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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which of the following is the MOST important driver of an effective enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

A.

Risk policy

B.

Risk committee

C.

Risk culture

D.

Risk management plan

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Question # 5

Which type of cloud computing deployment provides the consumer the GREATEST degree of control over the environment?

A.

Community cloud

B.

Private cloud

C.

Hybrid cloud

D.

Public cloud

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Question # 6

To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and ERM, it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:

A.

Risk impact and likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Risk response plans and owners

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Question # 7

Automated code reviews to reduce the risk associated with web applications are MOST effective when performed:

A.

throughout development

B.

during pre-production testing

C.

in the design phase

D.

once in the production environment

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Question # 8

Which of The following is the MOST comprehensive input to the risk assessment process specific to the effects of system downtime?

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP) testing results

B.

Recovery lime objective (RTO)

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

results Recovery point objective (RPO)

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Question # 9

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

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Question # 10

A threat intelligence team has identified an indicator of compromise related to an advanced persistent threat (APT) actor. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Review the most recent vulnerability scanning report.

B.

Determine the business criticality of the asset.

C.

Determine the adequacy of existing security controls.

D.

Review prior security incidents related to the asset.

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Question # 11

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk for a global organization when implementing a data classification policy?

A.

Data encryption has not been applied to all sensitive data across the organization.

B.

There are many data assets across the organization that need to be classified.

C.

Changes to information handling procedures are not documented.

D.

Changes to data sensitivity during the data life cycle have not been considered.

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Question # 12

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?

A.

Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.

B.

Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.

C.

Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.

D.

Implement controls to prevent future risk events.

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Question # 13

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to integrate risk and compliance management?

A.

Embedding risk management into compliance decision-making

B.

Designing corrective actions to improve risk response capabilities

C.

Embedding risk management into processes that are aligned with business drivers

D.

Conducting regular self-assessments to verify compliance

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Question # 14

The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the:

A.

amount of risk reduced by compensating controls.

B.

amount of risk present in the organization.

C.

variance against objectives.

D.

number of incidents.

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Question # 15

Which of the following should be the starting point when performing a risk analysis for an asset?

A.

Assess risk scenarios.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Evaluate threats.

D.

Assess controls.

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Question # 16

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization's technical environment?

A.

Business case documentation

B.

Organizational risk appetite statement

C.

Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation

D.

Organizational hierarchy

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Question # 17

The PRIMARY reason to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register is to ensure:

A.

risk is treated appropriately

B.

mitigating actions are prioritized

C.

risk entries are regularly updated

D.

risk exposure is minimized.

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Question # 18

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to focus on risk factors that could potentially affect the results of an IT initiative?

A.

Prioritizing threats and controls

B.

Assessing trends in quantitative risk analysis results

C.

Measuring and reporting qualitative risk trends

D.

Conducting stakeholder surveys

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Question # 19

Management has required information security awareness training to reduce the risk associated with credential compromise. What is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of the training?

A.

Conduct social engineering testing.

B.

Audit security awareness training materials.

C.

Administer an end-of-training quiz.

D.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

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Question # 20

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?

A.

Organization's industry sector

B.

Long-term organizational goals

C.

Concerns of the business process owners

D.

History of risk events

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Question # 21

As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?

A.

An assessment of threats to the organization

B.

An assessment of recovery scenarios

C.

industry standard framework

D.

Documentation of testing procedures

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Question # 22

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?

A.

To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management

B.

To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization

C.

To assign a risk owner to manage the risk

D.

To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk

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Question # 23

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase of the project management life cycle?

A.

To deliver projects on time and on budget

B.

To assess inherent risk

C.

To include project risk in the enterprise-wide IT risk profit.

D.

To assess risk throughout the project

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Question # 24

Upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

A.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions

B.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal

C.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance

D.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency

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Question # 25

Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in

to implement additional IT controls?

A.

List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.

B.

Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.

C.

Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.

D.

Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.

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Question # 26

An organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register. Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries?

A.

The volume of risk scenarios is too large

B.

Risk aggregation has not been completed

C.

Risk scenarios are not applicable

D.

The risk analysts for each scenario is incomplete

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Question # 27

Which of the following is the BEST Key control indicator KCO to monitor the effectiveness of patch management?

A.

Percentage of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of severs receiving automata patches

C.

Number of unpremeditated vulnerabilities

D.

Number of intrusion attempts

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Question # 28

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important course of action when the level of risk has exceeded risk tolerance?

A.

Facilitate a review of risk tolerance levels

B.

Adjust the risk impact and likelihood scale

C.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Introduce the risk treatment process

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Question # 29

The MOST important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether:

A.

the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value

B.

there are sufficient internal resources to implement the control

C.

the mitigation measures create compounding effects

D.

the control eliminates the risk

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Question # 30

Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?

A.

Monitoring of high-risk areas

B.

Classification of risk profiles

C.

Periodic review of the risk register

D.

Assignment of risk ownership

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Question # 31

An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

C.

Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.

D.

Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.

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Question # 32

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program is the percentage of:

A.

vendors providing risk assessments on time.

B.

vendor contracts reviewed in the past year.

C.

vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time.

D.

vendors that have reported control-related incidents.

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Question # 33

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of a data custodian in the risk management process?

A.

Performing periodic data reviews according to policy

B.

Reporting and escalating data breaches to senior management

C.

Being accountable for control design

D.

Ensuring data is protected according to the classification

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Question # 34

To help ensure the success of a major IT project, it is MOST important to:

A.

obtain the appropriate stakeholders' commitment.

B.

align the project with the IT risk framework.

C.

obtain approval from business process owners.

D.

update the risk register on a regular basis.

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Question # 35

An organization is outsourcing a key database to be hosted by an external service provider. Who is BEST suited to assess the impact of potential data loss?

A.

Database manager

B.

Public relations manager

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Business manager

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Question # 36

An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:

A.

guidance of the risk practitioner.

B.

competence of the staff involved.

C.

approval of senior management.

D.

maturity of its risk culture.

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Question # 37

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board''

A.

A summary of risk response plans with validation results

B.

A report with control environment assessment results

C.

A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases

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Question # 38

Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk associated with malicious activities performed by database administrators (DBAs)?

A.

Activity logging and monitoring

B.

Periodic access review

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Awareness training and background checks

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Question # 39

A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.

B.

Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.

C.

Outsource the process for updating the risk register.

D.

Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.

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Question # 40

An organization has established a policy prohibiting ransom payments if subjected to a ransomware attack. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to support this policy?

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning

B.

Creating immutable backups

C.

Performing required patching

D.

Implementing continuous intrusion detection monitoring

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Question # 41

Which of the following BEST represents a critical threshold value for a key control indicator (KCI)?

A.

The value at which control effectiveness would fail

B.

Thresholds benchmarked to peer organizations

C.

A typical operational value

D.

A value that represents the intended control state

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Question # 42

A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:

A.

mitigated

B.

accepted

C.

avoided

D.

deferred

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Question # 43

Which of the following observations would be GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans?

A.

Management has not determined a final implementation date.

B.

Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone.

C.

Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities.

D.

Management has not begun the implementation.

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Question # 44

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?

A.

Results of the latest risk assessment

B.

Results of a risk forecasting analysis

C.

A review of compliance regulations

D.

Findings of the most recent audit

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Question # 45

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

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Question # 46

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

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Question # 47

Who is PRIMARILY accountable for risk treatment decisions?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Business manager

C.

Data owner

D.

Risk manager

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Question # 48

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Creating a data classification scheme

B.

Identifying events impacting continuity of operations

C.

Analyzing previous risk assessment results

D.

Identifying critical information assets

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Question # 49

A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.

B.

Review past internal audit results.

C.

Respond to organizational security threats.

D.

Research industry published studies.

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Question # 50

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

A.

Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

B.

Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

C.

Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D.

Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

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Question # 51

Which of the following is MOST helpful in developing key risk indicator (KRl) thresholds?

A.

Loss expectancy information

B.

Control performance predictions

C.

IT service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Remediation activity progress

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Question # 52

Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

A.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

B.

Updating remote desktop software

C.

Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

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Question # 53

Which of the following is the MOST significant indicator of the need to perform a penetration test?

A.

An increase in the number of high-risk audit findings

B.

An increase in the number of security incidents

C.

An increase in the percentage of turnover in IT personnel

D.

An increase in the number of infrastructure changes

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Question # 54

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?

A.

An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions

B.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

C.

A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

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Question # 55

An organization's IT department wants to complete a proof of concept (POC) for a security tool. The project lead has asked for approval to use the production data for testing purposes as it will yield the best results. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Accept the risk of using the production data to ensure accurate results.

B.

Assess the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision.

C.

Benchmark against what peer organizations are doing with POC testing environments.

D.

Deny the request, as production data should not be used for testing purposes.

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Question # 56

Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?

A.

Some critical business applications are not included in the plan

B.

Several recovery activities will be outsourced

C.

The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework

D.

The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan

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Question # 57

Which of the following would present the MOST significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan?

A.

Obsolete response documentation

B.

Increased stakeholder turnover

C.

Failure to audit third-party providers

D.

Undefined assignment of responsibility

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Question # 58

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key control indicator (KCI) to help an organization prevent successful cyber risk events on the external-facing infrastructure?

A.

Increasing number of threat actors

B.

Increasing number of intrusion detection system (IDS) false positive alerts

C.

Increasing percentage of unpatched demilitarized zone (DMZ) servers

D.

Increasing trend of perimeter attacks

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Question # 59

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?

A.

Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.

B.

Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.

C.

Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.

D.

Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.

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Question # 60

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for managing emerging risk?

A.

The organization is likely to become prone to continuous disruptive events.

B.

Risk assessment methodologies cannot be applied to emerging risk.

C.

Assumptions about the future state are likely to become invalid.

D.

The number of risk scenarios may become uncontrollably high.

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Question # 61

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to create risk scenarios?

A.

To assist with risk identification

B.

To determine risk tolerance

C.

To determine risk appetite

D.

To assist in the development of risk responses

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Question # 62

Which of the following is MOST important to review when an organization needs to transition the majority of its employees to remote work during a crisis?

A.

Customer notification plans

B.

Capacity management

C.

Access management

D.

Impacts on IT project delivery

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Question # 63

An organization has engaged a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. This is an example of risk:

A.

mitigation.

B.

avoidance.

C.

transfer.

D.

acceptance.

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Question # 64

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

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Question # 65

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?

A.

Mean time between failures (MTBF)

B.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

C.

Planned downtime

D.

Unplanned downtime

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Question # 66

A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner

recommend be done NEXT?

A.

Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.

B.

Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.

C.

Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.

D.

Reduce the risk tolerance level.

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Question # 67

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations?

A.

Strategic plan and risk management integration

B.

Risk escalation and process for communication

C.

Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators

D.

Policies, standards, and procedures

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Question # 68

In order to determining a risk is under-controlled the risk practitioner will need to

A.

understand the risk tolerance

B.

monitor and evaluate IT performance

C.

identify risk management best practices

D.

determine the sufficiency of the IT risk budget

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Question # 69

Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?

A.

Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.

B.

Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.

C.

Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.

D.

Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.

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Question # 70

Which of the following is a KEY principle of a Zero Trust architecture?

A.

Only allowing access to systems and data from trusted locations

B.

Mandating the use of complex passwords for access to data systems

C.

Requiring periodic reauthentication of access to systems

D.

Assuming that all systems are malicious

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Question # 71

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis?

