support risk-based decision making and reporting. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 22
A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?
Risk likelihood
Risk velocity
Risk appetite
Risk impact
 A rule-based data loss prevention (DLP) tool is a software solution that identifies and helps prevent unsafe or inappropriate sharing, transfer, or use of sensitive data. It can help an organization monitor and protect sensitive information across on-premises systems, cloud-based locations, and endpoint devices. It can also help an organization comply with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). A rule-based DLP tool works by comparing content to the organization’s DLP policy, which defines how the organization labels, shares, and protects data without exposing it to unauthorized users. The tool can then apply protective actions such as encryption, access restrictions, and alerts. As a result of implementing a rule-based DLP tool, the most likely change is the reduction of risk likelihood, which is the probability of a risk event occurring. By detecting and preventing data breaches, exfiltration, or unwanted destruction of sensitive data, a rule-based DLP tool can lower the chance of such incidents happening and thus decrease the risk likelihood. The other options are less likely to change as a result of implementing a rule-based DLP tool. Risk velocity is the speed at which a risk event impacts an organization, which depends on factors such as the nature of the threat, the response time, and the recovery process. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, which depends on factors such as the organization’s culture, strategy, and stakeholder expectations. Risk impact is the potential loss or damage that a risk event can cause to an organization, which depends on factors such as the severity of the incident, the extent of the exposure, and the resilience of the organization. While a rule-based DLP tool may have some influence on these factors, it is not the primary driver of change for them. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 13
Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?
Cost of offsite backup premises
Cost of downtime due to a disaster
Cost of testing the business continuity plan
Response time of the emergency action plan
A recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable time or duration that a business process or function can be disrupted or unavailable due to a disaster or incident, before it causes unacceptable or intolerable consequences for the organization. It is usually expressed in hours, days, or weeks, and it is aligned with the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.
The primary factor in determining a RTO is the cost of downtime due to a disaster, which is the estimated loss or damage that the organization may suffer if a business process or function is disrupted or unavailable for a certain period of time. The cost of downtime can be expressed in terms of financial, operational, reputational, or legal consequences, and it can help the organization to assess the impact and urgency of the disaster, and to decide on the appropriate recovery strategy and resources.
The other options are not the primary factors in determining a RTO, because they do not address the fundamental question of how long the organization can tolerate the disruption or unavailability of a business process or function.
The cost of offsite backup premises is the cost of acquiring, maintaining, or using an alternative or secondary location or facility that can be used to resume or continue the business process or function in case of a disaster or incident. The cost of offsite backup premises is important to consider when selecting or implementing a recovery strategy, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.
The cost of testing the business continuity plan is the cost of conducting, evaluating, or improving the tests or exercises that are performed to verify or validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the business continuity plan, which is the document that describes the actions and procedures that the organization will take to recover or restore the business process or function in case of a disaster or incident. The cost of testing the business continuity plan is important to consider when developing or updating the business continuity plan, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.
The response time of the emergency action plan is the time or duration that it takes for the organization to initiate or execute the emergency action plan, which is the document that describes the immediate actions and procedures that the organization will take to protect the life, health, and safety of the people, and to minimize the damage or loss of the assets, in case of a disaster or incident. The response time of the emergency action plan is important to consider when preparing or reviewing the emergency action plan, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 62-63, 66-67, 70-71, 74-75, 78-79
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 165
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?
The network security policy
Potential business impact
The WiFi access point configuration
Planned remediation actions
A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the enterprise’s objectives and operations. It involves determining the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their significance and urgency.
A WiFi access point is a device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using radio signals. It can provide convenience and flexibility for users, but it can also introduce security risks, such as unauthorized access, data leakage, malware infection, or denial of service attacks.
If departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network, without proper authorization, configuration, or monitoring, it means that they have bypassed the network security policy and controls, and created potential vulnerabilities and exposures for the enterprise.
The most important information to include in a report to senior management is the potential business impact of this risk, which is the estimated loss or damage that the enterprise may suffer if the risk materializes. The potential business impact can be expressed in terms of financial, operational, reputational, or legal consequences, and it can help senior management to understand the severity and urgency of the risk, and to decide on the appropriate risk response and allocation of resources.
The other options are not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because they do not convey the magnitude and significance of the risk, and they may not be relevant or actionable for senior management.
The network security policy is the set of rules and guidelines that define the security objectives, requirements, and responsibilities for the enterprise network. It is important to have a clear and comprehensive network security policy, and to ensure that it is communicated, enforced, and monitored across the enterprise, but it is not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because it does not indicate the actual or potential impact of the risk, and it may not reflect the current or desired state of the network security.
The WiFi access point configuration is the set of parameters and settings that define the functionality, performance, and security of the WiFi access point. It is important to have a secure and consistent WiFi access point configuration, and to follow the best practices and standards for wireless network security, but it is not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because it does not indicate the actual or potential impact of the risk, and it may not be relevant or understandable for senior management.
The planned remediation actions are the steps and measures that are intended to mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept the risk, and to restore the normal operation and security of the enterprise network. It is important to have a feasible and effective plan for remediation actions, and to implement and monitor them in a timely and efficient manner, but it is not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because it does not indicate the actual or potential impact of the risk, and it may not be feasible or appropriate without senior management’s approval or support. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 146
During which phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) should information security requirements for the implementation of a new IT system be defined?
Monitoring
Development
Implementation
Initiation
Detailed Explanation:Information security requirements should be defined during the Initiation phase of the SDLC. This ensures that security is integrated into the design from the beginning, minimizing vulnerabilities and aligning security measures with business requirements. Early identification of security needs reduces rework and costs associated with later stages.
Which of the following is a specific concern related to machine learning algorithms?
Low software quality
Lack of access controls
Data breaches
Data bias
Detailed Explanation:Data bias in machine learning algorithms can lead to inaccurate predictions or decisions, as biases in training data are amplified in the output. Addressing bias is essential for ethical and reliable algorithm performance.
Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:
requirements of management.
specific risk analysis framework being used.
organizational risk tolerance
results of the risk assessment.
 The results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms based primarily on the requirements of management, because they are the intended audience and users of the risk information, and they have the authority and responsibility to make risk-based decisions. The requirements of management may vary depending on the purpose, scope, and context of the risk analysis, and the level of detail, accuracy, and reliability that they need. Quantitative risk analysis uses numerical data and mathematical models to estimate the probability and impact of risks, and to express the risk exposure and value in monetary or other measurable units. Qualitative risk analysis uses descriptive data and subjective judgments to assess the likelihood and severity of risks, and to rank the risks according to their relative importance or priority. Both methods have their advantages and disadvantages, and they can be used separately or together, depending on the situation and the availability of data and resources. However, the primary factor that determines the choice of the method is the requirements of management, as they are the ones who will use the risk information to support their objectives, strategies, and actions. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 141
Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?
The risk manager's expertise
Regulatory requirements
Board of directors' expertise
The organization's culture
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the organization’s culture is the most important factor affecting risk management in an organization, as it influences the risk awareness, risk attitude, risk behavior and risk communication of all stakeholders. The organization’s culture is defined as the shared values, beliefs, norms and expectations that guide the actions and interactions of the members of the organization. The organization’s culture affects how risk management is perceived, supported, implemented and integrated within the organization. A strong risk culture is one that:
Aligns with the organization’s vision, mission, strategy and objectives
Promotes a common understanding of risk and its implications for the organization
Encourages the identification, assessment, response and monitoring of risks at all levels
Fosters a proactive, collaborative and transparent approach to risk management
Empowers and rewards the stakeholders for taking ownership and accountability of risks
Enables continuous learning and improvement of risk management capabilities and maturity
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Culture, pp. 23-251
Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?
Control chart
Sensitivity analysis
Trend analysis
Decision tree
A decision tree is a technique that can be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated. A decision tree is a graphical tool that shows the possible outcomes and consequences of different choices or actions in a sequential and hierarchical manner. A decision tree can help to compare and contrast the alternatives based on their expected values, costs, benefits, and risks, as well as to identify the optimal or preferred alternative that maximizes the value or minimizes the risk. A decision tree can also help to communicate and explain the rationale and assumptions behind the decision-making process to the stakeholders. The other options are not the best techniques to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated, although they may be useful and complementary. A control chart is a technique that monitors the performance and quality of a process or activity over time by plotting the data points and the control limits. A control chart can help to detect and analyze the variations or deviations from the expected or desired results, as well as to identify and correct the causes or sources of the variations. A sensitivity analysis is a technique that measures the impact of changes in one or more variables or parameters on the outcome or result of a model or a system. A sensitivity analysis can help to assess the uncertainty or variability of the outcome or result, as well as to determine the most influential or critical variables or parameters that affect the outcome or result. A trend analysis is a technique that examines the patterns or movements of data or information over time by using statistical or graphical methods. A trend analysis can help to forecast or predict the future behavior or direction of the data or information, as well as to identify and explain the factors or drivers that influence the data or information. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 922; Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative - ISACA3; Risk Assessment: Process, Examples, & Tools | SafetyCulture4
A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:
reduces risk to an acceptable level
quantifies risk impact
aligns with business strategy
advances business objectives.
The primary focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action plan should be that the risk response reduces risk to an acceptable level. A risk response action plan is a document that describes the actions or measures that are taken or planned to modify the risk, such as reducing, avoiding, transferring, or accepting the risk1. Validating a risk response action plan means verifying whether the plan is feasible, effective, and efficient in addressing the risk2. The main objective of validating a risk response action plan is to ensure that the risk response reduces risk to an acceptable level, which is the level of risk that the organization is willing to tolerate or bear, based on its risk appetite and risk criteria3. Reducing risk to an acceptable level means that the risk response actions can lower the likelihood or impact of the risk to a point where the risk does not pose a significant threat or challenge to the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance. Reducing risk to an acceptable level also means that the risk response actions can balance the benefits and costs of the risk response, and that they can provide a reasonable assurance of the risk management effectiveness and efficiency4. The other options are not the primary focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action plan, as they are either less relevant or less specific than reducing risk to an acceptable level. Quantifying risk impact is a component or element of validating a risk response action plan, not a focus of it. Quantifying risk impact means measuring or estimating the potential effects or consequences of the risk on the organization5. Quantifying risk impact can help to evaluate the severity and priority of the risk, as well as to compare the risk against the risk criteria and the risk appetite. However, quantifying risk impact is not the primary focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action plan, as it does not address the feasibility, effectiveness, or efficiency of the risk response actions, or the level of risk reduction that they can achieve. Aligning with business strategy is a secondary or incidental benefit of validating a risk response action plan, not a primary or essential focus of it. Aligning with business strategy means ensuring that the risk response actions are consistent and coherent with the organization’s goals and values6. Aligning with business strategy can help to integrate the risk response actions with the organization’s culture and governance, as well as to support and enable the achievement of the organization’s mission and vision. However, aligning with business strategy is not the main focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action plan, as it does not indicate the feasibility, effectiveness, or efficiency of the risk response actions, or the level of risk reduction that they can achieve. Advancing business objectives is a tertiary or indirect outcome of validating a risk response action plan, not a primary or direct focus of it. Advancing business objectives means contributing to the improvement and enhancement of the organization’s performance and results7. Advancing business objectives can help to create value and deliver benefits for the organization and its stakeholders, as well as to optimize the use of the organization’s resources and capabilities. However, advancing business objectives is not the main focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action plan, as it does not address the feasibility, effectiveness, or efficiency of the risk response actions, or the level of risk reduction that they can achieve. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.8, Page 61.
Which of the following will BEST mitigate the risk associated with IT and business misalignment?
Establishing business key performance indicators (KPIs)
Introducing an established framework for IT architecture
Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)
Involving the business process owner in IT strategy
IT and business misalignment is the risk that the IT objectives, plans, and activities are not aligned with the business goals, needs, and expectations. This can result in wasted resources, missed opportunities, poor performance, and customer dissatisfaction. One of the best ways to mitigate this risk is to involve the business process owner in IT strategy. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for a specific business process and its outcomes. By involving the business process owner in IT strategy, the organization can ensure that the IT initiatives and solutions are relevant, effective, and beneficial for the business process and its stakeholders. The business process owner can also provide valuable input, feedback, and support for the IT strategy and its implementation. The other options are not the best ways to mitigate the risk associated with IT and business misalignment, although they may be helpful and complementary. Establishing business key performance indicators (KPIs) is a technique to measure and monitor the achievement of business objectives and outcomes. However, KPIs do not necessarily ensure that the IT strategy is aligned with the business strategy or that the IT activities support the business activities. Introducing an established framework for IT architecture is a method to design and implement the IT infrastructure, systems, and services in a consistent and coherent manner. However, an IT architecture framework does not guarantee that the IT architecture is aligned with the business architecture or that the IT capabilities meet the business requirements. Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) is a tool to monitor and communicate the level of exposure to a given risk or the potential impact of a risk. However, KRIs do not directly address the risk of IT and business misalignment or the actions needed to align them. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 22-231; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 76
Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?
Risk response plans are documented
Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.
Key risk indicators are defined.
Risk ownership is assigned
The most important characteristic of an effective risk management program is that risk ownership is assigned. Risk ownership is the accountability and authority to manage a risk1. Assigning risk ownership means identifying and assigning the person or entity who is responsible for evaluating, treating, monitoring, and reporting on a specific risk2. Assigning risk ownership is essential for ensuring that the risk management program works effectively and efficiently, as it helps to:
Clarify the roles and responsibilities of the different functions or groups involved in risk management and internal control;
Ensure that the risks are managed in accordance with the organization’s objectives, strategies, and risk appetite;
Provide guidance and support to the risk owners in identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks;
Monitor and evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the risk owners and the risk response actions;
Communicate and report on the risk status and issues to the relevant stakeholders and authorities. The other options are not the most important characteristic of an effective risk management program, as they are either less relevant or less specific than assigning risk ownership. Risk response plans are documented. This option is a consequence or outcome of an effective risk management program, not a characteristic of it. Risk response plans are the actions or measures that are taken to modify the risk, such as reducing, avoiding, transferring, or accepting the risk3. Documenting risk response plans means recording and maintaining the details and outcomes of the risk response actions, such as the objectives, scope, resources, timelines, performance indicators, and results4. Documenting risk response plans can help to improve the consistency and transparency of the risk management process, as well as to support the monitoring and evaluation of the risk response actions. However, documenting risk response plans is not the most important characteristic of an effective risk management program, as it does not address the accountability and authority for managing the risk. Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios. This option is a specific or narrow example of an effective risk management program, not a general or broad characteristic of it. Controls are the measures or actions that are taken to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk, or to increase the likelihood or impact of an opportunity5. Mapping controls to key risk scenarios means linking the controls to the specific situations or events that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance6. Mapping controls to key risk scenarios can help to enhance the design and implementation of the controls, as well as to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls in mitigating the risk. However, mapping controls to key risk scenarios is not the most important characteristic of an effective risk management program, as it does not cover the other aspects of risk management, such as risk identification, assessment, treatment, and monitoring. Key risk indicators are defined. This option is a component or element of an effective risk management program, not a characteristic of it. Key risk indicators are the metrics that measure the level and trend of a risk that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance7. Defining key risk indicators means establishing and maintaining the criteria and methods for measuring and reporting on the risk8. Defining key risk indicators can help to enhance the risk identification, assessment, and reporting processes, as well as to support the risk decision making and prioritization. However, defining key risk indicators is not the most important characteristic of an effective risk management program, as it does not indicate the accountability and authority for managing the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, Page 85.
Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?
A decrease in control layering effectiveness
An increase in inherent risk
An increase in control vulnerabilities
An increase in the level of residual risk
The control environment is the set of internal and external factors and conditions that influence and shape the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions. It includes the organization’s culture, values, ethics, structure, roles, responsibilities, policies, standards, etc.
Uncontrolled changes are changes or modifications to the control environment that are not planned, authorized, documented, or monitored, and that may have unintended or adverse consequences for the organization. Uncontrolled changes may be caused by various drivers or events, such as technological innovations, market trends, regulatory changes, customer preferences, competitor actions, environmental issues, etc.
The greatest concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment is an increase in the level of residual risk, which is the amount and type of risk that remains after the implementation and execution of the risk responses or controls. An increase in the level of residual risk means that the risk responses or controls are not effective or sufficient to mitigate or prevent the risks, and that the organization may face unacceptable or intolerable consequences if the risks materialize.
An increase in the level of residual risk is the greatest concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment, because it indicates that the organization’s risk profile and performance have deteriorated, and that the organization may not be able to achieve its objectives or protect its value. It also indicates that the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance have been violated, and that the organization may need to take corrective or compensating actions to restore the balance between risk and return.
The other options are not the greatest concerns when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment, because they do not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and they may not be relevant or actionable for the organization.
A decrease in control layering effectiveness means a decrease in the extent or degree to which the organization uses multiple or overlapping controls to address the same or related risks, and to provide redundancy or backup in case of failure or compromise of one or more controls. A decrease in control layering effectiveness may indicate a weakness or gap in the organization’s control design or implementation, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the control layering is required or recommended by the organization’s policies or standards.
An increase in inherent risk means an increase in the amount and type of risk that exists in the absence of any risk responses or controls, and that is inherent to the nature or characteristics of the risk source, event, cause, or impact. An increase in inherent risk may indicate a change or variation in the organization’s risk exposure or level, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the inherent risk exceeds the organization’s risk appetite or tolerance.
An increase in control vulnerabilities means an increase in the number or severity of the weaknesses or flaws in the organization’s risk responses or controls that can be exploited or compromised by the threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives or operations. An increase in control vulnerabilities may indicate a weakness or gap in the organization’s control design or implementation, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the control vulnerabilities are exploited or compromised by the threats or sources of harm. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 174
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?
Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts
Average time to provision user accounts
Password reset volume per month
Average account lockout time
The average time to provision user accounts is the most useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management (IAM) process, because it reflects how quickly and smoothly the process can grant access to the appropriate users. The average time to provision user accounts can be calculated by dividing the total time spent on provisioning user accounts by the number of user accounts provisioned in a given period. A lower average time indicates a more efficient IAM process, as it means that users can access the resources they need without unnecessary delays or errors. A higher average time may indicate problems or bottlenecks in the IAM process, such as manual steps, complex workflows, lack of automation, or insufficient resources. The average time to provision user accounts can also be compared across different applications, systems, or business units to identify areas for improvement or best practices. The other options are less useful indicators to measure the efficiency of an IAM process. The number of tickets for provisioning new accounts shows the demand for the IAM process, but not how well the process meets the demand. The password reset volume per month shows the frequency of password-related issues, but not how effectively the IAM process handles them. The average account lockout time shows the impact of account lockouts on user productivity, but not how efficiently the IAM process prevents or resolves them. References = Top Identity and Access Management MetricsÂ
After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:
recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.
inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.
inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them
inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
A risk assessment of a production system is a process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risks that may affect the performance, quality, or safety of the production system, which is a system that transforms inputs into outputs using various resources, processes, and technologies12.
The most appropriate action for the risk manager to take after undertaking a risk assessment of a production system is to inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them, which is a process of communicating and consulting with the person who is responsible for the design, operation, and improvement of the production system, and suggesting possible risk responses that can prevent, mitigate, transfer, or accept the risks34.
This action is the most appropriate because it ensures the involvement and collaboration of the process owner, who has the authority and accountability to implement and monitor the risk responses, and who can provide feedback and input on the feasibility and effectiveness of the proposed measures34.
This action is also the most appropriate because it supports the risk management process and objectives, which are to identify and address the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders34.
The other options are not the most appropriate actions, but rather possible alternatives or supplements that may have some limitations or drawbacks. For example:
Recommending a program that minimizes the concerns of the production system is an action that involves designing and planning a set of coordinated and interrelated activities and tasks that aim to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risks34. However, this action is not the most appropriate because it does not involve the process owner, who is the key stakeholder and decision maker for the production system, and who may have different views or preferences on the risk responses34.
Informing the development team of the concerns, and together formulating risk reduction measures is an action that involves communicating and consulting with the group of people who are responsible for creating, testing, and deploying the products or services that are produced by the production system, and jointly developing possible risk responses34. However, this action is not the most appropriate because it does not involve the process owner, who is the primary owner and user of the production system, and who may have different needs or expectations on the risk responses34.
Informing the IT manager of the concerns and proposing measures to reduce them is an action that involves communicating and consulting with the person who is responsible for managing and overseeing the IT resources, processes, and systems that support the production system, and suggesting possible risk responses34. However, this action is not the most appropriate because it does not involve the process owner, who is the main stakeholder and beneficiary of the production system, and who may have different requirements or constraints on the risk responses34. References =
1: Risk Assessment for the Production Process1
2: Risk Assessment for Industrial Equipment2
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
Which of the following would BEST help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats?
Enforcing employees’ sanctions
Conducting phishing exercises
Enforcing segregation of dunes
Reviewing the organization's risk appetite
Conducting phishing exercises would best help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats, because they can help to raise awareness and educate employees about the common techniques and tactics used by social engineers, such as sending deceptive emails or text messages that ask for sensitive information or direct users to malicious websites. Phishing exercises are simulated attacks that test the employees’ ability to recognize and respond to social engineering attempts, and provide feedback and guidance on how to improve their security behavior. By conducting phishing exercises, the organization can measure and improve the employees’ level of security awareness and resilience, and reduce the likelihood and impact of falling victim to social engineering attacks. The other options are less effective ways to minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats. Enforcing employees’ sanctions can help to deter and punish employees who violate the security policies or procedures, but it may not prevent or reduce the occurrence of social engineering attacks, as they may target employees who are unaware, careless, or coerced by the attackers. Enforcing segregation of duties can help to prevent or limit the damage caused by social engineering attacks, by restricting the access and authority of employees to perform certain tasks or functions, but it may not address the root cause or source of the attacks, which is the human factor. Reviewing the organization’s risk appetite can help to define and communicate the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, but it may not directly affect or influence the employees’ behavior or attitude toward social engineering threats, which may depend on their individual or situational factors. References = How to Prevent and Mitigate Social Engineering Attacks 1
Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's change management process?
Increase in the frequency of changes
Percent of unauthorized changes
Increase in the number of emergency changes
Average time to complete changes
A change management process is a set of procedures and activities that aim to ensure that changes in an organization’s IT systems and services are implemented in a controlled and coordinated manner. The effectiveness of a change management process can be measured by how well it reduces the risks and costs associated with changes, and how well it supports the business objectives and customer expectations. One of the best metrics to demonstrate the effectiveness of a change management process is the percent of unauthorized changes. Unauthorized changes are changes that are made without following the established change management process, such as obtaining approval, documenting the change, testing the change, and communicating the change. Unauthorized changes can introduce errors, defects, security breaches, and disruptions to the IT systems and services, and can negatively affect the business performance and customer satisfaction. Therefore, a low percent of unauthorized changes indicates that the change management process is effective in ensuring that changes are properly planned, approved, executed, and monitored. The other options are not the best metrics to demonstrate the effectiveness of a change management process, as they do not directly reflect the quality and control of the changes. An increase in the frequency of changes may indicate that the organization is agile and responsive to the changing business needs and customer demands, but it does not necessarily mean that the changes are well-managed and beneficial. An increase in the number of emergency changes may indicate that the organization is able to handle urgent and critical situations, but it may also suggest that the organization is reactive and lacks proper planning and analysis of the changes. The average time to complete changes may indicate the efficiency and speed of the change management process, but it does not measure the effectiveness and value of the changes. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 156-1571; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 712
In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?
The control catalog
The asset profile
Business objectives
Key risk indicators (KRls)
In addition to the risk register, which is a tool to document and monitor the risks that affect the organization, a risk practitioner should review the business objectives of the organization to develop an understanding of its risk profile. The risk profile is a description of the set of risks that the organization faces in relation to its goals and strategies. By reviewing the business objectives, the risk practitioner can identify the sources, drivers, and consequences of the risks, as well as the alignment, prioritization, and tolerance of the risks. The business objectives also provide the context and criteria for evaluating and managing the risks. The other options are not the best choices to review for developing an understanding of the organization’s risk profile, as they do not capture the full scope and nature of the risks. The control catalog is a list of the existing controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks, but it does not reflect the effectiveness, efficiency, or sufficiency of the controls. The asset profile is a description of the resources and capabilities that the organization possesses or relies on, but it does not indicate the value, vulnerability, or interdependency of the assets. The key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the level and trend of the risks, but they do not explain the causes, impacts, or responses to the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.2, Page 49.
Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?
Delayed removal of employee access
Authorized administrative access to HR files
Corruption of files due to malware
Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), a vulnerability is a flaw or weakness in an asset’s design, implementation, or operation and management that could be exploited by a threat. A delayed removal of employee access is a vulnerability, as it allows former employees to retain access to the organization’s IT assets and processes, which could lead to unauthorized disclosure, modification, or destruction of data or resources. A delayed removal of employee access could be caused by poor personnel management, lack of security awareness, or inadequate access control policies and procedures.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 32-331
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?
Perform annual risk assessments.
Interview process owners.
Review the risk register.
Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).
Control processes are the procedures and activities that aim to ensure the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s operations, the reliability of its information, and the compliance with its policies and regulations12.
The ongoing efficiency of control processes is the degree to which the control processes achieve their intended results with minimum resources, costs, or waste34.
The best way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes is to analyze key performance indicators (KPIs), which are quantifiable measures of progress toward an intended result, such as a strategic objective or a desired outcome56.
Analyzing KPIs is the best way because it provides a systematic and consistent method of evaluating the performance of the control processes, and identifying the areas of improvement or optimization56.
Analyzing KPIs is also the best way because it enables the organization to monitor and report the efficiency of the control processes to the relevant stakeholders, and to take corrective or preventive actions when necessary56.
The other options are not the best way, but rather possible sources of information or inputs that may support or complement the analysis of KPIs. For example:
Performing annual risk assessments is a way to identify and evaluate the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, and to determine the adequacy and effectiveness of the control processes in mitigating those risks12. However, this way is not the best because it is periodic rather than continuous, and may not capture the changes or trends in the efficiency of the control processes12.
Interviewing process owners is a way to collect and verify the information and feedback from the people who are responsible for designing, implementing, and operating the control processes12. However, this way is not the best because it is subjective and qualitative, and may not provide reliable or comparable data on the efficiency of the control processes12.
Reviewing the risk register is a way to examine and update the documentation and status of the risks and the control processes that are associated with them12. However, this way is not the best because it is descriptive rather than analytical, and may not measure or evaluate the efficiency of the control processes12. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: The Control Process | Principles of Management4
4: Control Management: What it is + Why It’s Essential | Adobe Workfront5
5: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? Guide & Examples - Qlik1
6: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? - KPI.org2
To implement the MOST effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs), which of the following needs to be in place?
Threshold definition
Escalation procedures
Automated data feed
Controls monitoring
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are the metrics or measures that provide information and insight on the level and trend of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. KRIs can help the organization to monitor and communicate the risks, and to support the decision making and planning for the risk management.
To implement the most effective monitoring of KRIs, one of the essential elements that needs to be in place is threshold definition, which is the process of establishing and specifying the acceptable or tolerable ranges or limits for the KRIs, based on the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Threshold definition can help the organization to monitor KRIs by providing the following benefits:
It can enable the comparison and evaluation of the actual or current values of the KRIs with the expected or desired values of the KRIs, and to identify and quantify the deviations or variations that may indicate the changes or developments in the risk level or performance.
It can trigger the alerts or notifications when the values of the KRIs exceed or fall below the thresholds, and to initiate the appropriate actions or responses to address or correct the risks and their impacts.
It can provide useful references and benchmarks for the alignment and integration of the KRIs with the organization’s risk management function, and for the compliance with the organization’s risk policies and standards.
The other options are not the essential elements that need to be in place to implement the most effective monitoring of KRIs, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of threshold definition, which is to establish and specify the acceptable or tolerable ranges or limits for the KRIs.
Escalation procedures are the processes and guidelines for communicating and sharing the information and status of the risks and their responses among the relevant stakeholders, and for escalating or transferring the risks and their responses to the appropriate levels or parties when necessary or required. Escalation procedures can help the organization to monitor KRIs by ensuring the awareness and involvement of the stakeholders, but they are not the essential elements that need to be in place, because they do not establish and specify the acceptable or tolerable ranges or limits for the KRIs.
Automated data feed is the process of using a software tool or system to collect and transmit the data or information that are related or relevant to the KRIs, and to ensure the accuracy, reliability, and timeliness of the data or information. Automated data feed can help the organization to monitor KRIs by providing the data or information that are necessary and relevant for the KRIs, but they are not the essential elements that need to be in place, because they do not establish and specify the acceptable or tolerable ranges or limits for the KRIs.
Controls monitoring is the process of verifying and validating the adequacy and effectiveness of the controls that are intended to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and reliability of the information systems and resources that are affected by the risks. Controls monitoring can help the organization to monitor KRIs by providing the assurance and evidence on the performance and compliance of the controls, but they are not the essential elements that need to be in place, because they do not establish and specify the acceptable or tolerable ranges or limits for the KRIs. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 206
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:
implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.
ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.
build a risk profile for management review.
quantify the organization's risk appetite.
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
A risk profile is a summary or representation of the organization’s exposure or level of risk, based on the results of the risk assessment and evaluation. A risk profile can show the distribution and comparison of the risks based on various criteria, such as likelihood, impact, category, source, etc. A risk profile can also indicate the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and the gaps or opportunities for improvement.
The primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to build a risk profile for management review, because it provides the data and information that are necessary and relevant for creating and updating the risk profile, and for communicating and reporting the risk profile to the management. Maintaining an up-to-date risk register can help to build a risk profile for management review by providing the following benefits:
It can ensure that the risk profile reflects the current and accurate state and performance of the organization’s risk management function, and that it covers all the relevant and significant risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations.
It can provide useful references and benchmarks for the identification, analysis, evaluation, and communication of the risks and their responses, and for the alignment and integration of the risks and their responses with the organization’s strategy and culture.
It can support the decision making and planning for the risk management function, and for the allocation and optimization of the resources, time, and budget for the risk management function.
The other options are not the primary benefits of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of building a risk profile for management review, which is to summarize and represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and to communicate and report it to the management.