A.

To enhance compliance with standards

B.

To minimize subjectivity of assessments

C.

To increase consensus among peers

D.

To provide assessments for benchmarking

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Question # 72

Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?

A.

Assigning control ownership

B.

Assigning appropriate resources

C.

Assigning a quality control review

D.

Performing regular independent control reviews

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Question # 73

What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?

A.

Source information is acquired at stable cost.

B.

Source information is tailored by removing outliers.

C.

Source information is readily quantifiable.

D.

Source information is consistently available.

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Question # 74

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

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Question # 75

Which of the following is the BEST approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application?

A.

Reviewing the organization's policies and procedures

B.

Interviewing groups of key stakeholders

C.

Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders

D.

Accepting IT personnel s view of business issues

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Question # 76

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?

A.

Mapping threats to organizational objectives

B.

Reviewing past audits

C.

Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Identifying potential sources of risk

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Question # 77

While evaluating control costs, management discovers that the annual cost exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk. This indicates the:

A.

control is ineffective and should be strengthened

B.

risk is inefficiently controlled.

C.

risk is efficiently controlled.

D.

control is weak and should be removed.

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Question # 78

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis

C.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers

D.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 79

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to enable risk treatment decisions?

A.

Allocate sufficient funds for risk remediation.

B.

Promote risk and security awareness.

C.

Establish clear accountability for risk.

D.

Develop comprehensive policies and standards.

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Question # 80

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization's risk management methodology?

A.

Business context

B.

Risk tolerance level

C.

Resource requirements

D.

Benchmarking information

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Question # 81

Which of the following provides The BEST information when determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical system to be implemented?

A.

Single loss expectancy (SLE)

B.

Cost of the information system

C.

Availability of additional compensating controls

D.

Potential business impacts are within acceptable levels

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Question # 82

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

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Question # 83

Which of the following will be MOST effective in uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions?

A.

Digital signature

B.

Edit checks

C.

Encryption

D.

Multifactor authentication

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Question # 84

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Risk scenario ownership

C.

Risk thresholds

D.

Possible causes of materialized risk

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Question # 85

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

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Question # 86

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the misclassification of data?

A.

inadequate resource allocation

B.

Data disruption

C.

Unauthorized access

D.

Inadequate retention schedules

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Question # 87

An organization has completed a project to implement encryption on all databases that host customer data. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated the reflect this change?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 88

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?

A.

The cost associated with incident response activitiesThe composition and number of records in the information asset

B.

The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines

C.

The length of time between identification and containment of the incident

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Question # 89

An organization recently implemented a cybersecurity awareness program that includes phishing simul-ation exercises for all employees. What type of control is being utilized?

A.

Deterrent

B.

Preventive

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

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Question # 90

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

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Question # 91

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Scheduling periodic audits

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

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Question # 92

When creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization, which of the following is MOST important to consider with regard to the existing corporate risk 'register?

A.

Leveraging business risk professionals

B.

Relying on generic IT risk scenarios

C.

Describing IT risk in business terms

D.

Using a common risk taxonomy

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Question # 93

An organization has been experiencing an increasing number of spear phishing attacks Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to mitigate the risk associated with these attacks?

A.

Update firewall configuration

B.

Require strong password complexity

C.

implement a security awareness program

D.

Implement two-factor authentication

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Question # 94

A risk practitioner has been asked to mark an identified control deficiency as remediated, despite concerns that the risk level is still too high. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this concern?

A.

Prepare a risk acceptance proposal for senior management's consideration.

B.

Review the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.

C.

Assess the residual risk against the organization's risk appetite.

D.

Recommend implementation of additional compensating controls.

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Question # 95

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address an organization's need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources?

A.

Apply available security patches.

B.

Schedule a penetration test.

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Perform a vulnerability analysis.

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Question # 96

An engineer has been assigned to conduct data restoration after a server storage failure. However, the procedure was not successful. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of this situation?

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Failure to prepare a business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Insufficient data captured in the business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Insufficient definition of the recovery point objective (RPO)

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Question # 97

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to report on changes or trends related to an organization's IT risk profile?

A.

To benchmark against a risk management framework

B.

To predict external regulatory changes

C.

To adapt to emerging threats

D.

To reduce the cost of performing control activities

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Question # 98

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization's adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?

A.

It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.

B.

It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.

C.

There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.

D.

Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.

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Question # 99

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when measuring the progress of risk response action plans?

A.

Results of risk remediation team interviews

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

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Question # 100
A.

Develop policies with less restrictive requirements to ensure consistency across the organization.

B.

Develop a global policy to be applied uniformly by each country.

C.

Develop country-specific policies to address local regulations.

D.

Develop a global policy that accommodates country-specific requirements.

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Question # 101

When reporting risk assessment results to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to include to enable risk-based decision making?

A.

Risk action plans and associated owners

B.

Recent audit and self-assessment results

C.

Potential losses compared to treatment cost

D.

A list of assets exposed to the highest risk

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Question # 102

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

B.

Availability of qualitative data

C.

Properly set thresholds

D.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

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Question # 103

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?

A.

Data duplication processes

B.

Data archival processes

C.

Data anonymization processes

D.

Data protection processes

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Question # 104

Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Control implementer

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Question # 105

Which of the blowing is MOST important when implementing an organization s security policy?

A.

Obtaining management support

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Assessing compliance requirements

D.

Identifying threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 106

An organization recently implemented an extensive risk awareness program after a cybersecurity incident. Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected by the implementation of the program?

A.

Inherent risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Threat landscape

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 107

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Collaborating with IT audit

C.

Conducting vulnerability assessments

D.

Obtaining input from key stakeholders

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Question # 108

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

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Question # 109

An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on theorganization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?

A.

Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.

B.

Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.

C.

Use a secure channel to transmit the files.

D.

Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.

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Question # 110

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for prioritizing risk treatment plans when faced with budget limitations?

A.

Inherent risk and likelihood

B.

Management action plans associated with audit findings

C.

Residual risk relative to appetite and tolerance

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI) trends

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Question # 111

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk trend

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Question # 112

A risk practitioner is advising management on how to update the IT policy framework to account for the organization s cloud usage. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in this process?

A.

Consult with industry peers regarding cloud best practices.

B.

Evaluate adherence to existing IT policies and standards.

C.

Determine gaps between the current state and target framework.

D.

Adopt an industry-leading cloud computing framework.

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Question # 113

An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?

A.

Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.

B.

Analyze the impact of the provider's control weaknesses to the business.

C.

Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider's control weaknesses.

D.

Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.

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Question # 114

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of IT risk management across an organization?

A.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) framework

B.

Enterprise-wide risk awareness training

C.

Robust risk reporting practices

D.

Risk management policies

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Question # 115

An organization has identified the need to implement an asset tiering model to establish the appropriate level of impact. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk assessment methodology for a risk practitioner to use for this initiative?

A.

Qualitative method

B.

Industry calibration method

C.

Threat-based method

D.

Quantitative method

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Question # 116

Which of the following BEST reduces the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information?

A.

Cable lock

B.

Data encryption

C.

Periodic backup

D.

Biometrics access control

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Question # 117

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations?

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Transfer the risk.

C.

Implement monitoring controls.

D.

Recalculate the risk.

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Question # 118

Which of the following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?

A.

Risk management procedures

B.

Senior management interviews

C.

Benchmark analyses

D.

Risk management framework

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Question # 119

During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?

A.

Data validation

B.

Identification

C.

Authentication

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 120

Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

A.

Impact analysis

B.

Control analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Threat analysis

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Question # 121

A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?

A.

Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value

B.

Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact

C.

Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization

D.

Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings

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Question # 122

Which types of controls are BEST used to minimize the risk associated with a vulnerability?

A.

Detective

B.

Preventive

C.

Deterrent

D.

Directive

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Question # 123

When a high-risk security breach occurs, which of the following would be MOST important to the person responsible for managing the incident?

A.

An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events

B.

An analysis of the impact of similar attacks in other organizations

C.

A business case for implementing stronger logical access controls

D.

A justification of corrective action taken

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Question # 124

Which of the following roles should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels?

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Business manager

C.

Risk owner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 125

Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Best practices

D.

Desired risk level

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Question # 126

During a post-implementation review for a new system, users voiced concerns about missing functionality. Which of the following is the BEST way for the organization to avoid this situation in the future?

A.

Test system reliability and performance.

B.

Adopt an Agile development approach.

C.

Conduct user acceptance testing (UAT).

D.

Adopt a phased changeover approach.

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Question # 127

Which of the following would BEST ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed?

A.

Reviewing the implementation of the risk response

B.

Creating a separate risk register for key business units

C.

Performing real-time monitoring of threats

D.

Performing regular risk control self-assessments

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Question # 128

Which of the following is MOST important to include when reporting the effectiveness of risk management to senior management?

A.

Changes in the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance levels

B.

Impact due to changes in external and internal risk factors

C.

Changes in residual risk levels against acceptable levels

D.

Gaps in best practices and implemented controls across the industry

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Question # 129

An organizational policy requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability. Which of the following is the BEST metric to verify adherence to the policy?

A.

Maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment

B.

Percentage of critical patches deployed within three weeks

C.

Minimum time gap between patch availability and deployment

D.

Number of critical patches deployed within three weeks

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Question # 130

Which of the following is MOST important requirement to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor contract to ensure data is protected?

A.

The vendor must provide periodic independent assurance reports.

B.

The vendor must host data in a specific geographic location.

C.

The vendor must be held liable for regulatory fines for failure to protect data.

D.

The vendor must participate in an annual vendor performance review.

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Question # 131

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:

A.

inconsistencies between security policies and procedures

B.

possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure

C.

leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

unknown threats to undermine existing access controls

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Question # 132

During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Report the infraction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Conduct risk awareness training.

D.

Discontinue the process.

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Question # 133

When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following deficiencies should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

Unclear organizational risk appetite

B.

Lack of senior management participation

C.

Use of highly customized control frameworks

D.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods

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Question # 134

Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?

A.

The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.

B.

The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

The risk response is accounted for in the budget.

D.

The risk response aligns with the organization's risk appetite.

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Question # 135

What is the PRIMARY reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Ensure compliance.

B.

Identify trends.

C.

Promote a risk-aware culture.

D.

Optimize resources needed for controls

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Question # 136

An organization retains footage from its data center security camera for 30 days when the policy requires 90-day retention The business owner challenges whether the situation is worth remediating Which of the following is the risk manager s BEST response'

A.

Identify the regulatory bodies that may highlight this gap

B.

Highlight news articles about data breaches

C.

Evaluate the risk as a measure of probable loss

D.

Verify if competitors comply with a similar policy

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Question # 137

An organization has implemented a cloud-based backup solution to help prevent loss of transactional data from offices in an earthquake zone. This strategy demonstrates risk:

A.

Avoidance

B.

Mitigation

C.

Transfer

D.

Acceptance

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Question # 138

During an IT department reorganization, the manager of a risk mitigation action plan was replaced. The new manager has begun implementing a new control after identifying a more effective option. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Communicate the decision to the risk owner for approval

B.

Seek approval from the previous action plan manager.

C.

Identify an owner for the new control.

D.

Modify the action plan in the risk register.

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Question # 139

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with insufficient focus on addressing blockchain interoperability in the SDLC?

A.

Limited blockchain adoption and support

B.

Reduced transaction speed and system responsiveness

C.