Implementing uniform controls for common risk scenarios means applying and enforcing the same or similar controls or countermeasures for the risks that have the same or similar characteristics or features, such as source, cause, impact, etc. Implementing uniform controls for common risk scenarios can help to ensure the consistency and efficiency of the risk management function, but it is not the primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because it does not summarize or represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and it may not be relevant or appropriate for the organization’s objectives and needs.
Ensuring business unit risk is uniformly distributed means ensuring that the risks that are associated with the different business units or divisions of the organization are balanced or equalized, and that they do not exceed or fall below the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Ensuring business unit risk is uniformly distributed can help to optimize the performance and profitability of the organization, but it is not the primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because it does not summarize or represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and it may not be feasible or realistic for the organization.
Quantifying the organization’s risk appetite means measuring and expressing the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing and able to accept or take, in pursuit of its objectives and goals. Quantifying the organization’s risk appetite can help to establish and communicate the boundaries and expectations for the organization’s risk management function, but it is not the primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because it does not summarize or represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and it may not be consistent or compatible with the organization’s strategy and culture. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 201
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management's response?
The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.
The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.
The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite
Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that measures the level and trend of a risk that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance1. A KRI threshold is a predefined value or range that indicates the acceptable or tolerable level of risk for the organization2. The organization’s risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that it is willing to take in order to meet its strategic goals3. Therefore, the most likely reason for senior management’s response is that the KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization’s risk appetite. This means that the current threshold is either too low or too high, resulting in false alarms or missed signals. By adjusting the threshold to reflect the organization’s risk appetite, senior management can ensure that the KRI provides relevant and actionable information for risk management and decision making. The other options are not the most likely reasons for senior management’s response, as they imply that the KRI is faulty, irrelevant, or misunderstood. The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected. This option assumes that the KRI is based on erroneous or unreliable data, which would affect its validity and reliability. However, this is not the most likely reason, as senior management would be expected to verify the data quality and accuracy before using the KRI for risk monitoring and reporting. The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory. This option assumes that the KRI is not aligned with the organization’s objectives, strategies, or risk profile, which would affect its usefulness and value. However, this is not the most likely reason, as senior management would be expected to review and update the KRI inventory periodically to ensure that the KRIs are relevant and meaningful for risk management. Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training. This option assumes that senior management lacks the knowledge or skills to interpret and use the KRI for risk management, which would affect their competence and confidence. However, this is not the most likely reason, as senior management would be expected to have sufficient risk awareness and education to understand and apply the KRI for risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.4, Page 53.
The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?
Logs and system events
Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules
Vulnerability assessment reports
Penetration test reports
 The analysis of logs and system events will best help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious, because they provide detailed and timely information about the source, destination, content, and context of the network traffic. Logs and system events can be collected from various sources, such as firewalls, routers, switches, servers, applications, and endpoints, and can be correlated and analyzed using tools such as security information and event management (SIEM) systems. By analyzing logs and system events, an organization can identify anomalies, patterns, trends, and indicators of compromise (IOCs) that may signal malicious network activity, such as unauthorized access, data exfiltration, malware infection, denial-of-service attack, or lateral movement. Logs and system events can also help determine the scope, impact, and root cause of the malicious network activity, and support the incident response and remediation process. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 221
Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?
Extending the date of a future action plan by two months
Retiring a risk scenario no longer used
Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted
Changing a risk owner
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
A risk register update is a change or modification to the information or status of the risks and their responses in the risk register. It may be triggered by the occurrence or resolution of a risk event, the identification or evaluation of a new or emerging risk, the implementation or completion of a risk response, the monitoring or review of the risk performance, etc.
The most important risk register update for senior management to review is avoiding a risk that was previously accepted, which means that the organization has decided to eliminate or withdraw from the risk exposure or activity that may cause the risk, instead of tolerating or retaining the risk as before. This may indicate a significant change in the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, objectives, or environment, and it may have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value.
The other options are not the most important risk register updates for senior management to review, because they do not indicate a significant change or impact on the organization’s risk profile or performance.
Extending the date of a future action plan by two months means that the organization has postponed the implementation or completion of the planned actions or measures to address the risk, due to some reasons or constraints. This may indicate a delay or deviation from the expected or desired risk outcome, but it may not have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value, unless the risk is very urgent or critical.
Retiring a risk scenario no longer used means that the organization has removed or discarded the risk scenario that is no longer relevant or applicable to the organization’s objectives or operations, due to some changes or developments. This may indicate a reduction or improvement in the organization’s risk exposure or level, but it may not have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value, unless the risk scenario was very significant or influential.
Changing a risk owner means that the organization has assigned or transferred the responsibility and accountability for the risk and its response to a different person or role, due to some reasons or circumstances. This may indicate a change or improvement in the organization’s risk governance or culture, but it may not have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value, unless the risk owner was very ineffective or inappropriate. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 160
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
An application owner has specified the acceptable downtime in the event of an incident to be much lower than the actual time required for the response team to recover the application. Which of the following should be the NEXT course of action?
Invoke the disaster recovery plan during an incident.
Prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available
Implement redundant infrastructure for the application.
Reduce the recovery time by strengthening the response team.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the next course of action when there is a gap between the acceptable downtime and the actual recovery time of an application is to prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available to reduce the gap. The cost-benefit analysis should compare the costs of implementing different risk response options, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer or acceptance, with the benefits of reducing the impact and likelihood of the risk. The cost-benefit analysis should also consider the alignment of the risk response options with the enterprise’s risk appetite, business objectives and strategy. The cost-benefit analysis should help the application owner and the risk owner to select the most appropriate risk response option that optimizes the value of the application and minimizes the residual risk.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: Risk Response Process, pp. 162-1631
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?
Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis
Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls
Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk
Building correlations between logs collected from different sources
 The primary consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs is ensuring that the control is proportional to the risk, because this helps to optimize the balance between the benefits and costs of the control, and to avoid over- or under-controlling the risk. User activity logs are records of the actions or events performed by users on IT systems, networks, or resources, such as accessing, modifying, or transferring data or files. Monitoring user activity logs can help to detect and prevent potential threats, such as unauthorized access, data leakage, or malicious activity, and to support the investigation and remediation of incidents. However, monitoring user activity logs also involves certain costs and challenges, such as collecting, storing, analyzing, and reporting large amounts of log data, ensuring the accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of the log data, protecting the privacy and security of the log data, and complying with the relevant laws and regulations. Therefore, when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs, the organization should consider the level and impact of the risk that the control is intended to address, and the value and effectiveness of the control in reducing the risk exposure and impact. The organization should also consider the costs and feasibility of implementing and maintaining the control, and the potential negative consequences or side effects of the control, such as performance degradation, user dissatisfaction, or legal liability. By ensuring that the control is proportional to the risk, the organization can achieve the optimal level of risk management, and avoid wasting resources or creating new risks. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 151
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?
Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.
New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.
The risk environment is subject to change.
The information security budget must be justified.
The primary reason to perform ongoing risk assessments is that the risk environment is subject to change. The risk environment is the external and internal factors that influence the level and nature of the risks that the organization faces1. These factors include economic, political, social, technological, legal, and environmental aspects, as well as the organization’s objectives, strategies, culture, and resources2. The risk environment is dynamic and unpredictable, and may change due to various events, trends, or developments that create new or modify existing risks3. Therefore, it is important to perform ongoing risk assessments to identify, analyze, and evaluate the changes in the risk environment, and to adjust the risk response and management accordingly. Ongoing risk assessments help to ensure that the organization’s risk profile is up to date and reflects the current reality, and that the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance are aligned with the changing risk environment4. The other options are not the primary reason to perform ongoing risk assessments, as they are either less comprehensive or less relevant than the changing risk environment. Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management. This option is a consequence or outcome of performing ongoing risk assessments, not a reason for doing so. Emerging risk is a new or evolving risk that has the potential to affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance5. Ongoing risk assessments can help to identify and monitor emerging risks, and to report them to management for decision making and action. However, this is not the main reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not cover the existing or modified risks that may also change due to the risk environment. New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals. This option is a specific or narrow example of a changing risk environment, not a general or broad reason for performing ongoing risk assessments. System vulnerabilities are weaknesses or flaws in the design, implementation, or operation of information systems that can be exploited by threats to cause harm or loss6. Ongoing risk assessments can help to discover and assess new system vulnerabilities that may emerge due to technological changes, cyberattacks, or human errors. However, this is not the primary reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not encompass the other types or sources of risks that may also change due to the risk environment. The information security budget must be justified. This option is a secondary or incidental benefit of performing ongoing risk assessments, not a primary or essential reason for doing so. The information security budget is the amount of money that the organization allocates for implementing and maintaining information security measures and controls7. Ongoing risk assessments can help to justify the information security budget by demonstrating the value and effectiveness of the security measures and controls in reducing the risks, and by identifying the gaps or needs for additional or improved security measures and controls. However, this is not the main reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not address the purpose or objective of risk assessment, which is to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks and their impact on the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, Page 47.
Which organization is implementing a project to automate the purchasing process, including the modification of approval controls. Which of the following tasks is lie responsibility of the risk practitioner*?
Verify that existing controls continue to properly mitigate defined risk
Test approval process controls once the project is completed
Update the existing controls for changes in approval processes from this project
Perform a gap analysis of the impacted control processes
A risk practitioner is a person who is responsible for performing risk management activities, such as identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, monitoring, and communicating risks. When an organization is implementing a project to automate the purchasing process, including the modification of approval controls, the task that is the responsibility of the risk practitioner is to verify that the existing controls continue to properly mitigate the defined risk. This means that the risk practitioner should ensure that the automation and modification of the approval controls do not introduce new risks or change the existing risk profile, and that the controls are still effective and adequate for the purchasing process. The risk practitioner should also monitor the performance and compliance of the controls, and recommend any improvements or adjustments as needed. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 177.
During a risk assessment, a key external technology supplier refuses to provide control design and effectiveness information, citing confidentiality concerns. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Escalate the non-cooperation to management
Exclude applicable controls from the assessment.
Review the supplier's contractual obligations.
Request risk acceptance from the business process owner.
The next step for the risk practitioner when a key external technology supplier refuses to provide control design and effectiveness information is to review the supplier’s contractual obligations. The contract between the organization and the supplier should specify the terms and conditions for the provision of the service or function, including the requirements for control design and effectiveness information. By reviewing the contract, the risk practitioner can determine if the supplier is breaching the contract and take appropriate actions to enforce the contract or terminate the relationship. Escalating the non-cooperation to management, excluding applicable controls from the assessment, and requesting risk acceptance from the business process owner are other possible steps, but they are not as effective as reviewing the supplier’s contractual obligations. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?
Collecting data for IT risk assessment
Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile
Utilizing a balanced scorecard
Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis
The best method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization is to establish and communicate the IT risk profile. An IT risk profile is a document that summarizes the key IT risks that the organization faces or accepts, and their likelihood, impact, and priority. An IT risk profile helps to identify and prioritize the most critical or relevant IT risks, and to align them with the organization’s objectives, strategy, and risk appetite. Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile is the best method to maintain a common view of IT risk, because it helps to create a shared understanding and awareness of the IT risks among the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions. Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile also helps to facilitate the IT risk decision-making and reporting processes, and to monitor and control the IT risk performance and improvement. The other options are not the best method to maintain a common view of IT risk, although they may be part of or derived from the IT risk profile. Collecting data for IT risk assessment, utilizing a balanced scorecard, and performing and publishing an IT risk analysis are all activities that can help to support or update the IT risk profile, but they are not the best method to maintain a common view of IT risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1, page 1-15.
Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?
Recovery time objectives (RTOs)
Segregation of duties
Communication plan
Critical asset inventory
The most important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program for all employees of the organization is the communication plan. A communication plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for communicating with the internal and external stakeholders before, during, and after a business continuity event. A communication plan helps to ensure that the relevant and accurate information is delivered to the appropriate parties in a timely and consistent manner, and that the feedback and responses are received and addressed accordingly. A communication plan also helps to maintain the trust, confidence, and reputation of the organization, and to comply with the legal or regulatory requirements. A communication plan is the most important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program, because it helps to prepare and educate the employees on how to communicate effectively and efficiently in a business continuity event, and how to avoid or minimize the communication errors, gaps, or conflicts that could affect the business continuity performance and recovery. The other options are not as important as the communication plan, although they may also be covered in a business continuity awareness training program. Recovery time objectives (RTOs), segregation of duties, and critical asset inventory are all factors that could affect the business continuity planning and implementation, but they are not the most important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program. References = 6
Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:
helping personnel make better-informed decisions
assisting the development of a risk register.
improving the effectiveness of IT controls.
increasing participation in the risk assessment process.
Effective risk communication best benefits an organization by helping personnel make better-informed decisions. Risk communication is the process of exchanging information and opinions among stakeholders about the nature, magnitude, significance, or control of a risk. By communicating risk information clearly and consistently, the organization can enhance the understanding and awareness of the risk, and enable the personnel to make decisions that are aligned with the risk appetite and objectives of the organization. Assisting the development of a risk register, improving the effectiveness of IT controls, and increasing participation in the risk assessment process are other possible benefits, but they are not as important as helping personnel make better-informed decisions. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?
Segment the system on its own network.
Ensure regular backups take place.
Virtualize the system in the cloud.
Install antivirus software on the system.
The best recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system is to segment the system on its own network. Network segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks or segments, based on different criteria, such as function, location, or security level. Network segmentation helps to isolate the system from the rest of the network, and limit the exposure and access to the system. Network segmentation also helps to improve the performance and security of the network, by reducing the network traffic and congestion, and enhancing the monitoring and control capabilities. The other options are not as effective as segmenting the system on its own network, although they may provide some additional protection or recovery options. Ensuring regular backups take place, virtualizing the system in the cloud, and installing antivirus software on the system are all measures that can help to reduce the risk of data loss or system damage, but they do not address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of security patches and updates for the system. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?
KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.
KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.
KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.
KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.
The main benefit of using key risk indicators (KRIs) for an organization is that they provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached. KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. KRIs also help to trigger timely and appropriate risk responses, before the risk becomes unmanageable or unacceptable. The other options are not the main benefit of using KRIs, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred, provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization, and assist in the preparation of the organization’s risk profile. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-36.
An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?
Perform a cost-benefit analysis.
Conduct a SWOT analysis.
Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.
Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.
Detailed Explanation:A cost-benefit analysis evaluates the financial implications of acquiring cyber insurance versus the potential loss exposure. This approach enables informed decision-making by comparing the insurance cost with the potential savings from covered risks.
Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?
Optimize the control environment.
Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.
Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.
Reduce the risk management budget.
The level of risk in the IT risk profile is the aggregate measure of the likelihood and impact of IT-related risks that may affect the enterprise’s objectives and operations.
The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its goals. It is usually expressed as a range or a threshold, and it is aligned with the enterprise’s strategy and culture.
If the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management’s risk appetite, it means that the enterprise has more capacity and opportunity to take on additional risks that may offer higher rewards or benefits.
The best recommendation in this situation is to optimize the control environment, which is the set of policies, procedures, standards, and practices that provide the foundation for managing IT risks and controls. Optimizing the control environment means enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of the controls, reducing the costs and complexity of compliance, and aligning the controls with the enterprise’s objectives and values.
Optimizing the control environment can help the enterprise to achieve the optimal balance between risk and return, and to leverage its risk management capabilities to create and protect value.
The other options are not the best recommendations, because they do not address the opportunity to improve the enterprise’s performance and resilience.