Reduced network integrity and availability

D.

Limited integration with external systems and blockchains

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Question # 140

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?

A.

Occurrences of specific events

B.

A performance measurement

C.

The risk tolerance level

D.

Risk scenarios

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Question # 141

Which of the following activities should only be performed by the third line of defense?

A.

Operating controls for risk mitigation

B.

Testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls

C.

Providing assurance on risk management processes

D.

Recommending risk treatment options

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Question # 142

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure before using risk reports in decision making?

A.

Root cause analysis is included.

B.

Risk analysis results are validated.

C.

Real-time risk information is provided.

D.

Quantitative risk data is provided.

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Question # 143

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization's secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

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Question # 144

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee?

A.

To allocate budget for resolution of risk issues

B.

To determine if new risk scenarios have been identified

C.

To ensure the project timeline is on target

D.

To track the status of risk mitigation actions

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Question # 145

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Segregation of duties

C.

Communication plan

D.

Critical asset inventory

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Question # 146

Who is accountable for risk treatment?

A.

Enterprise risk management team

B.

Risk mitigation manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Risk owner

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Question # 147

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

A.

Control analysis

B.

Vulnerability analysis

C.

Scenario analysis

D.

Heat map analysis

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Question # 148

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (AI) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

A.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

B.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

C.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

D.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

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Question # 149

Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?

A.

Cable lock

B.

Acceptable use policy

C.

Data encryption

D.

Asset tag with GPS

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Question # 150

Which of the following provides The MOST useful information when determining a risk management program's maturity level?

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

A recently reviewed risk register

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

The organization's risk framework

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Question # 151

An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?

A.

Most recent IT audit report results

B.

Replacement cost of IT assets

C.

Current annualized loss expectancy report

D.

Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report

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Question # 152

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to integrate business risk management with IT operations?

A.

Perform periodic IT control self-assessments.

B.

Require a risk assessment with change requests.

C.

Provide security awareness training.

D.

Perform periodic risk assessments.

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Question # 153

What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?

A.

Flexibility and adaptability

B.

Measurability and consistency

C.

Robustness and resilience

D.

Optimal cost and benefit

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Question # 154

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?

A.

Perform a gap analysis

B.

Conduct system testing

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Update security policies

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Question # 155

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

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Question # 156

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Testing is completed in phases, with user testing scheduled as the final phase.

B.

Segregation of duties controls are overridden during user testing phases.

C.

Data anonymization is used during all cycles of end-user testing.

D.

Testing is completed by IT support users without input from end users.

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Question # 157

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Question # 158

Which of the following, who should be PRIMARILY responsible for performing user entitlement reviews?

A.

IT security manager

B.

IT personnel

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

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Question # 159

An organization uses one centralized single sign-on (SSO) control to cover many applications. Which of the following is the BEST course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed?

A.

Initiate a retest of the full control

B.

Retest the control using the new application as the only sample.

C.

Review the corresponding change control documentation

D.

Re-evaluate the control during (he next assessment

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Question # 160

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

A.

record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.

B.

validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.

C.

reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.

D.

perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.

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Question # 161

An organization is planning to acquire a new financial system. Which of the following stakeholders would provide the MOST relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Process owner

C.

Risk manager

D.

Internal auditor

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Question # 162

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure risk will be managed properly after a business process has been re-engineered?

A.

Reassessing control effectiveness of the process

B.

Conducting a post-implementation review to determine lessons learned

C.

Reporting key performance indicators (KPIs) for core processes

D.

Establishing escalation procedures for anomaly events

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Question # 163

What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?

A.

Relative positions on the risk map

B.

Risk treatment options

C.

Capability of enterprise to implement

D.

The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response

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Question # 164

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the use of artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

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Question # 165

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

A.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

B.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

C.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart.

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Question # 166

A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?

A.

Risk forecasting

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 167

When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?

A.

identification of control requirements

B.

Alignment to business objectives

C.

Consideration of new business strategies

D.

inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance

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Question # 168

An organization has committed to a business initiative with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

A.

Recommend rejection of the initiative.

B.

Change the level of risk appetite.

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk.

D.

Initiate a reassessment of the risk.

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Question # 169

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

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Question # 170

A risk practitioner has established that a particular control is working as desired, but the annual cost of maintenance has increased and now exceeds the expected annual loss exposure. The result is that the control is:

A.

mature

B.

ineffective.

C.

optimized.

D.

inefficient.

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Question # 171

Key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST support risk treatment when they:

A.

Set performance expectations for controls.

B.

Align with key business objectives.

C.

Indicate that the risk is approaching predefined thresholds.

D.

Articulate likelihood and impact in quantitative terms.

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Question # 172

Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?

A.

Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls

B.

Considering risk that can be shared with a third party

C.

Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios

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Question # 173

An organization's Internet-facing server was successfully attacked because the server did not have the latest security patches. The risk associated with poor patch management had been documented in the risk register and accepted. Who should be accountable for any related losses to the organization?

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Server administrator

D.

Risk practitioner

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Question # 174

While reviewing the risk register, a risk practitioner notices that different business units have significant variances in inherent risk for the same risk scenario. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Update the risk register with the average of residual risk for both business units.

B.

Review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable.

C.

Update the risk register to ensure both risk scenarios have the highest residual risk.

D.

Request that both business units conduct another review of the risk.

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Question # 175

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increased volume of online transactions on a retailer website?

A.

Hot backup site

B.

Transaction limits

C.

Scalable infrastructure

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Question # 176

An internal audit report reveals that not all IT application databases have encryption in place. Which of the following information would be MOST important for assessing the risk impact?

A.

The number of users who can access sensitive data

B.

A list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data

C.

The reason some databases have not been encrypted

D.

The cost required to enforce encryption

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Question # 177
A.

Average time to contain security incidents

B.

Percentage of systems being monitored

C.

Number of false positives reported

D.

Number of personnel dedicated to security monitoring

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Question # 178

Which of the following is MOST important when creating a program to reduce ethical risk?

A.

Defining strict policies

B.

Developing an organizational communication plan

C.

Conducting a gap analysis

D.

Obtaining senior management commitment

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Question # 179

A penetration testing team discovered an ineffectively designed access control. Who is responsible for ensuring the control design gap is remediated?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

IT security manager

D.

Control operator

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Question # 180

Who should have the authority to approve an exception to a control?

A.

information security manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Risk owner

D.

Risk manager

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Question # 181

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Question # 182

Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure employee adherence to organizational security policies?

A.

Total number of security policy audit findings

B.

Total number of regulatory violations

C.

Total number of security policy exceptions

D.

Total number of opened phishing emails

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Question # 183
A.

Internal email communications are not encrypted.

B.

Data transmission within the corporate network is not encrypted.

C.

Internally created documents are not automatically classified.

D.

Data transmission across public networks is not encrypted.

Full Access
Question # 184

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?

A.

internal audit recommendations

B.

Laws and regulations

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Standards and frameworks

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Question # 185

A risk practitioner observes that the fraud detection controls in an online payment system do not perform as expected. Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result?

A.

Impact

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 186

An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?

A.

Confidentiality breach

B.

Institutional knowledge loss

C.

Intellectual property loss

D.

Unauthorized access

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Question # 187

The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A.

Insufficient risk tolerance

B.

Optimized control management

C.

Effective risk management

D.

Over-controlled environment

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Question # 188

A risk practitioner has been asked to propose a risk acceptance framework for an organization. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the risk practitioner to address in the framework?

A.

Consistent forms to document risk acceptance rationales

B.

Acceptable scenarios to override risk appetite or tolerance thresholds

C.

Individuals or roles authorized to approve risk acceptance

D.

Communication protocols when a risk is accepted

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Question # 189

Which of the following techniques is MOST helpful when quantifying the potential loss impact of cyber risk?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Security assessment

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Question # 190

Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?

A.

A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance

B.

A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies

C.

A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels

D.

A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance

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Question # 191

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a selected risk treatment plan is effective?

A.

Identifying key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Evaluating the return on investment (ROI)

C.

Evaluating the residual risk level

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 192

Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?

A.

Risk magnitude

B.

Incident probability

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 193

Which of the following is MOST important when identifying an organization's risk exposure associated with Internet of Things (loT) devices?

A.

Defined remediation plans

B.

Management sign-off on the scope

C.

Manual testing of device vulnerabilities

D.

Visibility into all networked devices

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Question # 194

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

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Question # 195

A cloud service provider has completed upgrades to its cloud infrastructure to enhance service availability. Which of the following is the MOST important key risk indicator (KRI) for management to monitor?

A.

Peak demand on the cloud service during business hours

B.

Percentage of technology upgrades resulting in security breaches

C.

Number of incidents with downtime exceeding contract threshold

D.

Percentage of servers not patched per policy

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Question # 196

Which of the following would be MOST important for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process?

A.

Closed management action plans from the previous audit

B.

Annual risk assessment results

C.

An updated vulnerability management report

D.

A list of identified generic risk scenarios

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Question # 197

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?

A.

Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.

B.

Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.

C.

Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.

D.

Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 198

Which of the following should be initiated when a high number of noncompliant conditions are observed during review of a control procedure?

A.

Disciplinary action

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

A review of the awareness program

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 199

A risk practitioner identifies an increasing trend of employees copying company information unrelated to their job functions to USB drives. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated to reflect this observation?

A.

Risk impact

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Question # 200

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action if a risk assessment identifies a risk that is extremely unlikely but would have a severe impact should it occur?

A.

Rate the risk as high priority based on the severe impact.

B.

Obtain management's consent to accept the risk.

C.

Ignore the risk due to the extremely low likelihood.

D.

Address the risk by analyzing treatment options.

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Question # 201

Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?

A.

A centralized computer security response team

B.

Regular performance reviews and management check-ins

C.

Code of ethics training for all employees

D.

Communication of employee activity monitoring

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Question # 202

Which of the following is the FIRST step when identifying risk items related to a new IT project?

A.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Review the IT control environment.

C.

Review the business case.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis.

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Question # 203

Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control

A.

The individual responsible for control operation

B.

The individual informed of the control effectiveness

C.

The individual responsible for resting the control

D.

The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness

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Question # 204

What information is MOST helpful to asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment?

A.

Potential loss to tie business due to non-performance of the asset

B.

Known emerging environmental threats

C.

Known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer

D.

Cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services

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Question # 205

Which of the following is the BEST risk management approach for the strategic IT planning process?

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are established to track IT strategic initiatives.

B.

The IT strategic plan is reviewed by the chief information security officer (CISO) and enterprise risk management (ERM).

C.

The IT strategic plan is developed from the organization-wide risk management plan.

D.

Risk scenarios associated with IT strategic initiatives are identified and assessed.

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Question # 206

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office

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Question # 207

Senior leadership has set guidelines for the integration of a new acquisition. The guidelines allow for a variation in the level of risk-taking. The variation indicates which of the following risk management concepts?

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk sensitivity

D.

Risk velocity

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Question # 208

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

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Question # 209

What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?

A.

Documenting project lessons learned

B.

Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed

C.

Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded

D.

Verifying that the risk level has been lowered

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Question # 210

Which of the following criteria associated with key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST enables effective risk monitoring?

A.

Approval by senior management

B.

Low cost of development and maintenance

C.

Sensitivity to changes in risk levels

D.

Use of industry risk data sources

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Question # 211

Which of the following would MOST likely result in updates to an IT risk appetite statement?

A.