Realigning risk appetite to the current risk level may result in missing out on potential gains or advantages that could be obtained by taking more risks within the acceptable range.
Decreasing the number of related risk scenarios may reduce the scope and depth of risk analysis and reporting, and impair the enterprise’s ability to identify and respond to emerging or changing risks.
Reducing the risk management budget may compromise the quality and reliability of the risk management process and activities, and weaken the enterprise’s risk culture and governance. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 29-30, 34-35, 38-39, 44-45
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 145
Which of the following BEST describes the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions?
It compares performance levels of IT assets to value delivered.
It facilitates the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives.
It provides input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects.
It helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure
An IT risk profile is a document that summarizes the IT-related risks that an organization faces, as well as the information and actions related to those risks, such as the risk description, assessment, response, status, and owner. An IT risk profile is a valuable tool for managing and communicating IT risks and their impact on the organization’s objectives and operations. The best description of the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions is that it helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure. This means that the IT risk profile can help to evaluate the potential consequences and implications of different IT choices or actions on the level and nature of the IT risks that the organization faces. The IT risk profile can also help to identify and address the gaps or opportunities for improvement in the IT risk management process and performance. The other options are not the best descriptions of the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions, although they may be related or beneficial. Comparing performance levels of IT assets to value delivered is a technique to measure and optimize the efficiency and effectiveness of the IT resources and activities that support the organization’s goals and needs. However, this technique does not necessarily involve the IT risk profile, as it focuses on the output and outcome of the IT assets, not the input and impact of the IT risks. Facilitating the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives is a technique to ensure that the IT strategy and plans are consistent and compatible with the organization’s vision, mission, strategy, and objectives. However, this technique does not depend on the IT risk profile, as it focuses on the direction and purpose of the IT objectives, not the probability and threat of the IT risks. Providing input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects is a technique to support and justify the initiation and implementation of new IT initiatives that can create value or solve problems for the organization. However, this technique does not require the IT risk profile, as it focuses on the cost and benefit of the IT projects, not the risk and response of the IT risks. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 962; IT Risk Management Guide for 2022 | CIO Insight3; IT Risk Management Process, Frameworks & Templates4
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?
Completeness of system documentation
Results of end user acceptance testing
Variances between planned and actual cost
availability of in-house resources
End user acceptance testing is a process that verifies that a system or service meets the requirements and expectations of the end users, who are the actual or potential customers or beneficiaries of the system or service. End user acceptance testing is the final stage of testing before the system or service is deployed or released to the production environment. The results of end user acceptance testing are the most important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation, as they indicate the quality, functionality, usability, and reliability of the system or service from the end user perspective. The results of end user acceptance testing can help to identify and resolve any defects, errors, or issues that may affect the performance, satisfaction, or acceptance of the system or service by the end users. The results of end user acceptance testing can also help to evaluate the benefits, value, and risks of the system or service for the end users and the organization. The other options are not the most important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation, although they may be relevant and useful. The completeness of system documentation is a factor that affects the maintainability, supportability, and auditability of the system or service, but it does not measure the end user experience or satisfaction. The variances between planned and actual cost is a measure of the efficiency and budget management of the system or service development or implementation, but it does not reflect the end user needs or expectations. The availability of in-house resources is a resource that supports the system or service delivery and operation, but it does not ensure the end user acceptance or approval. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 180-1811; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 87
A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?
Business continuity manager (BCM)
Human resources manager (HRM)
Chief risk officer (CRO)
Chief information officer (CIO)
A systems interruption caused by a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures is a serious breach of information security and IT risk management. The person who should be accountable for this incident is the chief information officer (CIO), who is responsible for overseeing the IT function and ensuring compliance with IT policies and standards. The CIO should also ensure that appropriate corrective and preventive actions are taken to prevent such incidents from recurring and to mitigate the impact of the systems interruption on the business operations and objectives. The CIO should also report the incident to the senior management and the board of directors, and communicate with the relevant stakeholders about the incident and the actions taken. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 181
Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?
To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors
To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk
To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance
To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions
 According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the main reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk is to ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization’s risk appetite and risk tolerance. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, while the risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in outcomes related to specific performance measures linked to objectives. Continuous monitoring is a process that tracks the security state of an information system on an ongoing basis and maintains the security authorization for the system over time. Continuous monitoring helps to:
Provide ongoing assurance that the implemented security controls are operating effectively and efficiently
Detect changes in the risk profile of the information system and the environment of operation
Identify new or emerging threats and vulnerabilities that may affect the information system
Support risk-based decisions by providing timely and relevant risk information to stakeholders
Facilitate the implementation of corrective actions and risk mitigation strategies
Promote accountability and transparency in the risk management process
Enhance the security awareness and culture within the organization
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 213-2141
IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would
be MOST helpful?
IT risk register
List of key risk indicators
Internal audit reports
List of approved projects
A consolidated view into the organization’s risk profile is a comprehensive and integrated representation of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation12.
The most helpful material to provide a consolidated view into the organization’s risk profile is the IT risk register, which is a document that records and tracks the IT-related risks, their sources, impacts, likelihoods, responses, owners, and statuses within the organization34.
The IT risk register is the most helpful material because it provides a complete and consistent overview of the IT risk landscape, and enables the identification, analysis, evaluation, treatment, monitoring, and communication of IT risks across the organization34.
The IT risk register is also the most helpful material because it supports the project prioritization and resource allocation decisions, by highlighting the most significant and relevant IT risks, and by showing the alignment of the IT risk responses with the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, and objectives34.
The other options are not the most helpful materials, but rather possible inputs or outputs of the IT risk register. For example:
A list of key risk indicators (KRIs) is a set of metrics that measure the occurrence or status of IT risks, and provide timely and relevant information and feedback to the organization56. However, a list of KRIs is not the most helpful material because it does not provide a comprehensive and integrated view of the IT risk profile, but rather a snapshot or a trend of selected IT risks56.
Internal audit reports are documents that present the findings and recommendations of the internal audit function, which evaluates the adequacy and effectiveness of the IT risk management and control processes within the organization78. However, internal audit reports are not the most helpful material because they do not provide a comprehensive and integrated view of the IT risk profile, but rather a periodic and independent assessment of specific IT risk areas78.
A list of approved projects is a document that records and tracks the IT projects that have been authorized and funded by the organization, and their objectives, scope, schedule, budget, and status . However, a list of approved projects is not the most helpful material because it does not provide a comprehensive and integrated view of the IT risk profile, but rather a summary of the IT project portfolio . References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: IT Risk Register Template, ISACA, 2019
4: IT Risk Register Toolkit, ISACA, 2019
5: KPIs for Security Operations & Incident Response, SecurityScorecard Blog, June 7, 2021
6: Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Security Operations and Incident Response, DFLabs White Paper, 2018
7: IT Audit and Assurance Standards, ISACA, 2014
8: IT Audit and Assurance Guidelines, ISACA, 2014
: IT Project Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
: IT Project Management Best Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 1, 2018
Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the risk of account compromise?
Enforce password changes.
Enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA).
Enforce role-based authentication.
Enforce password encryption.
Detailed Explanation:Multi-factor authentication (MFA) significantly reduces the risk of account compromise by requiring multiple forms of verification, such as a password and a one-time code, enhancing security beyond single-factor authentication methods.
The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:
gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization
gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization
adjust the controls prior to an external audit
reduce the dependency on external audits
 A control self-assessment (CSA) is a technique that allows managers and work teams directly involved in business units, functions, or processes to participate in assessing the organization’s risk management and control processes. The main purpose of conducting a CSA is to gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization, which means how well the controls are designed, implemented, and operated to achieve the desired outcomes and mitigate the risks. A CSA can help to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the existing controls, as well as the gaps and opportunities for improvement. A CSA can also help to enhance the awareness, ownership, and accountability of the control environment among the managers and staff. The other options are not the main purpose of conducting a CSA, although they may be related or beneficial. Gaining a better understanding of the risk in the organization is a result of conducting a CSA, but it is not the primary goal. The primary goal is to evaluate the controls that address the risks, not the risks themselves. Adjusting the controls prior to an external audit is a possible action that may follow a CSA, but it is not the reason for conducting a CSA. The reason for conducting a CSA is to improve the control effectiveness, not to prepare for an audit. Reducing the dependency on external audits is a potential benefit of conducting a CSA, but it is not the objective of conducting a CSA. The objective of conducting a CSA is to enhance the internal control assurance, not to replace the external audit assurance. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 153-1541; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 802
From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?
The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster
Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.
All business-critical systems are successfully tested.
All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).
A disaster recovery test is a simulation of a disaster scenario that evaluates the effectiveness and readiness of the disaster recovery plan. The main purpose of a disaster recovery test is to ensure that the organization can resume its normal operations as quickly as possible after a disaster, with minimal or no data loss. Therefore, the most important objective of a disaster recovery test from a business perspective is to verify that all critical data can be recovered within the RTOs, which are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring the data and systems after a disaster. If the RTOs are not met, the organization may face significant financial, operational, and reputational losses. The other options are not the most important objectives of a disaster recovery test, although they may be beneficial outcomes. Gaining assurance that the organization can recover from a disaster is a subjective and qualitative goal, while recovering data within RTOs is a measurable and quantitative goal. Discovering errors in the disaster recovery process is a valuable result of a disaster recovery test, but it is not the primary objective. The objective is to correct the errors and improve the process, not just to find them. Testing all business critical systems is a necessary step in a disaster recovery test, but it is not the ultimate goal. The goal is to ensure that the systems can be restored and function properly within the RTOs. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 197-1981; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 572
Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?
The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts
The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk
A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts
The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk and its associated controls1. The risk owner is also responsible for ensuring that the risk is within the acceptable level and that the risk response is effective and efficient2. Therefore, the most appropriate owner for a newly identified IT risk is the individual who has the authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk, as they have the most interest and influence on the risk and its impact on the business objectives. The other options are not the most appropriate owners for a newly identified IT risk, as they may not have the authority or the accountability to manage the risk. The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts may have the operational responsibility or the oversight of the risk management activities, but they may not have the authority to allocate the resources or approve the risk response. A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts may have the project management skills or the knowledge of the risk management process, but they may not have the accountability or the ownership of the risk or its outcomes. The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge may have the technical expertise or the understanding of the risk and its causes, but they may not have the decision-making power or the responsibility to manage the risk or its controls. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 822
A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?
Risk impact
Risk trend
Risk appetite
Risk likelihood
 Risk impact is the potential loss or damage that a risk event can cause to an organization. Risk impact can be expressed in qualitative or quantitative terms, such as financial, reputational, operational, or legal. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the key information about the identified risks, such as their description, likelihood, impact, response, and status. A risk register helps an organization to monitor and manage its risks effectively and efficiently. When there is a change in the external or internal environment that affects the organization’s risks, such as new regulations, the risk register should be updated to reflect this change. The most important element of the risk register to update in this case is the risk impact, because the new regulations have significantly increased the penalties for data breaches, which means that the potential loss or damage that a data breach can cause to the organization has also increased. By updating the risk impact, the organization can reassess the severity and priority of the data breach risk, and adjust its risk response accordingly. The other elements of the risk register are less important to update in this case. The risk trend shows the direction and rate of change of the risk over time, which may or may not be affected by the new regulations. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, which is unlikely to change due to the new regulations. The risk likelihood is the probability of a risk event occurring, which is also independent of the new regulations. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
Which of the following is MOST helpful when determining whether a system security control is effective?
Control standard operating procedures
Latest security assessment
Current security threat report
Updated risk register
Detailed Explanation:The latest security assessment provides a detailed evaluation of the control’s performance and identifies gaps or weaknesses. This is critical for determining the effectiveness of a system security control in mitigating threats.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?
Standard operating procedures
SWOT analysis
Industry benchmarking
Control gap analysis
New risk exposures due to changes in the business environment are the possibilities and impacts of new or emerging threats or opportunities that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation, as a result of changes in the internal or external factors that influence the organization’s operations, such as technology, competition, regulation, or customer behavior12.
The most helpful tool in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment is a SWOT analysis, which is a technique that involves identifying and analyzing the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) that are relevant to the organization’s situation, goals, and capabilities34.
A SWOT analysis is the most helpful tool because it helps the organization to scan and assess the business environment, and to identify and prioritize the new or emerging risk exposures that may arise from the changes in the environment34.
A SWOT analysis is also the most helpful tool because it helps the organization to align and adapt its strategy and actions to the changes in the environment, and to leverage its strengths and opportunities, and mitigate its weaknesses and threats34.
The other options are not the most helpful tools, but rather possible sources or inputs that may be used in a SWOT analysis. For example:
Standard operating procedures are documents that describe the routine tasks and processes that are performed by the organization, and the policies and standards that govern them56. However, these documents are not the most helpful tools because they may not reflect or capture the changes in the business environment, and they may need to be revised or updated to address the new or emerging risk exposures56.
Industry benchmarking is a technique that involves comparing and contrasting the performance and practices of the organization with those of the similar or leading organizations in the same or related industry, and identifying the gaps or opportunities for improvement78. However, this technique is not the most helpful tool because it may not provide a comprehensive or holistic view of the business environment, and it may not align with the organization’s specific situation, goals, or capabilities78.
Control gap analysis is a technique that involves assessing and evaluating the adequacy and effectiveness of the controls that are designed and implemented to mitigate the risks, and identifying and addressing the areas or aspects that need to be improved or added . However, this technique is not the most helpful tool because it is reactive rather than proactive, and it may not identify or anticipate the new or emerging risk exposures that may result from the changes in the business environment . References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: SWOT Analysis - ISACA1
4: SWOT Analysis: What It Is and When to Use It2
5: Standard Operating Procedure - Wikipedia3
6: How to Write Effective Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)4
7: Benchmarking - Wikipedia5
8: Benchmarking: Definition, Types, Process, Advantages & Examples6
: Control Gap Analysis - ISACA7
: Control Gap Analysis: A Step-by-Step Guide8
Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?
Percentage of changes with a fallback plan
Number of changes implemented
Percentage of successful changes
Average time required to implement a change
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the percentage of successful changes is the most effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management, as it measures the quality and effectiveness of the change management process and its alignment with the organization’s objectives and requirements. The percentage of successful changes helps to:
Evaluate the extent to which the changes have met the expected outcomes and benefits
Identify and analyze the root causes of any failed or problematic changes and implement corrective actions or improvement measures
Monitor and report the performance and progress of the change management process and its impact on the organization
Enhance the confidence and satisfaction of the stakeholders and customers with the change management process and its results
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Scenarios, pp. 107-1081
An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?
Employ security guards.
Conduct security awareness training.
Install security cameras.
Require security access badges.
Social engineering is a technique that involves manipulating or deceiving people into performing actions or divulging information that may compromise the security of an organization or its data12.
Entry into an organization’s secured physical premises is a form of physical access that allows an unauthorized individual to access, steal, or damage the organization’s assets, such as equipment, documents, or systems34.
The best way to prevent future occurrences of social engineering entry into an organization’s secured physical premises is to conduct security awareness training, which is an educational program that aims to equip the organization’s employees with the knowledge and skills they need to protect the organization’s data and sensitive information from cyber threats, such as hacking, phishing, or other breaches56.