External audit findings

B.

Feedback from focus groups

C.

Self-assessment reports

D.

Changes in senior management

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Question # 212

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

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Question # 213

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Perform root cause analysis.

C.

Initiate disciplinary action.

D.

Update the incident response plan.

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Question # 214

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure software engineers test patches before release to the production environment?

A.

To detect incompatibilities that might disrupt the operation

B.

To provide assurance that deployed patches have been properly authorized

C.

To understand how long it will take to deploy the patch

D.

To support availability by authorizing the release of the patch at the appropriate time

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Question # 215
A.

In the design phase.

B.

During pre-production testing.

C.

Once in the production environment.

D.

Throughout development.

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Question # 216

The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?

A.

Perform a root cause analysis

B.

Perform a code review

C.

Implement version control software.

D.

Implement training on coding best practices

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Question # 217

An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?

A.

Number of training sessions completed

B.

Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score

C.

Percentage of attendees versus total staff

D.

Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback

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Question # 218

The following is the snapshot of a recently approved IT risk register maintained by an organization's information security department.

After implementing countermeasures listed in ‘’Risk Response Descriptions’’ for each of the Risk IDs, which of the following component of the register MUST change?

A.

Risk Impact Rating

B.

Risk Owner

C.

Risk Likelihood Rating

D.

Risk Exposure

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Question # 219

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems?

A.

A record of incidents is maintained.

B.

Forensic investigations are facilitated.

C.

Security violations can be identified.

D.

Developing threats are detected earlier.

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Question # 220

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST appropriate course of action upon learning that an organization is not compliant with its patch management policy?

A.

Document the concern in an issue tracker.

B.

Strengthen data loss prevention (DLP) controls.

C.

Apply the most recent available patches.

D.

Escalate the issue to the ethics committee.

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Question # 221

An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?

A.

Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.

D.

Review the incident response plan.

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Question # 222

Which of the following will BEST quantify the risk associated with malicious users in an organization?

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Threat risk assessment

D.

Vulnerability assessment

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Question # 223

Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?

A.

Transaction log monitoring

B.

Access control attestation

C.

Periodic job rotation

D.

Whistleblower program

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Question # 224

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of Internet of Things (loT) technology in an organization?

A.

The business case for the use of loT

B.

The loT threat landscape

C.

Policy development for loT

D.

The network that loT devices can access

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Question # 225

Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) is MOST effective for monitoring risk related to a bring your own device (BYOD) program?

A.

Number of users who have signed a BYOD acceptable use policy

B.

Number of incidents originating from BYOD devices

C.

Budget allocated to the BYOD program security controls

D.

Number of devices enrolled in the BYOD program

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Question # 226

Management has determined that it will take significant time to remediate exposures in the current IT control environment. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Implement control monitoring.

B.

Improve project management methodology.

C.

Reassess the risk periodically.

D.

Identify compensating controls.

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Question # 227

An organization's risk management team wants to develop IT risk scenarios to show the impact of collecting and storing credit card information. Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive approach to capture this scenario?

A.

Top-down analysis

B.

Event tree analysis

C.

Control gap analysis

D.

Bottom-up analysis

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Question # 228

A Software as a Service (SaaS) provider has determined that the risk of a client's sensitive data being compromised is low. Which of the following is the client's BEST course of action?

A.

Implement additional controls to address the risk

B.

Accept the risk based on the provider's risk assessment

C.

Review the provider's independent audit results

D.

Ensure the contract includes breach notification requirements

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Question # 229

Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario no longer requires mitigation. Which of the following is the MOST important reason the risk should remain in the risk register?

A.

To support regulatory requirements

B.

To prevent the risk scenario in the current environment

C.

To monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario

D.

To track historical risk assessment results

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Question # 230

Who is MOST likely to be responsible for the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy?

A.

Chief financial officer

B.

Information security director

C.

Internal audit director

D.

Chief information officer

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Question # 231

The PRIMARY purpose of a maturity model is to compare the:

A.

current state of key processes to their desired state.

B.

actual KPIs with target KPIs.

C.

organization to industry best practices.

D.

organization to peers.

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Question # 232

When an organization’s disaster recovery plan (DRP) has a reciprocal agreement, which of the following risk treatment options is being applied?

A.

Acceptance

B.

Mitigation

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoidance

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Question # 233

Which of the following is the MOST important technology control to reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally?

A.

Automated access revocation

B.

Daily transaction reconciliation

C.

Rule-based data analytics

D.

Role-based user access model

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Question # 234

The MAIN purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control:

A.

operates as intended.

B.

is being monitored.

C.

meets regulatory requirements.

D.

operates efficiently.

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Question # 235

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when periodically reviewing risk response action plans?

A.

The action plans have documented schedules

B.

The action plans treat the corresponding risk

C.

Budget has been allocated for the action plans

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are defined in the action plans

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Question # 236

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?

A.

Complexity of the IT infrastructure

B.

Value of information assets

C.

Management culture

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 237

A maturity model will BEST indicate:

A.

confidentiality and integrity.

B.

effectiveness and efficiency.

C.

availability and reliability.

D.

certification and accreditation.

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Question # 238

Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of fraudulent activity that occurs through use of a digital wallet?

A.

Require multi-factor authentication (MFA) to access the digital wallet.

B.

Use a digital key to encrypt the contents of the wallet.

C.

Enable audit logging on the digital wallet's device.

D.

Require public key infrastructure (PKI) to authorize transactions.

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Question # 239

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure?

A.

It provides a cost-benefit analysis on control options available for implementation.

B.

It provides a view on where controls should be applied to maximize the uptime of servers.

C.

It provides historical information about the impact of individual servers malfunctioning.

D.

It provides a comprehensive view of the impact should the servers simultaneously fail.

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Question # 240

An insurance company handling sensitive and personal information from its customers receives a large volume of telephone requests and electronic communications daily. Which of the following

is MOST important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department?

A.

Archiving sensitive information

B.

Understanding the incident management process

C.

Identifying social engineering attacks

D.

Understanding the importance of using a secure password

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Question # 241

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

A.

To create a complete repository of risk to the organization

B.

To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization

C.

To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios

D.

To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization

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Question # 242

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

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Question # 243

Within the risk management space, which of the following activities could be

delegated to a cloud service provider?

A.

Risk oversight

B.

Control implementation

C.

Incident response

D.

User access reviews

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Question # 244

Which of the following BEST measures the impact of business interruptions caused by an IT service outage?

A.

Sustained financial loss

B.

Cost of remediation efforts

C.

Duration of service outage

D.

Average time to recovery

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Question # 245

A business is conducting a proof of concept on a vendor’s AI technology. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for managing risk?

A.

Use of a non-production environment

B.

Regular security updates

C.

Third-party management plan

D.

Adequate vendor support

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Question # 246

After conducting a risk assessment for regulatory compliance, an organization has identified only one possible mitigating control. The cost of the control has been determined to be higher than the penalty of noncompliance. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Accept the risk with management sign-off.

B.

Ignore the risk until the regulatory body conducts a compliance check.

C.

Mitigate the risk with the identified control.

D.

Transfer the risk by buying insurance.

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Question # 247

Of the following, whose input is ESSENTIAL when developing risk scenarios for the implementation of a third-party mobile application that stores customer data?

A.

Information security manager

B.

IT vendor manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

IT compliance manager

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Question # 248

Print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room. Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information?

A.

Requiring a printer access code for each user

B.

Using physical controls to access the printer room

C.

Using video surveillance in the printer room

D.

Ensuring printer parameters are properly configured

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Question # 249

Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?

A.

Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Define recovery time objectives (RTO).

C.

Analyze capability maturity model gaps.

D.

Simulate a disaster recovery.

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Question # 250

The purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to:

A.

ensure that the source code is valid and exists.

B.

ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist.

C.

review the source code for adequacy of controls.

D.

ensure the source code is available when bugs occur.

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Question # 251

Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?

A.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B.

IT system criticality classification

C.

Incident management service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 252

An organization has implemented a preventive control to lock user accounts after three unsuccessful login attempts. This practice has been proven to be unproductive, and a change in the control threshold value has been recommended. Who should authorize changing this threshold?

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT security manager

C.

IT system owner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 253

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

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Question # 254

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?

A.

Enroll the employee in additional security training.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Conduct an internal audit.

D.

Instruct the vendor to delete the data.

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Question # 255

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

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Question # 256

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays

D.

Maintaining a risk register

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Question # 257

Which of the following provides a risk practitioner with the MOST reliable evidence of a third party's ability to protect the confidentiality of sensitive corporate information?

A.

A signed nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

B.

Control self-assessment (CSA) results

C.

External audit reports

D.

Internal audit reports

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Question # 258

A legacy application used for a critical business function relies on software that has reached the end of extended support Which of the following is the MOST effective control to manage this application?

A.

Subscribe to threat intelligence to monitor external attacks.

B.

Apply patches for a newer version of the application.

C.

Segment the application within the existing network.

D.

Increase the frequency of regular system and data backups.

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Question # 259

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Question # 260

During a control review, the control owner states that an existing control has deteriorated over time. What is the BEST recommendation to the control owner?

A.

Implement compensating controls to reduce residual risk

B.

Escalate the issue to senior management

C.

Discuss risk mitigation options with the risk owner.

D.

Certify the control after documenting the concern.

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Question # 261

Which of the following provides the MOST useful input to the development of realistic risk scenarios?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk map

D.

Risk events

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Question # 262

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

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Question # 263

Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program?

A.

Reviewing control objectives

B.

Aligning with industry best practices

C.

Consulting risk owners

D.

Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite

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Question # 264

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to review during an IT risk assessment?

A.

Published records of loss from peer organizations

B.

The organization's historical threats and monetary loss

C.

Information system assets and associated threats

D.

Information system control weaknesses and audit findings

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Question # 265

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?

A.

Key audit findings

B.

Treatment plan status

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Risk scenario results

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Question # 266

Which of the following BEST ensures that the data feeds used by an organization are complete and accurate?

A.

Data is inspected and accepted by owners

B.

Best-in-class data mining technology is used

C.

Sources of data and attributes are known

D.

The project is run by an experienced team

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Question # 267

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

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Question # 268

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting digital signature software?

A.

Availability

B.

Nonrepudiation

C.

Accuracy

D.

Completeness

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Question # 269

Which of the following would be of GREATEST assistance when justifying investment in risk response strategies?

A.

Total cost of ownership

B.

Resource dependency analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Business impact analysis

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Question # 270

A risk assessment has revealed that the probability of a successful cybersecurity attack is increasing. The potential loss could exceed the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following ould be the MOST effective course of action?

A.

Re-evaluate the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Outsource the cybersecurity function.

C.

Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

D.

Review cybersecurity incident response procedures.

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Question # 271

Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Monetary approval limits

C.

Clear roles and responsibilities

D.

Password policies

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Question # 272

Concerned about system load capabilities during the month-end close process, management requires monitoring of the average time to complete tasks and monthly reporting of the findings. What type of measure has been established?

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Critical success factor (CSF)

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Question # 273

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

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Question # 274

Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?

A.

Solutions for eradicating emerging threats

B.

Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats

C.

Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)

D.

Source and identity of attackers

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Question # 275

A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Audit trail review

C.

Multi-factor authentication

D.

Data encryption at rest

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Question # 276

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes?

A.

Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR) during the disaster recovery test

B.

Percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time

C.

Percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope

D.

Percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test

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Question # 277

A data center has recently been migrated to a jurisdiction where heavy fines will be imposed should leakage of customer personal data occur. Assuming no other changes to the operating environment, which factor should be updated to reflect this situation as an input to scenario development for this particular risk event?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk impact

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 278

Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk associated with a new implementation of single sign-on?

A.

Inability to access key information

B.

Complex security administration

C.

User resistance to single sign-on

D.

Single point of failure

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Question # 279

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Question # 280

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 281

Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?

A.

Collecting data for IT risk assessment

B.

Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile

C.

Utilizing a balanced scorecard

D.

Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis

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Question # 282

A risk practitioner has recently become aware of unauthorized use of confidential personal information within the organization. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Establish database activity monitoring

B.

Report the incident to the chief privacy officer (CPO)

C.

Invoke the incident response plan

D.

Escalate the issue to the data owner

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Question # 283

A risk assessment has been completed on an application and reported to the application owner. The report includes validated vulnerability findings that require mitigation. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

A.

Report the findings to executive management to enable treatment decisions.

B.

Reassess each vulnerability to evaluate the risk profile of the application.

C.

Conduct a penetration test to determine how to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

D.

Prepare a risk response that is aligned to the organization's risk tolerance.

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Question # 284

Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?

A.

Communication

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Decision support

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 285

Which of the following is an IT business owner's BEST course of action following an unexpected increase in emergency changes?

A.

Evaluating the impact to control objectives

B.

Conducting a root cause analysis

C.

Validating the adequacy of current processes

D.

Reconfiguring the IT infrastructure

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Question # 286

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization's IT asset inventory?

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

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Question # 287

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

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Question # 288

An organization has an approved bring your own device (BYOD) policy. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the security risk associated with the inappropriate use of enterprise applications on the devices?

A.

Periodically review application on BYOD devices

B.

Include BYOD in organizational awareness programs

C.

Implement BYOD mobile device management (MDM) controls.

D.

Enable a remote wee capability for BYOD devices

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Question # 289

An organization has experienced a cyber-attack that exposed customer personally identifiable information (Pll) and caused extended outages of network services. Which of the following stakeholders are MOST important to include in the cyber response team to determine response actions?

A.

Security control owners based on control failures

B.

Cyber risk remediation plan owners

C.

Risk owners based on risk impact

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) team

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Question # 290

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of IT policies? The number of:

A.

IT policy exceptions granted.

B.

Senior management approvals.

C.

Key technology controls covered by IT policies.

D.

Processes covered by IT policies.

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Question # 291

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

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Question # 292

The PRIMARY benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the:

A.

capability to implement new processes

B.

evolution of process improvements

C.

degree of compliance with policies and procedures

D.

control requirements.

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Question # 293

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

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Question # 294

When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:

A.

risk appetite.

B.

security policies

C.

process maps.

D.

risk tolerance level

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Question # 295

The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:

A.

establish overall impact to the organization

B.

efficiently manage the scope of the assignment

C.

identify critical information systems

D.

facilitate communication to senior management

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Question # 296

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring?

A.

Monitoring is only conducted between official hours of business

B.

Employees are informed of how they are bong monitored

C.

Reporting on nonproductive employees is sent to management on a scheduled basis

D.

Multiple data monitoring sources are integrated into security incident response procedures

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Question # 297

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk?

A.

Prioritizing risk within each business unit

B.

Reviewing risk ranking methodology

C.

Promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness

D.

Assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles

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Question # 298

The PRIMARY goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to:

A.

obtain the support of executive management.

B.

map the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources.

C.

identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services.

D.

document the disaster recovery process.

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Question # 299

Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?

A.

Regular testing of risk controls

B.

Communication of audit findings

C.

Procedures for security monitoring

D.

Open communication of risk reporting

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Question # 300

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations.

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis.

C.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers.

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Question # 301

Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls?

A.

End user

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Data owner

D.

Data custodian

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Question # 302

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate privileged access to database accounts?

A.

Regular reviews of privileged access

B.

Confirmation from users with privileged access

C.

Management approval of access requests

D.

Confirmation from the database administrator (DBA)

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Question # 303

The MOST important reason for implementing change control procedures is to ensure:

A.

only approved changes are implemented

B.

timely evaluation of change events

C.

an audit trail exists.

D.

that emergency changes are logged.

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Question # 304

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

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Question # 305

It is MOST important to the effectiveness of an IT risk management function that the associated processes are:

A.

aligned to an industry-accepted framework.

B.

reviewed and approved by senior management.

C.

periodically assessed against regulatory requirements.

D.

updated and monitored on a continuous basis.

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Question # 306

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when risk is found to be above the acceptable risk appetite?

A.

Review risk tolerance levels

B.

Maintain the current controls.

C.

Analyze the effectiveness of controls.

D.

Execute the risk response plan

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Question # 307

Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?

A.

Risk appetite and tolerance

B.

Risk framework and methodology

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Risk communication plan

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Question # 308

The design of procedures to prevent fraudulent transactions within an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system should be based on:

A.

stakeholder risk tolerance.

B.

benchmarking criteria.

C.

suppliers used by the organization.

D.

the control environment.

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Question # 309

Of the following, who is BEST suited to assist a risk practitioner in developing a relevant set of risk scenarios?

A.

Internal auditor

B.

Asset owner

C.

Finance manager

D.

Control owner

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Question # 310

Which of the following should a risk practitioner review FIRST when evaluating risk events associated with the organization's data flow model?

A.

Results of data classification activities

B.

Recent changes to enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

High-level network diagrams

D.

Notes from interviews with the data owners

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Question # 311

An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:

A.

procedures to monitor the operation of controls.

B.

a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.

C.

real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.

D.

monitoring activities for all critical assets.

E.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Question # 312

A multinational organization is considering implementing standard background checks to' all new employees A KEY concern regarding this approach

A.

fail to identity all relevant issues.

B.

be too costly

C.

violate laws in other countries

D.

be too line consuming

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Question # 313

Recent penetration testing of an organization's software has identified many different types of security risks. Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause for the identified risk?

A.

SIEM software is producing faulty alerts.

B.

Threat modeling was not utilized in the software design process.

C.

The configuration management process is not applied consistently during development.

D.

An identity and access management (IAM) tool has not been properly integrated into the software.

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Question # 314

A risk manager has determined there is excessive risk with a particular technology. Who is the BEST person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology?

A.

IT system owner

B.

Chief financial officer

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 315

Who should be responsible (of evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Risk practitioner

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Question # 316

Which of the following is MOST important when defining controls?

A.

Identifying monitoring mechanisms

B.

Including them in the risk register

C.

Aligning them with business objectives

D.

Prototyping compensating controls

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Question # 317

Which of the following BEST enforces access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies?

A.

Senior management support of cloud adoption strategies

B.

Creation of a cloud access risk management policy

C.

Adoption of a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution

D.

Expansion of security information and event management (SIEM) to cloud services

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Question # 318

An organization has contracted with a cloud service provider to support the deployment of a new product. Of the following, who should own the associated risk?

A.

The head of enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

The IT risk manager

C.

The information security manager

D.

The product owner

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Question # 319

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Question # 320

Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk associated with reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees?

A.

Validating employee social media accounts and passwords

B.

Monitoring Internet usage on employee workstations

C.

Disabling social media access from the organization's technology

D.

Implementing training and awareness programs

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Question # 321

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information

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Question # 322

Which of the following is MOST important to determine as a result of a risk assessment?

A.

Process ownership

B.

Risk appetite statement

C.

Risk tolerance levels

D.

Risk response options

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Question # 323

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when communicating roles associated with the IT risk management process?

A.

Skills matrix

B.

Job descriptions

C.

RACI chart

D.

Organizational chart

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Question # 324

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

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Question # 325

Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?

A.

Enabling risk-aware decisions

B.

Promoting a risk-aware culture

C.

Improving security governance

D.

Reducing residual risk

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Question # 326

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?

A.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed

B.

Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding

C.

Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities

D.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed

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Question # 327

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment?

A.

Analyzing risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

Assessing identified risk and recording results in the risk register

C.

Evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls

D.

Reviewing guidance from industry best practices and standards

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Question # 328

A business impact analysis (BIA) has documented the duration of maximum allowable outage for each of an organization's applications. Which of the following MUST be aligned with the maximum allowable outage?

A.

Mean time to restore (MTTR)

B.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

C.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Mean time to detect (MTTD)

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Question # 329

Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?

A.

Whether the affected technology is used within the organization

B.

Whether the affected technology is Internet-facing

C.

What mitigating controls are currently in place

D.

How pervasive the vulnerability is within the organization

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Question # 330

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 331

During the internal review of an accounts payable process, a risk practitioner determines that the transaction approval limits configured in the system are not being enforced. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Identify the extent of the approval limit violations.

B.

Notify senior management of the system deficiency.

C.

Update the risk register with higher risk likelihood of violation.

D.

Remind users of the importance of adhering to approval limits.

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Question # 332

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?

A.

Scheduling periodic audits

B.

Assigning a data custodian

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

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Question # 333
A.

Conduct frequent internal audits of IT systems.

B.

Review information from threat intelligence sources.

C.

Define a comprehensive set of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Document thorough IT risk scenarios in the risk register.

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Question # 334

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 335

An organization has initiated a project to implement an IT risk management program for the first time. The BEST time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when:

A.

identifying risk scenarios.

B.

determining the risk strategy.

C.

calculating impact and likelihood.

D.

completing the controls catalog.

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Question # 336

Which of the following would BEST help identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register?

A.

Determining which departments contribute most to risk

B.

Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners

C.

Mapping identified risk factors to specific business processes

D.

Determining resource dependency of assets

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Question # 337

When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:

A.

business process owners.

B.

representative data sets.

C.

industry benchmark data.

D.

data automation systems.

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Question # 338

A business unit has implemented robotic process automation (RPA) for its

repetitive back-office tasks. Which of the following should be the risk

practitioner's GREATEST concern?

A.

The security team is unaware of the implementation.

B.

The organization may lose institutional knowledge.

C.

The robots may fail to work effectively.

D.

Virtual clients are used for implementation.

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Question # 339
A.

Conduct targeted risk assessments.

B.

Recommend management accept the low risk scenarios.

C.

Assess management's risk tolerance.

D.

Propose mitigating controls.

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Question # 340

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with outsourcing network management to an external vendor who will have access to sensitive information assets?

A.

Prepare a skills matrix to illustrate tasks and required expertise.

B.

Require periodic security assessments of the vendor within the contract.

C.

Perform due diligence to enable holistic assessment of the vendor.

D.

Plan a phased approach for the transition of processes to the vendor.

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Question # 341

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process?

A.

Percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level

B.

Number of vulnerabilities identified during the period

C.

Number of vulnerabilities re-opened during the period

D.

Percentage of vulnerabilities escalated to senior management

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Question # 342

Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?

A.

Implement segregation of duties.

B.

Enforce an internal data access policy.

C.

Enforce the use of digital signatures.

D.

Apply single sign-on for access control.

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Question # 343

Which of the following would BEST prevent an unscheduled application of a patch?

A.

Network-based access controls

B.

Compensating controls

C.

Segregation of duties

D.

Change management

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Question # 344

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Question # 345

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (PII)?

A.

Business strategies and needs

B.

Security features and support

C.

Costs and benefits

D.

Local laws and regulations

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Question # 346

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?