Security awareness training is the best way because it helps the employees to recognize and resist the common and emerging social engineering techniques, such as tailgating, impersonation, or pretexting, that may be used by the attackers to gain physical access to the organization’s premises56.
Security awareness training is also the best way because it fosters a culture of security and responsibility among the employees, and encourages them to follow the best practices and policies for physical security, such as locking the doors, verifying the identity of visitors, or reporting any suspicious activities or incidents56.
The other options are not the best way, but rather possible measures or controls that may supplement or enhance the security awareness training. For example:
Employing security guards is a measure that involves hiring or contracting professional personnel who are trained and authorized to monitor, patrol, and protect the organization’s premises from unauthorized access or intrusion78. However, this measure is not the best way because it may not be sufficient or effective to prevent or deter all types of social engineering attacks, especially if the attackers are able to bypass, deceive, or coerce the security guards78.
Installing security cameras is a control that involves using electronic devices that capture and record the visual images of the organization’s premises, and provide evidence or alerts of any unauthorized access or activity . However, this control is not the best way because it is reactive rather than proactive, and may not prevent or stop the social engineering attacks before they cause any harm or damage to the organization .
Requiring security access badges is a control that involves using physical or electronic cards that identify and authenticate the employees or authorized visitors who are allowed to enter the organization’s premises, and restrict or deny the access to anyone else . However, this control is not the best way because it may not be foolproof or reliable to prevent or detect the social engineering attacks, especially if the attackers are able to steal, forge, or clone the security access badges . References =
1: What is Social Engineering? | Types & Examples of Social Engineering Attacks1
2: Social Engineering: What It Is and How to Prevent It | Digital Guardian2
3: What is physical Social Engineering and why is it important? - Integrity3603
4: What Is Tailgating (Piggybacking) In Cyber Security? - Wlan Labs4
5: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky5
6: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US6
7: Security Guard - Wikipedia7
8: Security Guard Services - Allied Universal8
: Security Camera - Wikipedia
: Security Camera Systems - The Home Depot
: Access Badge - Wikipedia
: Access Control Systems - HID Global
Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?
Preventive
Directive
Detective
Compensating
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), establishing an organizational code of conduct is an example of a directive control, which is a type of control that guides or steers the behavior of individuals or processes to achieve desired outcomes. A directive control aims to influence or encourage compliance with the organization’s policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines. A directive control can also communicate the organization’s values, ethics, and expectations to its stakeholders. A directive control can take various forms, such as:
Codes of conduct or ethics
Policies or manuals
Training or awareness programs
Job descriptions or roles and responsibilities
Performance appraisals or incentives
Supervision or oversight
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Scenarios, pp. 105-1061
It is MOST appropriate for changes to be promoted to production after they are:
communicated to business management
tested by business owners.
approved by the business owner.
initiated by business users.
The most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production is after they are approved by the business owner, who is the individual or group that is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements that are supported or affected by the changes. The approval by the business owner ensures that the changes are aligned and compatible with the business objectives and requirements, and that they provide the expected or desired outcomes or benefits for the business.
The other options are not the most appropriate times for changes to be promoted to production, because they do not ensure that the changes are aligned and compatible with the business objectives and requirements, and that they provide the expected or desired outcomes or benefits for the business.
Communicating the changes to business management means informing or reporting the changes to the senior management or executives that oversee or direct the business activities or functions. Communicating the changes to business management is important for ensuring the awareness and support of the business management, but it is not the most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production, because it does not indicate whether the changes are approved or authorized by the business owner, who is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements.
Testing the changes by business owners means verifying and validating the functionality and usability of the changes, using the input and feedback from the business owners. Testing the changes by business owners is important for ensuring the quality and performance of the changes, but it is not the most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production, because it does not indicate whether the changes are approved or authorized by the business owner, who is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements.
Initiating the changes by business users means requesting or proposing the changes by the end users or customers that interact with the information systems and resources that are affected by the changes. Initiating the changes by business users is important for ensuring the relevance and appropriateness of the changes, but it is not the most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production, because it does not indicate whether the changes are approved or authorized by the business owner, who is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 194
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?
Continuous monitoring
A control self-assessment
Transaction logging
Benchmarking against peers
Events exceeding risk thresholds are situations or occurrences that result in the actual level of risk exceeding the acceptable or tolerable level of risk, as defined by the organization’s risk appetite, criteria, and objectives12.
The most effective way to enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds is to implement continuous monitoring, which is a process that involves collecting and analyzing data and information on the performance and status of the business processes, systems, and controls, and detecting and reporting any deviations, anomalies, or issues that may indicate a risk event34.
Continuous monitoring is the most effective way because it provides timely and accurate visibility and insight into the risk landscape, and enables the business operations manager to identify and respond to the events exceeding risk thresholds before they escalate or cause significant harm or damage to the organization34.
Continuous monitoring is also the most effective way because it supports the risk management process and objectives, which are to identify and address the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders34.
The other options are not the most effective ways, but rather possible tools or techniques that may complement or enhance the continuous monitoring. For example:
A control self-assessment is a technique that involves engaging and empowering the business process owners and operators to evaluate and report on the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls that are designed and implemented to mitigate the risks56. However, this technique is not the most effective way because it is periodic rather than continuous, and it may not capture or communicate the events exceeding risk thresholds in a timely or consistent manner56.
Transaction logging is a tool that involves recording and storing the details and history of the transactions or activities that are performed by the business processes or systems, and providing an audit trail for verification or investigation purposes78. However, this tool is not the most effective way because it is passive rather than active, and it may not detect or report the events exceeding risk thresholds unless they are analyzed or queried78.
Benchmarking against peers is a technique that involves comparing and contrasting the performance and practices of the business processes or systems with those of the similar or leading organizations in the same or related industry, and identifying the gaps or opportunities for improvement . However, this technique is not the most effective way because it is external rather than internal, and it may not reflect or align with the organization’s specific risk appetite, criteria, and objectives . References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: Continuous Monitoring - ISACA1
4: Continuous Monitoring: A New Approach to Risk Management - ISACA Journal2
5: Risk and control self-assessment - KPMG Global3
6: Control Self Assessments - PwC4
7: Transaction Log - Wikipedia5
8: Transaction Logging - IBM6
: Benchmarking - Wikipedia7
: Benchmarking: Definition, Types, Process, Advantages & Examples
Which of the following would be a risk practitioners’ BEST recommendation for preventing cyber intrusion?
Establish a cyber response plan
Implement data loss prevention (DLP) tools.
Implement network segregation.
Strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts.
A cyber intrusion is an unauthorized or malicious access to a computer system or network by an attacker. A cyber intrusion can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or network, as well as the data and services that it hosts. A cyber intrusion can also cause damage, disruption, or theft to the organization or its stakeholders. One of the best ways to prevent cyber intrusion is to strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts, which means to identify and fix the weaknesses or flaws in the system or network that can be exploited by the attackers. Vulnerability remediation efforts can include conducting regular vulnerability assessments, applying security patches and updates, configuring security settings and policies, and implementing security controls and measures. By strengthening vulnerability remediation efforts, the organization can reduce the attack surface and the likelihood of cyber intrusion, as well as enhance the resilience and protection of the system or network. The other options are not the best recommendations for preventing cyber intrusion, although they may be helpful and complementary. Establishing a cyber response plan is a technique to prepare for and respond to a cyber incident, such as a cyber intrusion, by defining the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources that are needed to manage and recover from the incident. However, a cyber response plan is a reactive and contingency measure, while strengthening vulnerability remediation efforts is a proactive and preventive measure. Implementing data loss prevention (DLP) tools is a technology that tries to detect and stop sensitive data breaches, or data leakage incidents, in an organization. DLP tools can help to protect the data from being disclosed to an unauthorized person, whether it is deliberate or accidental. However, DLP tools do not prevent cyber intrusion itself, as they only focus on the data, not the system or network. Implementing network segregation is a method to divide a network into smaller segments or subnetworks, each with its own security policies and controls. Network segregation can help to isolate and contain the impact of a cyber intrusion, as well as to limit the access and movement of the attackers within the network. However, network segregation does not prevent cyber intrusion from occurring, as it does not address the vulnerabilities or flaws in the system or network. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1651; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 902; What Are Security Controls? - F53; Assessing Security Controls: Keystone of the Risk Management … - ISACA4
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization's risk taxonomy?
Leading industry frameworks
Business context
Regulatory requirements
IT strategy
A risk taxonomy is a classification or categorization system that defines and organizes the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. It includes the risk domains, categories, subcategories, elements, attributes, etc., and the relationships and dependencies among them. A risk taxonomy can help the organization to identify, analyze, evaluate, and communicate the risks, and to align them with the organization’s strategy and culture.
The most important consideration when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy is the business context, which is the set of internal and external factors and conditions that influence and shape the organization’s objectives, operations, and performance. It includes the organization’s vision, mission, values, goals, stakeholders, resources, capabilities, processes, systems, etc., as well as the market, industry, regulatory, social, environmental, etc., factors and conditions that affect the organization.
Considering the business context when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy ensures that the risk taxonomy is relevant, appropriate, and proportional to the organization’s needs and expectations, and that it supports the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to ensure that the risk taxonomy is consistent and compatible with the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions, and that it reflects the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.
The other options are not the most important considerations when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the risk taxonomy is suitable and acceptable for the organization.
Leading industry frameworks are the established or recognized models or standards that provide the principles, guidelines, and best practices for the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions. Leading industry frameworks can provide useful references and benchmarks when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but they are not the most important consideration, because they may not be specific or applicable to the organization’s business context, and they may not reflect the organization’s objectives and values.
Regulatory requirements are the rules or obligations that the organization must comply with, as imposed or enforced by the relevant authorities or regulators. Regulatory requirements can provide important inputs and constraints when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but they are not the most important consideration, because they may not be comprehensive or sufficient for the organization’s business context, and they may not support the organization’s objectives and values.
IT strategy is the plan or direction that the organization follows to achieve its IT objectives and to align its IT resources and capabilities with its business objectives and needs. IT strategy can provide important inputs and alignment when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but it is not the most important consideration, because it may not cover all the relevant or significant risks that may affect the organization’s business context, and it may not reflect the organization’s objectives and values. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 175
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?
Business impact analysis
Threat analysis
Risk response analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), threat analysis would be the most helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events, as it involves identifying and evaluating the sources and causes of potential harm or loss to the IT assets and processes. Threat analysis helps to:
Determine the frequency and probability of occurrence of different types of threats, such as natural disasters, human errors, malicious attacks, system failures, etc.
Assess the impact and severity of the threats on the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the IT assets and processes
Prioritize the threats based on their likelihood and impact
Develop appropriate risk response strategies to prevent, mitigate, transfer or accept the threats
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 35-361
The BEST way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to:
align with audit results.
benchmark with competitor s actions.
reference best practice.
focus on the business drivers
The best way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to focus on the business drivers, which are the factors that influence the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation12.
Focusing on the business drivers means aligning the risk mitigation actions with the organization’s strategic goals, priorities, and values, and demonstrating how the actions will support or enhance the organization’s capabilities, opportunities, and competitive advantage12.
Focusing on the business drivers also means communicating the benefits, costs, and trade-offs of the risk mitigation actions to the relevant stakeholders, and showing how the actions will address the organization’s risk appetite, tolerance, and exposure12.
The other options are not the best way to justify the risk mitigation actions, but rather possible sources of information or guidance that may support the justification. For example:
Aligning with audit results is a way to validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk mitigation actions, and to identify any gaps or weaknesses that need improvement34. However, audit results may not reflect the organization’s current or future business drivers, and may not capture the full scope or impact of the risk mitigation actions34.
Benchmarking with competitor’s actions is a way to compare the organization’s risk mitigation actions with the best practices or standards of the industry or market, and to identify any areas of improvement or differentiation56. However, competitor’s actions may not be suitable or applicable for the organization’s specific context, needs, or challenges, and may not align with the organization’s business drivers56.
Referencing best practice is a way to adopt the proven or accepted methods or techniques for risk mitigation, and to ensure the quality and consistency of the risk mitigation actions78. However, best practice may not be the most optimal or innovative solution for the organization’s unique situation, and may not address the organization’s business drivers78. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: IT Audit and Assurance Standards, ISACA, 2014
4: IT Audit and Assurance Guidelines, ISACA, 2014
5: Benchmarking IT Risk Management Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 4, 2017
6: Benchmarking: A Tool for Improving IT Risk Management, ISACA Now Blog, March 27, 2017
7: IT Risk Management Best Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 1, 2018
8: IT Risk Management Best Practices, ISACA Now Blog, January 9, 2018
Risk mitigation procedures should include:
buying an insurance policy.
acceptance of exposures
deployment of counter measures.
enterprise architecture implementation.
Risk mitigation procedures are the actions and plans that an organization implements to reduce the likelihood and impact of identified risks. Risk mitigation procedures should include the deployment of counter measures, which are the specific controls or solutions that address the root causes or sources of the risks, and prevent or minimize the potential losses or damages. For example, a counter measure for the risk of data breach could be encrypting the data or implementing a firewall. The deployment of counter measures should be based on a cost-benefit analysis, a risk assessment, and a risk response strategy. The other options are not necessarily part of risk mitigation procedures. Buying an insurance policy is an example of risk transfer, which is a risk response strategy that shifts the responsibility or burden of the risk to another party, such as an insurer or a vendor. However, risk transfer does not eliminate or reduce the risk itself, and it may involve additional costs or conditions. Acceptance of exposures is an example of risk acceptance, which is a risk response strategy that acknowledges the existence and consequences of the risk, and decides not to take any action to change the risk situation. However, risk acceptance does not mitigate the risk, and it may require contingency plans or reserves to deal with the potential outcomes. Enterprise architecture implementation is an example of a business process or project that may involve or create risks, but it is not a risk mitigation procedure itself. Enterprise architecture is the design and structure of an organization’s IT systems, networks, and resources, and how they align with the organization’s goals and strategies. Enterprise architecture implementation may require risk management activities, such as risk identification, assessment, and response, but it is not a risk mitigation procedure itself. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 151
A global organization is considering the acquisition of a competitor. Senior management has requested a review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization. Which of the following components of this review would provide the MOST useful information?
Risk appetite statement
Enterprise risk management framework
Risk management policies
Risk register
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the risk register is the most useful component of the review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization, as it provides a comprehensive and up-to-date record of the identified risks, their likelihood and impact, their risk response actions, and their residual risk levels. The risk register helps to:
Understand the current and potential threats and vulnerabilities that may affect the targeted organization’s objectives and performance
Evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and controls implemented by the targeted organization
Identify the gaps or weaknesses in the risk management practices and capabilities of the targeted organization
Assess the compatibility and alignment of the risk appetite and risk tolerance of the targeted organization with the acquiring organization
Estimate the value and benefits of the acquisition and the potential risks and costs involved
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 38-391
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
Number of users that participated in the DRP testing
Number of issues identified during DRP testing
Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing
Percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization is achieving its objectives. In the context of disaster recovery planning (DRP), a KPI should reflect the ability of the organization to recover its critical business processes and applications within the predefined time frames and service levels. One of the most important KPIs for DRP is the percentage of applications that met the recovery time objective (RTO) during DRP testing. The RTO is the maximum acceptable length of time that a business process or application can be down after a disaster. By measuring the percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing, the organization can evaluate the performance and reliability of its DRP, identify any gaps or weaknesses, and implement corrective actions to improve its readiness and resilience. The other options are not the best KPIs for DRP, as they do not directly measure the effectiveness of the recovery process. The number of users that participated in the DRP testing is a measure of the involvement and awareness of the staff, but not of the outcome of the testing. The number of issues identified during DRP testing is a measure of the quality and completeness of the DRP, but not of the actual recovery time. The percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing is a measure of the improvement and maturity of the DRP, but not of the current recovery capability. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3.3, Page 138.