A.

Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced

B.

Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy

C.

Listing alternative causes for risk events

D.

Illustrating changes in risk trends

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Question # 347

In a public company, which group is PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring sufficient attention and resources are applied to the risk management process?

A.

Board of directors

B.

Risk officers

C.

Line management

D.

Senior management

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Question # 348

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses?

A.

Incident reports

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Control objectives

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Question # 349

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation when a key risk indicator (KRI) is generating an excessive volume of events?

A.

Reevaluate the design of the KRIs.

B.

Develop a corresponding key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Monitor KRIs within a specific timeframe.

D.

Activate the incident response plan.

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Question # 350

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason an organization would engage an independent reviewer to assess its IT risk management program?

A.

To ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating emerging risk

B.

To confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed in quantitative terms

C.

To evaluate threats to the organization's operations and strategy

D.

To identify gaps in the alignment of IT risk management processes and strategy

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Question # 351

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

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Question # 352

A failure in an organization’s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's IMMEDIATE concern?

A.

Threats are not being detected.

B.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

The process documentation was not updated.

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Question # 353

Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security management function

C.

IT management

D.

Enterprise risk function

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Question # 354

When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

regulatory guidelines

D.

control efficiency

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Question # 355

An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:

A.

senior management has oversight of the process.

B.

process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.

C.

segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.

D.

risk owners have decision-making authority.

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Question # 356

An organization recently implemented a machine learning-based solution to monitor IT usage and analyze user behavior in an effort to detect internal fraud. Which of the following is MOST likely to be reassessed as a result of this initiative?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk capacity

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Question # 357

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management?

A.

To enable consistent data on risk to be obtained

B.

To allow for proper review of risk tolerance

C.

To identify dependencies for reporting risk

D.

To provide consistent and clear terminology

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Question # 358

During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?

A.

Insufficient laptops for existing employees

B.

Abuse of leavers' account privileges

C.

Unauthorized access to organizational data

D.

Financial cost of replacing the laptops

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Question # 359

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

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Question # 360

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of consistently recording risk assessment results in the risk register?

A.

Assessment of organizational risk appetite

B.

Compliance with best practice

C.

Accountability for loss events

D.

Accuracy of risk profiles

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Question # 361

A company has recently acquired a customer relationship management (CRM) application from a certified software vendor. Which of the following will BE ST help lo prevent technical vulnerabilities from being exploded?

A.

implement code reviews and Quality assurance on a regular basis

B.

Verity me software agreement indemnifies the company from losses

C.

Review the source coda and error reporting of the application

D.

Update the software with the latest patches and updates

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Question # 362

An organization has opened a subsidiary in a foreign country. Which of the following would be the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of the subsidiary's IT systems controls?

A.

Implement IT systems in alignment with business objectives.

B.

Review metrics and key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Review design documentation of IT systems.

D.

Evaluate compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

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Question # 363

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of automated information security controls prior to going live?

A.

Testing in a non-production environment

B.

Performing a security control review

C.

Reviewing the security audit report

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Question # 364

Within the three lines of defense model, the accountability for the system of internal control resides with:

A.

the chief information officer (CIO).

B.

the board of directors

C.

enterprise risk management

D.

the risk practitioner

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Question # 365

An organization is considering adopting artificial intelligence (AI). Which of the

following is the risk practitioner's MOST important course of action?

A.

Develop key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Ensure sufficient pre-implementation testing.

C.

Identify applicable risk scenarios.

D.

Identify the organization's critical data.

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Question # 366

Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent unauthorized access to an organization's critical assets?

A.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

C.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

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Question # 367

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of implementing a data classification program?

A.

Reduction in data complexity

B.

Reduction in processing times

C.

Identification of appropriate ownership

D.

Identification of appropriate controls

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Question # 368

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the second line when an IT risk management framework is adopted?

A.

Overseeing the execution of framework requirements

B.

Implementing the framework requirements

C.

Advising industry standard framework organizations

D.

Auditing the execution of framework requirements

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Question # 369

Which of the following will be MOST effective to mitigate the risk associated with the loss of company data stored on personal devices?

A.

An acceptable use policy for personal devices

B.

Required user log-on before synchronizing data

C.

Enforced authentication and data encryption

D.

Security awareness training and testing

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Question # 370

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit to an organization that is using threat intelligence?

A.

Timely insight into potential threats

B.

Automated vulnerability management

C.

Accurate threat information

D.

Verification of threat information

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Question # 371

Which of the following is the BEST approach for determining whether a risk action plan is effective?

A.

Comparing the remediation cost against budget

B.

Assessing changes in residual risk

C.

Assessing the inherent risk

D.

Monitoring changes of key performance indicators(KPIs)

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Question # 372

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to examine a post-implementation review report for a control automation tool?

A.

To verify that budget for the project is managed effectively

B.

To confirm compliance with project management methodology

C.

To ensure the risk is managed to an acceptable level

D.

To ensure audit findings are addressed in a timely manner

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Question # 373

Which of the following would BEST support the integrity of online financial transactions?

A.

Developing an integrated audit facility

B.

Implementing audit trail logs

C.

Deploying multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Implementing blockchain technology

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Question # 374

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

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Question # 375

A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Implement monitoring techniques.

B.

Implement layered security.

C.

Outsource to a local processor.

D.

Conduct an awareness campaign.

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Question # 376

An organization has completed a risk assessment of one of its service providers. Who should be accountable for ensuring that risk responses are implemented?

A.

IT risk practitioner

B.

Third -partf3ecurity team

C.

The relationship owner

D.

Legal representation of the business

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Question # 377

Which of the following emerging technologies is frequently used for botnet distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks?

A.

Internet of Things (IoT)

B.

Quantum computing

C.

Virtual reality (VR)

D.

Machine learning

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Question # 378

Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?

A.

Technology subject matter experts

B.

Business process owners

C.

Business users of IT systems

D.

Risk management consultants

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Question # 379

When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:

A.

Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.

B.

Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.

C.

Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.

D.

Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios

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Question # 380

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

A.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Granting access based on least privilege

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

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Question # 381

An organization plans to implement a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution Which of the following is MOST important to mitigate risk associated with data privacy?

A.

Secure encryption protocols are utilized.

B.

Multi-factor authentication is set up for users.

C.

The solution architecture is approved by IT.

D.

A risk transfer clause is included in the contact

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Question # 382

Which of the following is the GREATEST impact of implementing a risk mitigation strategy?

A.

Improved alignment with business goals.

B.

Reduction of residual risk.

C.

Increased costs due to control implementation.

D.

Decreased overall risk appetite.

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Question # 383

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a control is not meeting agreed-upon performance criteria?

A.

Implement additional controls to further mitigate risk

B.

Review performance results with the control owner

C.

Redefine performance criteria based on control monitoring results

D.

Recommend a tool to meet the performance requirements

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Question # 384

Which of the following is the BEST way to promote adherence to the risk tolerance level set by management?

A.

Defining expectations in the enterprise risk policy

B.

Increasing organizational resources to mitigate risks

C.

Communicating external audit results

D.

Avoiding risks that could materialize into substantial losses

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Question # 385

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration for a startup organization that has decided to adopt externally-sourced security policies?

A.

Availability of policy updates and support

B.

Stakeholder buy-in of policies

C.

Applicability to business operations

D.

Compliance with local regulations

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Question # 386

When a risk practitioner is determining a system's criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:

A.

process flow.

B.

business impact analysis (BIA).

C.

service level agreement (SLA).

D.

system architecture.

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Question # 387

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?

A.

Audit engagement letter

B.

Risk profile

C.

IT risk register

D.

Change control documentation

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Question # 388

Which of the following is the MOST valuable data source to support the optimization of an existing key risk indicator (KRI)?

A.

Frameworks and standards

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Organizational policies

D.

Historical losses and incidents

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Question # 389

Which of the following describes the relationship between Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIS)?

A.

KCIs are independent from KRIs KRIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs help in determining risk appetite.

C.

KCIs are defined using data from KRIs.

D.

KCIs provide input for KRIs

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Question # 390

After several security incidents resulting in significant financial losses, IT management has decided to outsource the security function to a third party that provides 24/7 security operation services. Which risk response option has management implemented?

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Question # 391

An organization becomes aware that IT security failed to detect a coordinated

cyber attack on its data center. Which of the following is the BEST course of

action?

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Identify compensating controls

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds.

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Question # 392

The PRIMARY reason for periodic penetration testing of Internet-facing applications is to:

A.

ensure policy and regulatory compliance.

B.

assess the proliferation of new threats.

C.

verify Internet firewall control settings.

D.

identify vulnerabilities in the system.

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Question # 393

An organization has recently hired a large number of part-time employees. During the annual audit, it was discovered that many user IDs and passwords were documented in procedure manuals for use by the part-time employees. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A.

Threat

B.

Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Policy violation

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Question # 394

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst? The reviewers are:

A.

accountable for the affected processes.

B.

members of senior management.

C.

authorized to select risk mitigation options.

D.

independent from the business operations.

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Question # 395

Which of the following BEST contributes to the implementation of an effective risk response action plan?

A.

An IT tactical plan

B.

Disaster recovery and continuity testing

C.

Assigned roles and responsibilities

D.

A business impact analysis

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Question # 396

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

A.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

B.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

C.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

D.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

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Question # 397

What are the MOST important criteria to consider when developing a data classification scheme to facilitate risk assessment and the prioritization of risk mitigation activities?

A.

Mitigation and control value

B.

Volume and scope of data generated daily

C.

Business criticality and sensitivity

D.

Recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 398

An organization's stakeholders are unable to agree on appropriate risk responses. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Identify a risk transfer option.

C.

Reassess risk scenarios.

D.

Benchmark with similar industries.

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Question # 399

A risk practitioner has observed that risk owners have approved a high number of exceptions to the information security policy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

A.

Security policies are being reviewed infrequently.

B.

Controls are not operating efficiently.

C.

Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated

D.

Aggregate risk is approaching the tolerance threshold

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Question # 400

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

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Question # 401

Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?

A.

A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.

B.

Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

Redundant compensating controls are in place.

D.

Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.

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Question # 402

A risk register BEST facilitates which of the following risk management functions?

A.

Analyzing the organization's risk appetite

B.

Influencing the risk culture of the organization

C.

Reviewing relevant risk scenarios with stakeholders

D.

Articulating senior management's intent

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Question # 403

Which of the following BEST supports the management of identified risk scenarios?

A.

Collecting risk event data

B.

Maintaining a risk register

C.

Using key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Defining risk parameters

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Question # 404

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite?

A.

To align with board reporting requirements

B.

To assist management in decision making

C.

To create organization-wide risk awareness

D.

To minimize risk mitigation efforts

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Question # 405

A recent audit identified high-risk issues in a business unit though a previous control self-assessment (CSA) had good results. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the difference?

A.

The audit had a broader scope than the CSA.

B.

The CSA was not sample-based.

C.

The CSA did not test control effectiveness.

D.

The CSA was compliance-based, while the audit was risk-based.

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Question # 406

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?

A.

Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities

B.

Inaccurate reporting of results

C.

Increased number of vulnerabilities

D.

Network performance degradation

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Question # 407

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

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Question # 408

A risk owner should be the person accountable for:

A.

the risk management process

B.

managing controls.

C.

implementing actions.

D.

the business process.

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Question # 409

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that risk management is important in project management?

A.

It helps identify and mitigate potential issues that could derail projects.

B.

It helps to ensure project acceptance by end users.

C.

It reduces the risk associated with potential project scope creep.

D.

It facilitates agreement and collaboration on project goals among stakeholders.

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Question # 410

A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 411

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

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Question # 412

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in corporate risk governance?

A.

Approving operational strategies and objectives

B.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate risk

C.

Ensuring the effectiveness of the risk management program

D.

Ensuring risk scenarios are identified and recorded in the risk register

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Question # 413

The PRIMARY focus of an ongoing risk awareness program should be to:

A.

enable better risk-based decisions.

B.

define appropriate controls to mitigate risk.

C.

determine impact of risk scenarios.

D.

expand understanding of risk indicators.

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Question # 414

Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?

A.

Informing business process owners of the risk

B.

Reviewing and updating the risk register

C.

Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals

D.

Implementing new control technologies

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Question # 415

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

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Question # 416

A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?

A.

Assessing risk with no controls in place

B.

Showing projected residual risk

C.

Providing peer benchmarking results

D.

Assessing risk with current controls in place

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Question # 417

Which of the following is MOST important for mitigating ethical risk when establishing accountability for control ownership?

A.

Ensuring processes are documented to enable effective control execution

B.

Ensuring regular risk messaging is Included in business communications from leadership

C.

Ensuring schedules and deadlines for control-related deliverables are strictly monitored

D.

Ensuring performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite

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Question # 418

Which of the following is the BEST way to maintain a current list of organizational risk scenarios?

A.

Automate workflow for risk status updates.

B.

Perform regular reviews of key controls.

C.

Conduct periodic risk reviews with stakeholders.

D.

Conduct compliance reviews.

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Question # 419

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?

A.

Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape

B.

Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment

C.

Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit

D.

Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors

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Question # 420

Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent the loss of highly sensitive data when disposing of storage media?

A.

Physical destruction

B.

Degaussing

C.

Data anonymization

D.

Data deletion

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Question # 421

A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?

A.

Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.

B.

Communicate to those who test and promote changes.

C.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.

D.

Assess the maturity of the change management process.

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Question # 422

Which of the following is MOST important to enable well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions?

A.

Determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios.

B.

Conduct risk assessment peer reviews.

C.

Identify roles and responsibilities for security controls.

D.

Engage a third party to perform a risk assessment.

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Question # 423

Of the following, who is accountable for ensuing the effectiveness of a control to mitigate risk?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk manager

C.

Control operator

D.

Risk treatment owner

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Question # 424

Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?

A.

Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.

B.

Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.

C.

Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.

D.

Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.

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Question # 425

An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

A.

Recommend risk remediation

B.

Change the level of risk appetite

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk

D.

Reject the business initiative

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Question # 426

To ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) are effective and meaningful, the KRIs should be aligned to:

A.

A control framework

B.

Industry standards

C.

Capability maturity targets

D.

Business processes

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Question # 427

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT course of action?

A.

Remove the associated risk from the register.

B.

Validate control effectiveness and update the risk register.

C.

Review the contract and service level agreements (SLAs).

D.

Obtain an assurance report from the third-party provider.

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Question # 428

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department's roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization's information security risk profile

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Question # 429

Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?

A.

Management intervention

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Board commentary

D.

Escalation triggers

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Question # 430

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

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Question # 431

Which of the following should be implemented to BEST mitigate the risk associated with infrastructure updates?

A.

Role-specific technical training

B.

Change management audit

C.

Change control process

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 432

Which of the following is the BEST way to detect zero-day malware on an end user's workstation?

A.

An antivirus program

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Firewall log monitoring

D.

File integrity monitoring

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Question # 433

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

Aligned with risk management capabilities.

B.

Based on industry trends.

C.

Related to probable events.

D.

Mapped to incident response plans.

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Question # 434

Calculation of the recovery time objective (RTO) is necessary to determine the:

A.

time required to restore files.

B.

point of synchronization

C.

priority of restoration.

D.

annual loss expectancy (ALE).

Full Access
Question # 435

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

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Question # 436

What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?

A.

Segment the system on its own network.

B.

Ensure regular backups take place.

C.

Virtualize the system in the cloud.

D.

Install antivirus software on the system.

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Question # 437

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization uses a managed security service provider as a firewall administrator?

A.

Exposure of log data

B.

Lack of governance

C.

Increased number of firewall rules

D.

Lack of agreed-upon standards

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Question # 438

If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

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Question # 439

Which of the following is BEST used to aggregate data from multiple systems to identify abnormal behavior?

A.

Cyber threat intelligence

B.

Anti-malware software

C.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

D.

SIEM systems

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Question # 440

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?

A.

Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan

B.

Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls

C.

Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level

D.

Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk

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Question # 441

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program for all employees of the organization?

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Communication plan

C.

Critical asset inventory

D.

Separation of duties

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Question # 442

The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact

B.

the magnitude of an impact

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat

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Question # 443

Which of the following management action will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

A.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

B.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

C.

Implementing multi-factor authentication

D.

Updating remote desktop software

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Question # 444

Senior management has asked a risk practitioner to develop technical risk scenarios related to a recently developed enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. These scenarios will be owned by the system manager. Which of the following would be the BEST method to use when developing the scenarios?

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Delphi technique

C.

Bottom-up approach

D.

Top-down approach

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Question # 445

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for communicating current levels of IT-related risk to executive management?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk action plans

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Question # 446

Which of the following BEST indicates the condition of a risk management program?

A.

Number of risk register entries

B.

Number of controls

C.

Level of financial support

D.

Amount of residual risk

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Question # 447

The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is

A.

maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets

B.

determine their sensitivity and critical

C.

establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

categorize data into groups

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Question # 448

Which of the following observations from a third-party service provider review would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

Service level agreements (SLAs) have not been met over the last quarter.

B.

The service contract is up for renewal in less than thirty days.

C.

Key third-party personnel have recently been replaced.

D.

Monthly service charges are significantly higher than industry norms.

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Question # 449

A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:

A.

map findings to objectives.

B.

provide quantified detailed analysis

C.

recommend risk tolerance thresholds.

D.

quantify key risk indicators (KRls).

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Question # 450

Which of the following controls BEST helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination?

A.

Securing the network from attacks

B.

Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender

C.

Digitally signing individual messages

D.

Encrypting data-in-transit

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Question # 451

Which of the following can be used to assign a monetary value to risk?

A.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Business impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Inherent vulnerabilities

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Question # 452

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?

A.

The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions

B.

The number of servers with local credentials to install patches

C.

The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements

D.

The number of servers running the software patching service

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Question # 453

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an organization to regularly assess the design of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Increasing process failures could impact a key objective.

B.

Tolerance levels change as strategies evolve.

C.

System enhancements could bypass the change control process.

D.

Data required for risk reporting changes with industry trends.

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Question # 454

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

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Question # 455

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern when changes to firewall rules do not follow change management requirements?

A.

Potential audit findings

B.

Insufficient risk governance

C.

Potential business impact

D.

Inaccurate documentation

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Question # 456

A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Recommend avoiding the risk.

B.

Validate the risk response with internal audit.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Evaluate outsourcing the process.

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Question # 457

When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Assess management's risk tolerance.

B.

Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.

C.

Propose mitigating controls

D.

Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control

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Question # 458

In an organization with a mature risk management program, which of the following would provide the BEST evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date?

A.

Risk questionnaire

B.

Risk register

C.

Management assertion

D.

Compliance manual

Full Access
Question # 459

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

Full Access
Question # 460

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Implementing a data toss prevention (DLP) solution

B.

Assigning a data owner

C.

Scheduling periodic audits

D.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

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Question # 461

Which of the following is the MOST important factor when deciding on a control to mitigate risk exposure?

A.

Relevance to the business process

B.

Regulatory compliance requirements

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Comparison against best practice

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Question # 462

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to aggregate risk assessment results from different business units?

A.

To improve communication of risk to senior management

B.

To compare risk profiles across the business units

C.

To allocate budget for risk management resources

D.

To determine overall impact to the organization

Full Access
Question # 463

Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?

A.

Countermeasures analysis

B.

Best practice assessment

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 464

Mapping open risk issues to an enterprise risk heat map BEST facilitates:

A.

risk response.

B.

control monitoring.

C.

risk identification.

D.

risk ownership.

Full Access
Question # 465

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when ensuring that mitigated risk remains within acceptable limits?

A.

Building an organizational risk profile after updating the risk register

B.

Ensuring risk owners participate in a periodic control testing process

C.

Designing a process for risk owners to periodically review identified risk

D.

Implementing a process for ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness

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Question # 466

A risk practitioner learns of an urgent threat intelligence alert to patch a critical vulnerability identified in the organization's operating system. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Patch the operating system immediately

B.

Determine whether any active attacks are exploiting the vulnerability

C.

Invoke the organization's incident response plan

D.

Evaluate the threat in the context of the organization's IT environment

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Question # 467

Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 468

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

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Question # 469

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the first line of defense with respect to information security policies?

A.

Draft the information security policy.

B.

Approve the information security policy.

C.

Audit the implementation of the information security policy.

D.

Implement controls in response to the policy requirements.

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Question # 470

The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of:

A.

network operations.

B.

the cybersecurity function.

C.

application development.

D.

the business function.

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Question # 471

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

The KRIs' source data lacks integrity.

B.

The KRIs are not automated.

C.

The KRIs are not quantitative.

D.

The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis.

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Question # 472

An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

A.

Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.

B.

Resources may be inefficiently allocated.

C.

The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.

D.

Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

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Question # 473

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

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Question # 474

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk of relying on artificial intelligence (Al) within heuristic security systems?

A.

Al may result in less reliance on human intervention.

B.

Malicious activity may inadvertently be classified as normal during baselining.

C.

Risk assessments of heuristic security systems are more difficult.

D.

Predefined patterns of malicious activity may quickly become outdated.

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Question # 475

Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?

A.

Regional competitors' policies and standards

B.

Ability to monitor and enforce compliance

C.

Industry-standard templates

D.

Differences in regulatory requirements

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Question # 476

The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:

A.

risk assessment methodology.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

capabilities

D.

asset value.

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Question # 477

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness?

A.

Establishing policies and procedures

B.

Periodically reviewing control design

C.

Measuring trends in control performance

D.

Obtaining management control attestations

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Question # 478

The implementation of a risk treatment plan will exceed the resources originally allocated for the risk response. Which of the following should be the risk owner's NEXT action?

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Accept the risk of not implementing.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Update the implementation plan.

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Question # 479

A deficient control has been identified which could result in great harm to an organization should a low frequency threat event occur. When communicating the associated risk to senior management the risk practitioner should explain:

A.

mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period.

B.

this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios.

C.

the current level of risk is within tolerance.

D.

an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated.

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Question # 480

Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?

A.

Expected frequency and potential impact

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 481

A risk practitioner implemented a process to notify management of emergency changes that may not be approved. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide this information to management?

A.

Change logs

B.

Change management meeting minutes

C.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 482

Which of the following should be done FIRST upon learning that the organization will be affected by a new regulation in its industry?

A.

Transfer the risk.

B.

Perform a gap analysis.

C.

Determine risk appetite for the new regulation.

D.

Implement specific monitoring controls.

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Question # 483

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure new IT policies address the enterprise's requirements?

A.

involve IT leadership in the policy development process

B.

Require business users to sign acknowledgment of the poises

C.

involve business owners in the pokey development process

D.