An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:
chief risk officer.
project manager.
chief information officer.
business process owner.
The business process owner should be the risk owner for the risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system, because they are responsible for the performance and outcomes of the HR business process, and they understand the business requirements, expectations, and impact of the HR system. The business process owner can also evaluate the trade-offs between the potential benefits and costs of the HR system, and the potential risks and consequences of a failure or breach of the system. The business process owner can also communicate and justify their risk acceptance or mitigation decision to the senior management and other stakeholders, and ensure that the risk is monitored and reviewed regularly. The other options are less appropriate to be the risk owner for this risk exposure. The chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing the enterprise-wide risk management framework and process, which includes ensuring the identification, assessment, and reporting of risks. However, they are not the owner of the HR system or the HR business process, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept or mitigate the risk on behalf of the business. The project manager is responsible for managing the implementation of the HR system, which includes ensuring the delivery of the system within the scope, time, and budget constraints. However, they are not the owner of the HR system or the HR business process, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept or mitigate the risk on behalf of the business. The chief information officer is responsible for managing the IT function and resources, which includes providing the technical support and security for the HR system. However, they are not the owner of the HR system or the HR business process, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept or mitigate the risk on behalf of the business. References = Getting risk ownership right 1
A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:
communication
identification.
treatment.
assessment.
A risk heat map is a tool that shows the likelihood and impact of different risks on a matrix, using colors to indicate the level of risk. A risk heat map is most commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk assessment, which is the process of estimating the probability and consequences of the risks, and comparing them against the risk criteria1. A risk heat map can help to visualize, communicate, and prioritize the risks, as well as to evaluate the effectiveness of the risk response actions2. The other options are not the best choices for describing the purpose of a risk heat map, as they are either less specific or less relevant than risk assessment. Risk communication is the process of sharing and exchanging information about the risks among the stakeholders3. A risk heat map can support risk communication by providing a clear and concise representation of the risks, but it is not the main objective of the tool. Risk identification is the process of finding, recognizing, and describing the risks that may affect the organization4. A risk heat map can help to identify the risks by categorizing them into different domains or sources, but it is not the primary function of the tool. Risk treatment is the process of selecting and implementing the appropriate measures to modify the risk5. A risk heat map can help to guide the risk treatment by showing the risk ratings and thresholds, but it is not the core purpose of the tool. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, Page 47.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?
The number of security incidents escalated to senior management
The number of resolved security incidents
The number of newly identified security incidents
The number of recurring security incidents
A security incident handling process is a set of procedures and activities that aim to identify, analyze, contain, eradicate, recover from, and learn from security incidents that affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information assets12.
The maturity of a security incident handling process is the degree to which the process is defined, managed, measured, controlled, and improved, and the extent to which it meets the organization’s objectives and expectations34.
The best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of a security incident handling process is the number of recurring security incidents, which is the frequency or rate of security incidents that are repeated or reoccur after being resolved or closed56.
The number of recurring security incidents is the best KPI because it reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the security incident handling process, and the ability of the process to prevent or reduce the recurrence of security incidents through root cause analysis, corrective actions, and continuous improvement56.
The number of recurring security incidents is also the best KPI because it is directly related to the organization’s objectives and expectations, such as minimizing the impact and cost of security incidents, enhancing the security posture and resilience of the organization, and complying with the relevant standards and regulations56.
The other options are not the best KPIs, but rather possible metrics that may support or complement the measurement of the maturity of the security incident handling process. For example:
The number of security incidents escalated to senior management is a metric that indicates the severity or complexity of security incidents, and the involvement or awareness of the senior management in the security incident handling process56. However, this metric does not measure the effectiveness or efficiency of the process, or the ability of the process to prevent or reduce security incidents56.
The number of resolved security incidents is a metric that indicates the output or outcome of the security incident handling process, and the performance or productivity of the security incident handling team56. However, this metric does not measure the quality or sustainability of the resolution, or the ability of the process to prevent or reduce security incidents56.
The number of newly identified security incidents is a metric that indicates the input or demand of the security incident handling process, and the capability or capacity of the security incident detection and identification mechanisms56. However, this metric does not measure the effectiveness or efficiency of the process, or the ability of the process to prevent or reduce security incidents56. References =
1: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide, NIST Special Publication 800-61, Revision 2, August 2012
2: ISO/IEC 27035:2016 Information technology — Security techniques — Information security incident management
3: Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) for Services, Version 1.3, November 2010
4: COBIT 2019 Framework: Introduction and Methodology, ISACA, 2018
5: KPIs for Security Operations & Incident Response, SecurityScorecard Blog, June 7, 2021
6: Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Security Operations and Incident Response, DFLabs White Paper, 2018
Which of the following attributes of a key risk indicator (KRI) is MOST important?
Repeatable
Automated
Quantitative
Qualitative
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that helps organizations monitor and assess potential risks that may impact their operations, objectives, or performance. A good KRI should have certain characteristics that make it effective for risk management. One of these characteristics is repeatability, which means that the KRI can be measured consistently over time and across different situations. A repeatable KRI ensures that the risk data is reliable, comparable, and meaningful, and that the risk trends and patterns can be identified and analyzed. A repeatable KRI also supports the decision-making process by providing timely and accurate information on the risk level and status. Therefore, repeatability is the most important attribute of a KRI. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 441
Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?
Vulnerability and threat analysis
Control remediation planning
User acceptance testing (UAT)
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Information systems control deficiencies are the weaknesses or flaws in the design or implementation of the controls that are intended to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and reliability of the information systems and resources. Information systems control deficiencies may reduce the effectiveness or efficiency of the controls, and expose the organization to various risks, such as unauthorized access, data loss, system failure, etc.
Reviewing results from control self-assessment (CSA) is the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because CSA is a process of evaluating and verifying the adequacy and effectiveness of the information systems controls, using the input and feedback from the individuals or groups that are involved or responsible for the information systems activities or functions. CSA can help the organization to identify and document the information systems control deficiencies, and to align them with the organization’s information systems objectives and requirements.
CSA can be performed using various techniques, such as questionnaires, surveys, interviews, workshops, etc. CSA can also be integrated with the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions, and aligned with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the best ways to identify information systems control deficiencies, because they do not provide the same level of detail and insight that CSA provides, and they may not be relevant or actionable for the organization.
Vulnerability and threat analysis is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses or flaws in the organization’s assets, processes, or systems that can be exploited or compromised by the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives or operations. Vulnerability and threat analysis can help the organization to assess and prioritize the risks, and to design and implement appropriate controls or countermeasures to mitigate or prevent the risks, but it is not the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because it does not indicate whether the existing information systems controls are adequate and effective, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Control remediation planning is a process of selecting and implementing the actions or plans to address or correct the information systems control deficiencies that have been identified, analyzed, and evaluated. Control remediation planning involves choosing one of the following types of control responses: mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept. Control remediation planning can help the organization to improve and optimize the information systems controls, and to reduce or eliminate the information systems control deficiencies, but it is not the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because it is a subsequent or follow-up process that depends on the prior identification of the information systems control deficiencies.
User acceptance testing (UAT) is a process of verifying and validating the functionality and usability of the information systems and resources, using the input and feedback from the end users or customers that interact with the information systems and resources. UAT can help the organization to ensure that the information systems and resources meet the user or customer expectations and requirements, and to identify and resolve any issues or defects that may affect the user or customer satisfaction, but it is not the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because it does not focus on the information systems controls, and it may not cover all the relevant or significant information systems control deficiencies that may exist or arise. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 186
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
When using a third party to perform penetration testing, which of the following is the MOST important control to minimize operational impact?
Perform a background check on the vendor.
Require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement.
Require the vendor to have liability insurance.
Clearly define the project scope
When using a third party to perform penetration testing, the most important control to minimize operational impact is to clearly define the project scope. This means specifying the objectives, boundaries, methods, and deliverables of the testing, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved. A clear project scope helps to avoid misunderstandings, conflicts, and disruptions that could compromise the security, availability, or integrity of the systems under test. It also helps to ensure that the testing is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and compliance requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3.2, Page 137.
The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:
a function of the likelihood and impact
the magnitude of an impact
a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.
the likelihood of a given threat
The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied is also known as the inherent risk. It is the level of risk that exists in the absence of any mitigating actions or measures. To express the inherent risk, one needs to consider two factors: the likelihood and the impact of a potential threat. The likelihood is the probability or frequency of a threat occurring, while the impact is the magnitude or severity of the consequences if the threat materializes. The inherent risk can be calculated by multiplying the likelihood and the impact, or by using a risk matrix that assigns a risk rating based on the combination of these two factors. The other options are not correct ways of expressing the inherent risk, as they do not account for both the likelihood and the impact of a threat. The magnitude of an impact is only one component of the risk, and it does not reflect how likely the threat is to happen. The function of the cost and effectiveness of control is related to the residual risk, which is the risk that remains after controls are applied. The likelihood of a given threat is also only one component of the risk, and it does not indicate how severe the impact would be if the threat occurs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, Page 47.
An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:
transferred
mitigated.
accepted
avoided
Cyber risk insurance is a type of insurance policy that provides coverage against losses and damages caused by cyber incidents such as data breaches, hacking, and other cyber attacks. When an organization decides to purchase cyber risk insurance, it transfers the risk of financial loss due to a cyber incident to the insurance company. In the scenario described in the question, the organization allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. This means that the organization is currently not covered by any cyber risk insurance policy and is therefore exposed to financial losses due to cyber incidents. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been accepted. Accepting risk means that the organization is aware of the potential consequences of the risk and has decided not to take any action to mitigate, transfer, or avoid it. The other options are not correct because they do not reflect the current situation of the organization. The organization has not transferred the risk to another party, as it has no cyber risk insurance policy in place. The organization has not mitigated the risk, as it has not implemented any controls or measures to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk. The organization has not avoided the risk, as it has not eliminated the source or cause of the risk or changed its activities to prevent the risk from occurring. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 752
The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:
establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.
compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.
alignment of business goals with IT objectives.
An IT risk management framework is a set of principles, processes, and practices that guide and support the identification, analysis, evaluation, treatment, monitoring, and communication of IT-related risks within an organization12.
The primary advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making, which enables the organization to balance the potential benefits and adverse effects of using IT, and to allocate resources and prioritize actions accordingly12.
A reliable basis for risk-aware decision making consists of the following elements12:
A common language and understanding of IT risk, its sources, impacts, and responses
A consistent and structured approach to IT risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment
A clear and transparent governance structure and accountability for IT risk management
A comprehensive and up-to-date IT risk register and profile that reflects the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
A regular and effective IT risk monitoring and reporting process that provides relevant and timely information to stakeholders
A continuous and proactive IT risk improvement process that incorporates feedback and lessons learned
The other options are not the primary advantage, but rather possible outcomes or benefits of implementing an IT risk management framework. For example:
Compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements is an outcome of implementing an IT risk management framework that ensures the organization meets its obligations and avoids penalties or sanctions12.
Improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses is a benefit of implementing an IT risk management framework that reduces the likelihood and impact of IT-related incidents and events12.
Alignment of business goals with IT objectives is a benefit of implementing an IT risk management framework that ensures the IT strategy and activities support the organization’s mission and vision12. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:
create an action plan
assign ownership
review progress reports
perform regular audits.
Risk responses are the actions or strategies that are taken to address the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation12.
The most effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to assign ownership, which is the process of identifying and appointing the individuals or groups who are responsible and accountable for the execution and monitoring of the risk responses34.
Assigning ownership is the most effective way because it ensures the clarity and commitment of the roles and responsibilities for the risk responses, and avoids the confusion or ambiguity that may arise from the lack of ownership34.
Assigning ownership is also the most effective way because it enhances the communication and collaboration among the stakeholders involved in the risk responses, and provides the feedback and input that are necessary for the improvement and optimization of the risk responses34.
The other options are not the most effective way, but rather possible steps or tools that may support or complement the assignment of ownership. For example:
Creating an action plan is a step that involves defining and documenting the specific tasks, resources, timelines, and deliverables for the risk responses34. However, this step is not the most effective way because it does not guarantee the implementation of the risk responses, especially if there is no clear or agreed ownership for the action plan34.
Reviewing progress reports is a tool that involves collecting and analyzing the information and data on the status and performance of the risk responses, and identifying the issues or gaps that need to be addressed34. However, this tool is not the most effective way because it does not ensure the implementation of the risk responses, especially if there is no ownership for the progress reports or the corrective actions34.
Performing regular audits is a tool that involves conducting an independent and objective assessment of the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk responses, and providing the findings and recommendations for improvement56. However, this tool is not the most effective way because it does not ensure the implementation of the risk responses, especially if there is no ownership for the audit results or the follow-up actions56. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: Risk Response Plan in Project Management: Key Strategies & Tips1
4: ProjectManagement.com - How to Implement Risk Responses2
5: IT Audit and Assurance Standards, ISACA, 2014
6: IT Audit and Assurance Guidelines, ISACA, 2014
Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?
Risk owner
Security management function
IT management
Enterprise risk function
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the security management function is responsible for ensuring that effective cybersecurity controls are established and maintained. The security management function should:
Define the cybersecurity strategy and objectives aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and business goals
Establish and maintain the cybersecurity policies, standards, procedures and guidelines
Implement and monitor the cybersecurity controls and processes
Coordinate and communicate with other stakeholders, such as risk owners, IT management, enterprise risk function, internal and external auditors, regulators and third parties
Report on the cybersecurity performance and risk posture to senior management and the board
Continuously improve the cybersecurity capabilities and maturity
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: IT Risk Management Roles and Responsibilities, pp. 29-301
Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?
Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.
Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.
Gather scenarios from senior management.
Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.
IT risk scenarios are the descriptions or representations of the possible or hypothetical situations or events that may cause or result in an IT risk for the organization. IT risk scenarios usually consist of three elements: a threat or source of harm, a vulnerability or weakness, and an impact or consequence.
The best approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios is to map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework, which is an established or recognized model or standard that provides the principles, guidelines, and best practices for the organization’s IT risk management function. Mapping scenarios to a recognized risk management framework can help the organization to create a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios by providing the following benefits:
It can ensure that the IT risk scenarios are relevant, appropriate, and proportional to the organization’s IT objectives and needs, and that they support the organization’s IT strategy and culture.
It can ensure that the IT risk scenarios are consistent and compatible with the organization’s IT governance, risk management, and control functions, and that they reflect the organization’s IT risk appetite and tolerance.
It can provide useful references and benchmarks for the identification, analysis, evaluation, and communication of the IT risk scenarios, and for the alignment and integration of the IT risk scenarios with the organization’s IT risk policies and standards.
The other options are not the best approaches to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios, because they do not provide the same level of detail and insight that mapping scenarios to a recognized risk management framework provides, and they may not be specific or applicable to the organization’s IT objectives and needs.
Deriving scenarios from IT risk policies and standards means creating or generating the IT risk scenarios based on the rules or guidelines that define and describe the organization’s IT risk management function, and that specify the expectations and requirements for the organization’s IT risk management function. Deriving scenarios from IT risk policies and standards can help the organization to create a consistent and compliant set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not cover all the relevant or significant IT risks that may affect the organization, and it may not support the organization’s IT strategy and culture.
Gathering scenarios from senior management means collecting or obtaining the IT risk scenarios from the senior management or executives that oversee or direct the organization’s IT activities or functions. Gathering scenarios from senior management can help the organization to create a high-level and strategic set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not reflect the operational or technical aspects of the IT risks, and it may not involve the input or feedback from the other stakeholders or parties that are involved or responsible for the IT activities or functions.
Benchmarking scenarios against industry peers means comparing and contrasting the IT risk scenarios with those of other organizations or industry standards, and identifying the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, or threats that may affect the organization’s IT objectives or operations. Benchmarking scenarios against industry peers can help the organization to create a competitive and innovative set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not be relevant or appropriate for the organization’s IT objectives and needs, and it may not comply with the organization’s IT policies and standards. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 199
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:
risk assessment methodology.
risk appetite.
capabilities
asset value.
An organization’s policies are the set of rules and guidelines that define the organization’s objectives, expectations, and responsibilities for its activities and operations. They provide the direction and framework for the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions.
The most important characteristic of an organization’s policies is to reflect the organization’s risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its goals. The risk appetite is usually expressed as a range or a threshold, and it is aligned with the organization’s strategy and culture.
Reflecting the organization’s risk appetite in its policies ensures that the policies are consistent, appropriate, and proportional to the level and nature of the risks that the organization faces, and that they support the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to optimize the balance between risk and return, and to create and protect value for the organization and its stakeholders.
The other options are not the most important characteristic of an organization’s policies, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the policies are suitable and acceptable for the organization.
The risk assessment methodology is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. It involves determining the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their significance and urgency. The risk assessment methodology is important to inform and support the organization’s policies, but it is not the most important characteristic of the policies, because it does not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The capabilities are the resources and abilities that the organization has or can acquire to achieve its objectives and manage its risks. They include the people, processes, technologies, and assets that the organization uses or relies on. The capabilities are important to enable and implement the organization’s policies, but they are not the most important characteristic of the policies, because they do not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The asset value is the worth or importance of the assets that the organization owns or controls, and that may be affected by the risks that the organization faces. The assets include the tangible and intangible resources that the organization uses or relies on, such as data, information, systems, infrastructure, reputation, etc. The asset value is important to measure and monitor the organization’s policies, but it is not the most important characteristic of the policies, because it does not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 29-30, 34-35, 38-39, 44-45, 50-51, 54-55
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 148
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following would be MOST important for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process?
Closed management action plans from the previous audit
Annual risk assessment results
An updated vulnerability management report
A list of identified generic risk scenarios
The audit planning process is the process of defining and describing the scope, objectives, and approach of the internal audit that is performed to assess and evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions. The audit planning process involves identifying and prioritizing the audit areas, topics, or issues, and allocating the audit resources, time, and budget.
The most important information for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process is the annual risk assessment results, which are the outcomes or outputs of the risk assessment process that measures and compares the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizes them based on their significance and urgency. The annual risk assessment results can help the internal audit department to plan the audit by providing the following information:
The level and priority of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations, and the potential consequences or impacts that they may cause for the organization if they materialize.
The gap or difference between the current and desired level of risk, and the extent or degree to which the risk responses or controls contribute to or affect the gap or difference.
The cost-benefit or feasibility analysis of the possible actions or plans to address or correct the risks and their responses, and the expected or desired outcomes or benefits that they may provide for the organization.
The other options are not the most important information for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process, because they do not provide the same level of detail and insight that the annual risk assessment results provide, and they may not be relevant or actionable for the internal audit department.
Closed management action plans from the previous audit are the actions or plans that have been implemented or completed by the management to address or correct the findings or recommendations from the previous internal audit that was performed. Closed management action plans from the previous audit can provide useful information on the progress and performance of the management in improving and optimizing the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions, but they are not the most important information for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process, because they do not indicate the current or accurate state and performance of the organization’s risk profile, and they may not cover all the relevant or emerging risks that may exist or arise.
An updated vulnerability management report is a report that provides the information and status of the vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the organization’s assets, processes, or systems that can be exploited or compromised by the threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives or operations. An updated vulnerability management report can provide useful information on the existence and severity of the vulnerabilities, and the actions or plans to mitigate or prevent them, but it is not the most important information for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process, because it does not indicate the likelihood and impact of the risk scenarios that are associated with the vulnerabilities, and the potential consequences or impacts that they may cause for the organization.
A list of identified generic risk scenarios is a list that contains the descriptions or representations of the possible or hypothetical situations or events that may cause or result in a risk for the organization, without specifying the details or characteristics of the risk source, event, cause, or impact. A list of identified generic risk scenarios can provide useful information on the types or categories of the risks that may affect the organization, but it is not the most important information for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process, because it does not indicate the level and priority of the risks, and the potential consequences or impacts that they may cause for the organization. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 188
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?
Sensitivity analysis
Level of residual risk
Cost-benefit analysis
Risk appetite
The risk practitioner’s primary focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk should be the level of residual risk, because this indicates the amount and type of risk that remains after applying the controls, and whether it is acceptable or not. Residual risk is the risk that is left over after the risk response actions have been taken, such as implementing or improving controls. Controls are the measures or actions that are designed and performed to reduce the likelihood and/or impact of a risk event, or to exploit the opportunities that a risk event may create. The adequacy of controls to mitigate risk depends on how well they address the root causes or sources of the risk, and how effectively and efficiently they reduce the risk exposure and value. The level of residual risk reflects the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it shows the gap between the inherent risk and the actual risk, and whether it is within the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. The risk practitioner should focus on the level of residual risk when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk, as it helps to evaluate and compare the benefits and costs of the controls, and to decide on the best risk response strategy, such as accepting, avoiding, transferring, or further reducing the risk. The other options are less important or relevant to focus on when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk. Sensitivity analysis is a technique that measures how the risk value changes when one or more input variables are changed, such as the probability, impact, or control effectiveness. Sensitivity analysis can help to identify and prioritize the most influential or critical variables that affect the risk value, and to test the robustness or reliability of the risk assessment. However, sensitivity analysis does not directly indicate the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it does not measure the level of residual risk or the risk acceptance criteria. Cost-benefit analysis is a technique that compares the expected benefits and costs of a control or a risk response action, and determines whether it is worthwhile or not. Cost-benefit analysis can help to justify and optimize the investment or resource allocation for the control or the risk response action, and to ensure that it is aligned with the organization’s objectives and value. However, cost-benefit analysis does not directly indicate the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it does not measure the level of residual risk or the risk acceptance criteria. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite can help to define and communicate the organization’s risk preferences and boundaries, and to guide the risk decision-making and behavior. However, risk appetite does not directly indicate the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it does not measure the level of residual risk or the actual risk performance. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:
ownership of responsibilities.
a business recovery plan.
provision for source code escrow.
the providers financial statements.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), a contract associated with a cloud service provider must include ownership of responsibilities, as this defines the roles and obligations of both the cloud provider and the customer in relation to the cloud services. The contract should specify who is responsible for:
Service delivery and performance
Data security and privacy
Compliance with regulations and standards
Incident management and reporting
Business continuity and disaster recovery
Change management and configuration control
Intellectual property rights and licensing
Termination and data egress
The contract should also include service level agreements (SLAs) that measure and monitor the quality and availability of the cloud services, as well as remedies and penalties for non-compliance. The contract should also address pricing and payment terms, dispute resolution mechanisms, and liability and indemnification clauses.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 173-1741
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?
To build an organizational risk-aware culture
To continuously improve risk management processes
To comply with legal and regulatory requirements
To identify gaps in risk management practices
Global standards related to risk management are documents that provide the principles, guidelines, and best practices for managing risk in a consistent, effective, and efficient manner across different organizations, sectors, and regions12.
The primary reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management is to continuously improve risk management processes, which are the activities and tasks that enable the organization to identify, analyze, evaluate, treat, monitor, and communicate the risks that may affect its objectives, performance, and value creation34.
Continuously improving risk management processes is the primary reason because it helps the organization to enhance its risk management capabilities and maturity, and to adapt to the changing risk environment and stakeholder expectations34.
Continuously improving risk management processes is also the primary reason because it supports the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders, which are the ultimate purpose and outcome of risk management34.
The other options are not the primary reason, but rather possible benefits or objectives that may result from using global standards related to risk management. For example:
Building an organizational risk-aware culture is a benefit of using global standards related to risk management that involves creating and maintaining a shared understanding, attitude, and behavior towards risk among the organization’s employees and leaders, and fostering a culture of accountability, transparency, and learning34. However, this benefit is not the primary reason because it is an enabler and a consequence of continuously improving risk management processes, rather than a driver or a goal34.
Complying with legal and regulatory requirements is an objective of using global standards related to risk management that involves meeting and exceeding the expectations and obligations of the external authorities or bodies that govern or oversee the organization’s activities and operations, such as laws, regulations, standards, or contracts34. However, this objective is not the primary reason because it is a constraint and a challenge of continuously improving risk management processes, rather than a motivation or a benefit34.
Identifying gaps in risk management practices is an objective of using global standards related to risk management that involves assessing and comparing the current and desired state of the organization’s risk management processes, and identifying the areas or aspects that need to be improved or addressed34. However, this objective is not the primary reason because it is a step and a tool of continuously improving risk management processes, rather than a reason or a result34. References =
1: ISO - ISO 31000 — Risk management1
2: Risk Management Standards2
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?
Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities
Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience
Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite
Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation
Detailed Explanation:Customizing the risk profile presentation ensures that stakeholders receive information in a format and context relevant to their roles. Tailored communication improves understanding, aligns risk discussions with decision-making needs, and ensures the stakeholders are equipped to act on the information effectively.
During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?
Data validation
Identification
Authentication
Data integrity
Authentication is a control that verifies the identity of a user or a system that tries to access a computer system or network. Authentication can be based on something the user or system knows (such as a password or a PIN), something the user or system has (such as a token or a smart card), or something the user or system is (such as a fingerprint or a retina scan). Authentication is a crucial control for preventing unauthorized or malicious access to a system or network, as well as for ensuring the accountability and traceability of the actions performed by the user or system. If the authentication control is compromised, it means that the user or system can bypass or break the verification process and gain access to the system or network without being identified or authorized. This can expose the system or network to various threats, such as data theft, data corruption, data leakage, or denial of service. Therefore, the authentication control has most likely been compromised if a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. A firewall is a device or a software that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules and policies. A firewall can help to protect the system or network from external or internal attacks by blocking or allowing the traffic based on the source, destination, protocol, or content. However, a firewall cannot prevent an intruder from accessing the system or network if the intruder has already authenticated or impersonated a legitimate user or system. The other options are not the most likely controls to be compromised if a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall, although they may be affected or related. Data validation is a control that checks the accuracy, completeness, and quality of the data that is entered, processed, or stored by a system or a network. Data validation can help to prevent or detect data errors, anomalies, or inconsistencies that may affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of the system or network. However, data validation does not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious access to the system or network, as it only focuses on the data, not the user or system. Identification is a control that assigns a unique identifier to a user or a system that tries to access a computer system or network. Identification can be based on a username, an email address, a phone number, or a certificate. Identification is a necessary but not sufficient control for preventing unauthorized or malicious access to a system or network, as it only declares who or what the user or system is, but does not prove it. Identification needs to be combined with authentication to verify the identity of the user or system. Data integrity is a control that ensures that the data is accurate, consistent, and complete throughout its lifecycle. Data integrity can be achieved by implementing various controls, such as encryption, hashing, checksum, digital signature, or backup. Data integrity can help to protect the data from unauthorized or accidental modification, deletion, or corruption that may affect the value, meaning, or usability of the data. However, data integrity does not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious access to the system or network, as it only protects the data, not the user or system. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1651; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 952; What is Authentication? - Definition from Techopedia3; What is a Firewall? - Definition from Techopedia4
A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
invoke the established incident response plan.
Inform internal audit.
Perform a root cause analysis
Conduct an immediate risk assessment
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the first course of action when a risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet is to invoke the established incident response plan, which is a set of policies, procedures, and resources that enable the organization to respond to and recover from an incident that affects the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of its IT assets and processes. Invoking the incident response plan helps to:
Contain and isolate the incident and prevent further damage or loss
Identify and analyze the source, cause, and impact of the incident
Eradicate and eliminate the incident and restore normal operations
Communicate and coordinate the incident response activities and roles with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business owner, the risk owner, the senior management, and the external parties
Learn and improve from the incident and update the incident response plan and the risk register
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 219-2201
An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.
The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure
The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract
The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract
The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services
The risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk and its associated controls. The risk owner is also responsible for ensuring that the risk is within the acceptable level and that the risk response is effective and efficient. In this case, the risk owner is also the owner of the business service that depends on the managed hosting service. Therefore, the risk owner should be notified of the new information about the flood risk first, as they have the most interest and influence on the risk and its impact on the business objectives. The risk owner can then decide on the appropriate actions to take, such as reviewing the contract terms, requesting additional controls, or changing the service provider. The other options are not the correct answers because they are not the primary stakeholders of the risk and its consequences. The data center manager is an employee of the managed hosting service provider, not the organization that procured the service. The data center manager may not have the authority or the incentive to address the flood risk or inform the organization. The site manager is also an employee of the managed hosting service provider, and their role is to conduct annual risk assessments under the contract. The site manager may not be aware of the new information or have the responsibility to communicate it to the organization. The CIO is the senior executive who oversees the IT strategy and operations of the organization. The CIO may have a general interest in the managed hosting service and its risks, but they are not the direct owner or manager of the specific risk or the business service that relies on the service. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 702
A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:
a root cause analysis is required
controls are effective for ensuring continuity
hardware needs to be upgraded
no action is required as there was no impact
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control documents, the risk practitioner should conclude that no action is required as there was no impact. The fact that there have been no interruptions to business operations despite the increasing hardware failure incidents indicates that the built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture are effective in ensuring continuity.
Options A and C are not necessary in this scenario. A root cause analysis (Option A) might be considered if there were actual interruptions or impact on business operations. However, since there were no interruptions, a root cause analysis may not be immediately required. Similarly, upgrading hardware (Option C) may not be necessary if the existing controls are effectively preventing business disruptions.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?
User provisioning
Role-based access controls
Security log monitoring
Entitlement reviews
An organization’s account provisioning process is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights for the organization’s information systems and resources. It involves defining the access requirements, policies, and standards, and implementing and enforcing them across the organization.
The best evidence of the effectiveness of an organization’s account provisioning process is entitlement reviews, which are the periodic or regular reviews and validations of the user accounts and access rights that are granted or assigned to the users or entities that interact with the organization’s information systems and resources. Entitlement reviews can provide assurance and verification that the account provisioning process is accurate, consistent, and compliant, and that it meets the organization’s security and business objectives and requirements.