Provide policy owners with greater enforcement authority

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Question # 484

An organization's decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:

A.

The region in which the organization operates.

B.

Established business culture.

C.

Risk appetite set by senior management.

D.

Identified business process controls.

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Question # 485

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?

A.

Seek approval from the control owner.

B.

Update the action plan in the risk register.

C.

Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.

D.

Validate that the control has an established testing method.

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Question # 486

An organization’s board of directors is concerned about recent data breaches in the news and wants to assess its exposure to similar scenarios. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Evaluate the organization's existing data protection controls.

B.

Reassess the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the business.

C.

Evaluate the sensitivity of data that the business needs to handle.

D.

Review the organization’s data retention policy and regulatory requirements.

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Question # 487

An external security audit has reported multiple findings related to control noncompliance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management?

A.

A recommendation for internal audit validation

B.

Plans for mitigating the associated risk

C.

Suggestions for improving risk awareness training

D.

The impact to the organization’s risk profile

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Question # 488

Which of the following is necessary to enable an IT risk register to be consolidated with the rest of the organization’s risk register?

A.

Risk taxonomy

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk ranking

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Question # 489

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use key control indicators (KCIs) to evaluate control operating effectiveness?

A.

To measure business exposure to risk

B.

To identify control vulnerabilities

C.

To monitor the achievement of set objectives

D.

To raise awareness of operational issues

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Question # 490

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

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Question # 491

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of risk management?

A.

Identify and analyze risk.

B.

Achieve business objectives

C.

Minimi2e business disruptions.

D.

Identify threats and vulnerabilities.

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Question # 492

Following the implementation of an Internet of Things (loT) solution, a risk practitioner identifies new risk factors with impact to existing controls. Which of the following is MOST important to include in a report to stakeholders?

A.

Identified vulnerabilities

B.

Business managers' concerns

C.

Changes to residual risk

D.

Risk strategies of peer organizations

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Question # 493

A chief information officer (CIO) has identified risk associated with shadow systems being maintained by business units to address specific functionality gaps in the organization'senterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the BEST way to reduce this risk going forward?

A.

Align applications to business processes.

B.

Implement an enterprise architecture (EA).

C.

Define the software development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

Define enterprise-wide system procurement requirements.

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Question # 494

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

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Question # 495

To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?

A.

Compliance objectives

B.

Risk appetite of the organization

C.

Organizational objectives

D.

Inherent and residual risk

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Question # 496

When evaluating enterprise IT risk management it is MOST important to:

A.

create new control processes to reduce identified IT risk scenarios

B.

confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance

C.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management

D.

review alignment with the organization's investment plan

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Question # 497

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?

A.

Reducing the need for audit reviews

B.

Facilitating continuous control monitoring

C.

Improving control process efficiency

D.

Complying with functional requirements

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Question # 498

The PRIMARY benefit of selecting an appropriate set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

A.

serve as a basis for measuring risk appetite.

B.

align with the organization's risk profile.

C.

provide a warning of emerging high-risk conditions.

D.

provide data for updating the risk register.

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Question # 499

Which of the following represents a vulnerability?

A.

An identity thief seeking to acquire personal financial data from an organization

B.

Media recognition of an organization's market leadership in its industry

C.

A standard procedure for applying software patches two weeks after release

D.

An employee recently fired for insubordination

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Question # 500

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach is the ability to:

A.

identify specific project risk.

B.

obtain a holistic view of IT strategy risk.

C.

understand risk associated with complex processes.

D.

incorporate subject matter expertise.

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Question # 501

Which of the following BEST prevents control gaps in the Zero Trust model when implementing in the environment?

A.

Relying on multiple solutions for Zero Trust

B.

Utilizing rapid development during implementation

C.

Establishing a robust technical architecture

D.

Starting with a large initial scope

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Question # 502

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?

A.

An annual contract review

B.

A service level agreement (SLA)

C.

A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework

D.

A requirement to provide an independent audit report

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Question # 503

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

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Question # 504

Business areas within an organization have engaged various cloud service providers directly without assistance from the IT department. What should the risk practitioner do?

A.

Recommend the IT department remove access to the cloud services.

B.

Engage with the business area managers to review controls applied.

C.

Escalate to the risk committee.

D.

Recommend a risk assessment be conducted.

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Question # 505

In which of the following system development life cycle (SDLC) phases should controls be incorporated into system specifications?

A.

Implementation

B.

Development

C.

Design

D.

Feasibility

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Question # 506

When developing IT risk scenarios, it is MOST important to consider:

A.

The industry's threat profile.

B.

Incidents occurring at similar organizations.

C.

System performance thresholds.

D.

Organizational objectives.

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Question # 507

A risk practitioner finds that data has been misclassified. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

A.

Unauthorized access

B.

Data corruption

C.

Inadequate retention schedules

D.

Data disruption

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Question # 508

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement?

A.

Application monitoring

B.

Separation of duty

C.

Least privilege

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Question # 509

Which of the following statements BEST illustrates the relationship between key performance indicators (KPIs) and key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

KPIs measure manual controls, while KCIs measure automated controls.

B.

KPIs and KCIs both contribute to understanding of control effectiveness.

C.

A robust KCI program will replace the need to measure KPIs.

D.

KCIs are applied at the operational level while KPIs are at the strategic level.

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Question # 510

Winch of the following can be concluded by analyzing the latest vulnerability report for the it infrastructure?

A.

Likelihood of a threat

B.

Impact of technology risk

C.

Impact of operational risk

D.

Control weakness

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Question # 511

From a governance perspective, which of the following is MOST important to ensure when risk management policies are being updated to facilitate the pursuit of new opportunities?

A.

Updates align with strategic business objectives.

B.

Updates will be approved by the risk owners.

C.

Updates align with industry standards and benchmarks.

D.

Updates will be reviewed periodically to ensure compliance.

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Question # 512

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when vulnerability assessment results identify a weakness in an application?

A.

Review regular control testing results.

B.

Recommend a penetration test.

C.

Assess the risk to determine mitigation needed.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 513

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 514

A failed IT system upgrade project has resulted in the corruption of an organization's asset inventory database. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates the impact of this incident?

A.

Encryption

B.

Authentication

C.

Configuration

D.

Backups

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Question # 515

Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Compliance manager

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Question # 516

A global organization is considering the acquisition of a competitor. Senior management has requested a review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization. Which of the following components of this review would provide the MOST useful information?

A.

Risk appetite statement

B.

Enterprise risk management framework

C.

Risk management policies

D.

Risk register

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Question # 517

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

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Question # 518

The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:

A.

reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.

B.

identify compensating controls.

C.

minimize residual risk.

D.

reduce risk factors.

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Question # 519

The MOST significant benefit of using a consistent risk ranking methodology across an organization is that it enables:

A.

allocation of available resources

B.

clear understanding of risk levels

C.

assignment of risk to the appropriate owners

D.

risk to be expressed in quantifiable terms

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Question # 520

Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for providing assurance to the board of directors and senior management during the evaluation of a risk management program implementation?

A.

Risk management

B.

Business units

C.

External audit

D.

Internal audit

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Question # 521

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?

A.

Conducting security awareness training

B.

Updating the information security policy

C.

Implementing mock phishing exercises

D.

Requiring two-factor authentication

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Question # 522

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

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Question # 523

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile?

A.

Threat landscape

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk register

D.

Risk metrics

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Question # 524

During the initial risk identification process for a business application, it is MOST important to include which of the following stakeholders?

A.

Business process owners

B.

Business process consumers

C.

Application architecture team

D.

Internal audit

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Question # 525

How should an organization approach the retention of data that is no longer needed for business operations?

A.

Data should be retained for a reasonable period of time in case of system rollback.

B.

Data should be destroyed or retained on the basis of a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Data should be retained based on regulatory requirements.

D.

Data should be destroyed to avoid any risk exposure.

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Question # 526

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

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Question # 527

Which of the following groups represents the first line of defense?

A.

Internal audit

B.

Compliance committee

C.

External audit

D.

Operational managers

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Question # 528

The PRIMARY reason for periodically monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

A.

rectify errors in results of KRIs.

B.

detect changes in the risk profile.

C.

reduce costs of risk mitigation controls.

D.

continually improve risk assessments.

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Question # 529

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether risk management is aligned with its goals and objectives?

A.

The organization has approved policies that provide operational boundaries.

B.

Organizational controls are in place to effectively manage risk appetite.

C.

Environmental changes that impact risk are continually evaluated.

D.

The organization has an approved enterprise architecture (EA) program.

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Question # 530

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?

A.

Communicate potential impact to decision makers.

B.

Research the root cause of similar incidents.

C.

Verify the response plan is adequate.

D.

Increase human resources to respond in the interim.

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Question # 531

Which of the following criteria is MOST important when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data?

A.

The recovery time objective (RTO)

B.

The likelihood of a recurring attack

C.

The organization's risk tolerance

D.

The business significance of the information

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Question # 532

Which of the following is a KEY outcome of risk ownership?

A.

Risk responsibilities are addressed.

B.

Risk-related information is communicated.

C.

Risk-oriented tasks are defined.

D.

Business process risk is analyzed.

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Question # 533

A multinational company needs to implement a new centralized security system. The risk practitioner has identified a conflict between the organization's data-handling policy and local privacy regulations. Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation?

A.

Request a policy exception from senior management.

B.

Comply with the organizational policy.

C.

Report the noncompliance to the local regulatory agency.

D.

Request an exception from the local regulatory agency.

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Question # 534

An organization learns of a new ransomware attack affecting organizations worldwide. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the likelihood of infection from the attack?

A.

Identify systems that are vulnerable to being exploited by the attack.

B.

Confirm with the antivirus solution vendor whether the next update will detect the attack.

C.

Verify the data backup process and confirm which backups are the most recent ones available.

D.

Obtain approval for funding to purchase a cyber insurance plan.

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Question # 535

Which of the following is the BEST way to address IT regulatory compliance risk?

A.

Assign highest priority to remediation of related risk scenarios.

B.

Prevent acceptance of related risk scenarios.

C.

Conduct specialized business impact analyses (BIAs).

D.

Manage risk like other types of operational risk.

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Question # 536

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?

A.

Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.

B.

New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.

C.

The risk environment is subject to change.

D.

The information security budget must be justified.

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Question # 537

Which of the following is a detective control?

A.

Limit check

B.

Periodic access review

C.

Access control software

D.

Rerun procedures

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Question # 538

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

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Question # 539

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

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Question # 540
A.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

B.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

C.

Regular employee security awareness training

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Question # 541

An organization is concerned that its employees may be unintentionally disclosing data through the use of social media sites. Which of the following will MOST effectively mitigate tins risk?

A.

Requiring the use of virtual private networks (VPNs)

B.

Establishing a data classification policy

C.

Conducting user awareness training

D.

Requiring employee agreement of the acceptable use policy

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Question # 542

Which of the following BEST enables the identification of trends in risk levels?

A.

Correlation between risk levels and key risk indicators (KRIs) is positive.

B.

Measurements for key risk indicators (KRIs) are repeatable

C.

Quantitative measurements are used for key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Qualitative definitions for key risk indicators (KRIs) are used.

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Question # 543

A maturity model is MOST useful to an organization when it:

A.

benchmarks against other organizations

B.

defines a qualitative measure of risk

C.

provides a reference for progress

D.

provides risk metrics.

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