Entitlement reviews can be performed using various techniques, such as automated tools, reports, audits, surveys, etc. Entitlement reviews can also be integrated with the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions, and aligned with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the best evidence of the effectiveness of an organization’s account provisioning process, because they do not provide the same level of assurance and verification that the account provisioning process is accurate, consistent, and compliant, and that it meets the organization’s security and business objectives and requirements.
User provisioning is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights for a specific user or entity, based on their identity, role, or function in the organization. User provisioning is an important part of the account provisioning process, but it is not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because it does not indicate whether the user accounts and access rights are appropriate and authorized, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Role-based access controls are the controls that grant or restrict user accounts and access rights based on the predefined roles or functions that the users or entities perform or assume in the organization. Role-based access controls are an important part of the account provisioning process, but they are not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because they do not indicate whether the roles or functions are defined and assigned correctly and consistently, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Security log monitoring is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the security events or activities that are recorded or logged by the organization’s information systems and resources. Security log monitoring is an important part of the account provisioning process, but it is not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because it does not indicate whether the security events or activities are legitimate or authorized, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 173
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?
Changes in control design
A decrease in the number of key controls
Changes in control ownership
An increase in residual risk
An IT risk and control self-assessment (RCSA) is a process that helps organizations identify and evaluate operational risks and assess the effectiveness of their control measures12. It is a structured approach that involves identifying, assessing, mitigating, and monitoring risks across all levels of an organization12.
A report to senior management is a document that summarizes and communicates the results and findings of the RCSA, and provides recommendations and action plans for improving the risk management and control processes34.
The most important aspect of an IT risk and control self-assessment to include in a report to senior management is an increase in residual risk, which is the risk remaining after risk treatment, and represents the exposure or potential impact of the risk on the organization’s objectives56.
An increase in residual risk is the most important aspect because it indicates the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or tolerate, and the gap between the current and desired risk profile56.
An increase in residual risk is also the most important aspect because it requires the attention and decision of the senior management, who are responsible for defining the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, and criteria, and for ensuring that the residual risk is within the acceptable range56.
The other options are not the most important aspects, but rather possible components or outcomes of an IT risk and control self-assessment that may support or complement the report to senior management. For example:
Changes in control design are components of an IT risk and control self-assessment that involve modifying or updating the control measures to address the changes in the risk environment or the organization’s objectives56. However, changes in control design are not the most important aspect because they do not measure or reflect the residual risk, which is the ultimate goal of the risk treatment56.
A decrease in the number of key controls is an outcome of an IT risk and control self-assessment that indicates the improvement or optimization of the control processes, and the reduction of the complexity or redundancy of the control measures56. However, a decrease in the number of key controls is not the most important aspect because it does not indicate or imply the residual risk, which may depend on other factors such as the effectiveness or efficiency of the controls56.
Changes in control ownership are components of an IT risk and control self-assessment that involve assigning or reassigning the responsibility and accountability for the control processes to the appropriate individuals or groups within the organization56. However, changes in control ownership are not the most important aspect because they do not affect or determine the residual risk, which is independent of the control owners56. References =
1: Risk and control self-assessment - KPMG Global1
2: Control Self Assessments - PwC2
3: How-To Guide: Implementing Risk Control Self-Assessment Steps4
4: RISK MANAGEMENT SELF-ASSESSMENT TEMPLATE - Smartsheet5
5: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
6: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?
Ad hoc control reporting
Control self-assessment
Continuous monitoring
Predictive analytics
Control effectiveness is the degree to which a control achieves its intended objective and mitigates the risk that it is designed to address. It is measured by comparing the actual performance and outcome of the control with the expected or desired performance and outcome.
The best method for assessing control effectiveness is continuous monitoring, which is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the performance and outcome of the controls on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring provides timely and accurate information on the status and results of the controls, and enables the identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Continuous monitoring can be performed using various techniques, such as automated tools, dashboards, indicators, metrics, logs, audits, reviews, etc. Continuous monitoring can also be integrated with the risk management process, and aligned with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite.
The other options are not the best methods for assessing control effectiveness, because they do not provide the same level of timeliness, accuracy, and completeness of information on the performance and outcome of the controls.
Ad hoc control reporting is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the performance and outcome of the controls on an irregular or occasional basis. Ad hoc control reporting may be triggered by specific events, requests, or incidents, and it may not cover all the relevant or critical controls. Ad hoc control reporting may not provide sufficient or consistent information on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Control self-assessment is the process of allowing the control owners or operators to evaluate and report on the performance and outcome of their own controls. Control self-assessment can provide useful insights and feedback from the control owners or operators, and it can enhance their awareness and accountability for the control effectiveness. However, control self-assessment may not be objective, reliable, or independent, and it may not cover all the relevant or critical controls. Control self-assessment may not provide sufficient or consistent information on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Predictive analytics is the process of using statistical techniques and models to analyze historical and current data, and to make predictions or forecasts about future events or outcomes. Predictive analytics can provide useful insights and trends on the potential performance and outcome of the controls, and it can support the decision making and planning for the control effectiveness. However, predictive analytics may not be accurate, valid, or reliable, and it may not reflect the actual or current performance and outcome of the controls. Predictive analytics may not provide sufficient or consistent information on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 150
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?
Customizing content for the audience
Providing incentives to participants
Mapping to a recognized standard
Providing metrics for measurement
 The most important element of a successful risk awareness training program is customizing content for the audience, because this ensures that the training is relevant, engaging, and effective for the learners. Customizing content for the audience means tailoring the training materials and methods to suit the specific needs, preferences, and characteristics of the target group, such as their roles, responsibilities, knowledge, skills, attitudes, and learning styles. Customizing content for the audience can help to achieve the following benefits:
Increase the motivation and interest of the learners, as they can see the value and applicability of the training to their work and goals.
Enhance the comprehension and retention of the learners, as they can relate the training content to their prior knowledge and experience, and use examples and scenarios that are familiar and realistic to them.
Improve the transfer and application of the learners, as they can practice and apply the training content to their actual work situations and challenges, and receive feedback and support that are relevant and useful to them. References = Implementing risk management training and awareness (part 1) 1
Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios?
Industry best practices
Placement on the risk map
Degree of variances in the risk
Cost of risk mitigation
A risk map, also known as a risk heat map, is a visual tool that helps an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios by plotting them on a matrix based on their likelihood and impact. A risk map can help to compare and contrast different risk scenarios, as well as to identify the most critical and urgent risks that require attention. A risk map can also help to communicate and report the risk profile and status to the stakeholders and decision makers. Therefore, the placement on the risk map would best help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios. The other options are not the best ways to help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios, although they may be relevant and useful. Industry best practices are the standards or guidelines that are widely accepted and followed by the organizations in a specific industry or domain. Industry best practices can help to benchmark and improve the risk management process and performance, but they may not reflect the specific risk context and needs of the enterprise. Degree of variances in the risk is the measure of the variability or uncertainty of the risk, which may affect the accuracy or reliability of the risk assessment and response. Degree of variances in the risk can help to adjust and refine the risk analysis and treatment, but it may not indicate the priority or importance of the risk. Cost of risk mitigation is the amount of resources or expenses that are required or allocated to implement the risk response actions, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risk. Cost of risk mitigation can help to evaluate and optimize the risk response options, but it may not determine the priority or urgency of the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 892
Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?
Complexity of the IT infrastructure
Value of information assets
Management culture
Threats and vulnerabilities
When determining an appropriate risk assessment approach, the most important factor to understand is the value of information assets. This is because the value of information assets determines the potential impact of risks and the level of protection required. The value of information assets can be assessed based on their confidentiality, integrity, availability, and relevance to the business objectives and processes. A risk assessment approach should be aligned with the value of information assets and the risk appetite of the organization. The other options are not the most important factors to understand when determining a risk assessment approach, although they may influence the choice of methods and tools. The complexity of the IT infrastructure may affect the scope and depth of the risk assessment, but it does not indicate the level of risk or the priority of risk management. The management culture may affect the risk tolerance and the risk communication, but it does not reflect the value of information assets or the risk exposure. The threats and vulnerabilities may affect the likelihood and severity of risks, but they do not measure the value of information assets or the risk acceptance. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 582
In an organization with a mature risk management program, which of the following would provide the BEST evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date?
Risk questionnaire
Risk register
Management assertion
Compliance manual
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the risks that may affect the organization, as well as the actions that are taken or planned to manage them1. A risk register provides the best evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date, because it reflects the current and potential IT risks that the organization faces, as well as their likelihood, impact, severity, owner, status, and response2. An IT risk profile is a document that describes the types, amounts, and priority of IT risk that the organization finds acceptable and unacceptable3. An IT risk profile is developed collaboratively with various stakeholders within the organization, including business leaders, data and process owners, enterprise risk management, internal and external audit, legal, compliance, privacy, and IT risk management and security4. By maintaining and updating the risk register regularly, the organization can ensure that the IT risk profile is aligned with the changing IT risk environment, and that the IT risk management activities and performance are consistent and effective. The other options are not the best evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date, as they are either less comprehensive or less relevant than the risk register. A risk questionnaire is a tool that collects and analyzes the opinions and perceptions of the stakeholders about the risks that may affect the organization5. A risk questionnaire can help to identify and assess the risks, as well as to communicate and report on the risk status and issues. However, a risk questionnaire is not the best evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date, as it may not capture all the IT risks that the organization faces, or reflect the actual or objective level and nature of the IT risks. A management assertion is a statement or declaration made by the management about the accuracy and completeness of the information or data that they provide or report. A management assertion can help to increase the confidence and trust of the stakeholders and auditors in the information or data, as well as to demonstrate the accountability and responsibility of the management. However, a management assertion is not the best evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date, as it does not provide the details or outcomes of the IT risk management activities or performance, or verify the validity and reliability of the IT risk information or data. A compliance manual is a document that contains the policies, procedures, and standards that the organization must follow to meet the legal, regulatory, or contractual requirements that apply to its activities or operations. A compliance manual can help to ensure the quality and consistency of the organization’s compliance activities or performance, as well as to avoid or reduce the penalties or sanctions for non-compliance. However, a compliance manual is not the best evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date, as it does not address the IT risks that the organization faces, or the IT risk management activities or performance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.5, Page 55.
A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?
The team that performed the risk assessment
An assigned risk manager to provide oversight
Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment
The methodology used to perform the risk assessment
 A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the risks that may affect a project, as well as the actions that are taken or planned to manage them1. A risk register should include information such as the risk description, category, source, impact, likelihood, severity, owner, status, and response2. Among these, the most important information to capture in the risk register is the action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment. This is because the action plans are the specific steps that are taken to reduce, avoid, transfer, or accept the risks, depending on the chosen risk treatment option3. The action plans should be clear, realistic, measurable, and aligned with the project objectives and constraints4. The action plans should also be monitored and updated regularly to ensure that they are effective and appropriate for the changing risk environment5. The action plans are essential for managing the risks and ensuring the successful delivery of the project. The other options are not the most important information to capture in the risk register, as they are either less relevant or less actionable than the action plans. The team that performed the risk assessment is the group of people who identified, analyzed, and evaluated the risks, using various tools and techniques6. While this information may be useful for accountability and communication purposes, it is not as important as the action plans, as it does not indicate how the risks are treated or resolved. The assigned risk manager to provide oversight is the person who has the responsibility and authority to oversee the risk management process and ensure that the risks are properly identified, assessed, treated, and reported. While this information may be useful for governance and coordination purposes, it is not as important as the action plans, as it does not specify what actions are taken or planned to manage the risks. The methodology used to perform the risk assessment is the approach or framework that is used to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks, based on the project context, scope, and objectives. While this information may be useful for consistency and transparency purposes, it is not as important as the action plans, as it does not describe how the risks are addressed or mitigated. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.5, Page 55.
Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing generic risk scenarios?
The organization’s vision and mission
Resources required for risk mitigation
Impact to business objectives
Risk-related trends within the industry
Detailed Explanation:The impact to business objectives is paramount when developing risk scenarios, as the primary purpose of risk management is to protect and support business objectives. Understanding the impact helps tailor scenarios to potential risks that could disrupt key operations or strategic goals.
Which of the following controls will BEST detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator?
Reviewing database access rights
Reviewing database activity logs
Comparing data to input records
Reviewing changes to edit checks
Unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator is a security risk that involves altering, deleting, or inserting data on a database without proper authorization or approval, by a person who has privileged access to the database, such as a database administrator12.
The best control to detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator is to review database activity logs, which are records that capture and store the details and history of the transactions or activities that are performed on the database, such as who, what, when, where, and how34.
Reviewing database activity logs is the best control because it provides evidence and visibility of the database operations, and enables the detection and reporting of any deviations, anomalies, or issues that may indicate unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator34.
Reviewing database activity logs is also the best control because it supports the accountability and auditability of the database operations, and facilitates the investigation and resolution of any unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator34.
The other options are not the best controls, but rather possible measures or techniques that may supplement or enhance the review of database activity logs. For example:
Reviewing database access rights is a measure that involves verifying and validating the permissions and privileges that are granted or revoked to the users or roles who can access or modify the data on the database56. However, this measure is not the best control because it does not directly detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator, especially if the database administrator has legitimate access rights to the data56.
Comparing data to input records is a technique that involves matching and reconciling the data on the database with the original or source data that are entered or imported into the database, and identifying and correcting any discrepancies or errors78. However, this technique is not the best control because it does not directly detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator, especially if the input records are also modified or compromised78.
Reviewing changes to edit checks is a technique that involves examining and evaluating the modifications or updates to the edit checks, which are rules or validations that are applied to the data on the database to ensure their accuracy, completeness, and consistency9 . However, this technique is not the best control because it does not directly detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator, especially if the edit checks are bypassed or disabled9 . References =
1: Database Security: Attacks and Solutions | SpringerLink2
2: Unauthorised Modification of Data With Intent to Cause Impairment3
3: Database Activity Monitoring - Wikipedia4
4: Database Activity Monitoring (DAM) | Imperva5
5: Database Access Control - Wikipedia6
6: Database Access Control: Best Practices for Database Security7
7: Data Reconciliation - Wikipedia8
8: Data Reconciliation and Gross Error Detection9
9: Edit Check - Wikipedia
: Edit Checks: A Data Quality Tool
A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?
Key risk indicators (KRls)
Inherent risk
Residual risk
Risk appetite
Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying controls to mitigate the inherent risk. Inherent risk is the risk that exists before considering the controls. Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the level and impact of risks. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. The failure of the data loss prevention (DLP) system to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data would most impact the residual risk, because it would increase the likelihood and impact of data leakage, data loss, and data exfiltration incidents. These incidents could cause financial, reputational, legal, and regulatory damages to the organization. The failure of the DLP system would also affect the KRIs, as they would show a higher level of risk exposure and a lower level of control effectiveness. However, the KRIs are not the risk itself, but rather the indicators of the risk. The failure of the DLP system would not directly impact the inherent risk or the risk appetite, as they are independent of the controls. The inherent risk would remain the same, as it is based on the nature and value of the data and the threats and vulnerabilities that exist. The risk appetite would also remain the same, as it is based on the organization’s culture, strategy, and stakeholder expectations. Therefore, the most impacted factor would be the residual risk, as it reflects the actual risk level that the organization faces after applying the controls. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
TESTED 22 Dec 2024