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CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK v5.0) Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

A.

Component credentials

B.

Immutable infrastructure

C.

Infrastructure as code

D.

Application integration

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Question # 5

Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?

A.

Firewalls

B.

Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

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Question # 6

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

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Question # 7

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

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Question # 8

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

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Question # 9

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

A.

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.

Increases manual control over security settings

D.

Increases scalability of cloud resources

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Question # 10

All assets require the same continuity in the cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 11

Which opportunity helps reduce common application security issues?

A.

Elastic infrastructure

B.

Default deny

C.

Decreased use of micro-services

D.

Segregation by default

E.

Fewer serverless configurations

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Question # 12

Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider?

A.

Application logic

B.

Access controls

C.

Encryption solutions

D.

Physical destruction

E.

Asset management and tracking

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Question # 13

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 14

If there are gaps in network logging data, what can you do?

A.

Nothing. There are simply limitations around the data that can be logged in the cloud.

B.

Ask the cloud provider to open more ports.

C.

You can instrument the technology stack with your own logging.

D.

Ask the cloud provider to close more ports.

E.

Nothing. The cloud provider must make the information available.

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Question # 15

Your SLA with your cloud provider ensures continuity for all services.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 16

What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

A.

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

B.

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

C.

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

D.

To ensure high availability and load balancing

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Question # 17

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

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Question # 18

ENISA: Which is not one of the five key legal issues common across all scenarios:

A.

Data protection

B.

Professional negligence

C.

Globalization

D.

Intellectual property

E.

Outsourcing services and changes in control

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Question # 19

Why is a service type of network typically isolated on different hardware?

A.

It requires distinct access controls

B.

It manages resource pools for cloud consumers

C.

It has distinct functions from other networks

D.

It manages the traffic between other networks

E.

It requires unique security

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Question # 20

What does it mean if the system or environment is built automatically from a template?

A.

Nothing.

B.

It depends on how the automation is configured.

C.

Changes made in production are overwritten by the next code or template change.

D.

Changes made in test are overwritten by the next code or template change.

E.

Changes made in production are untouched by the next code or template change.

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Question # 21

A cloud deployment of two or more unique clouds is known as:

A.

Infrastructures as a Service

B.

A Private Cloud

C.

A Community Cloud

D.

A Hybrid Cloud

E.

Jericho Cloud Cube Model

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Question # 22

How can key management be leveraged to prevent cloud providers from inappropriately accessing customer data?

A.

Use strong multi-factor authentication

B.

Secure backup processes for key management systems

C.

Segregate keys from the provider hosting data

D.

Stipulate encryption in contract language

E.

Select cloud providers within the same country as customer

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Question # 23

What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?

A.

Discovery

B.

Custody

C.

Subpoena

D.

Risk Assessment

E.

Scope

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Question # 24

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

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Question # 25

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

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Question # 26

CCM: A hypothetical company called: “Health4Sure” is located in the United States and provides cloud based services for tracking patient health. The company is compliant with HIPAA/HITECH Act among other industry standards. Health4Sure decides to assess the overall security of their cloud service against the CCM toolkit so that they will be able to present this document to potential clients.

Which of the following approach would be most suitable to assess the overall security posture of Health4Sure’s cloud service?

A.

The CCM columns are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered ad a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls. This approach will save time.

B.

The CCM domain controls are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered as a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls thoroughly. This approach saves time while being able to assess the company’s overall security posture in an efficient manner.

C.

The CCM domains are not mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act. Therefore Health4Sure should assess the security posture of their cloud service against each and every control in the CCM. This approach will allow a thorough assessment of the security posture.

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Question # 27

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

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Question # 28

What is a key consideration when implementing AI workloads to ensure they adhere to security best practices?

A.

AI workloads do not require special security considerations compared to other workloads.

B.

AI workloads should be openly accessible to foster collaboration and innovation.

C.

AI workloads should be isolated in secure environments with strict access controls.

D.

Security practices for AI workloads should focus solely on protecting the AI models.

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Question # 29

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

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Question # 30

CCM: In the CCM tool, “Encryption and Key Management” is an example of which of the following?

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

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Question # 31

What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?

A.

Administrative access

B.

Management plane

C.

Identity and Access Management

D.

Single sign-on

E.

Cloud dashboard

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Question # 32

Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications?

A.

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)

B.

Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS)

C.

Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)

D.

Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS)

E.

Software-as-a-service (SaaS)

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Question # 33

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) might be limited or require pre-testing permission from the provider.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 34

The containment phase of the incident response lifecycle requires taking systems offline.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 35

Cloud services exhibit five essential characteristics that demonstrate their relation to, and differences from, traditional computing approaches. Which one of the five characteristics is described as: a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities such as server time and network storage as needed.

A.

Rapid elasticity

B.

Resource pooling

C.

Broad network access

D.

Measured service

E.

On-demand self-service

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Question # 36

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system?

A.

Platform-based Workload

B.

Pod

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Virtual machine

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Question # 37

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

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Question # 38

CCM: The Cloud Service Delivery Model Applicability column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

A.

Mappings to well-known standards and frameworks

B.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

C.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

D.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

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Question # 39

What's the best way for organizations to establish a foundation for safeguarding data, upholding privacy, and meeting regulatory requirements in cloud applications?

A.

By implementing end-to-end encryption and multi-factor authentication

B.

By conducting regular security audits and updates

C.

By deploying intrusion detection systems and monitoring

D.

By integrating security at the architectural and design level

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Question # 40

Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 41

Which AI workload mitigation strategy best addresses model inversion attacks that threaten data confidentiality?

A.

Secure multi-party computation

B.

Differential privacy

C.

Encryption

D.

Model hardening

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Question # 42

What primary aspects should effective cloud governance address to ensure security and compliance?

A.

Service availability, disaster recovery, load balancing, and latency

B.

Decision making, prioritization, monitoring, and transparency

C.

Encryption, redundancy, data integrity, and scalability

D.

Authentication, authorization, accounting, and auditing

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Question # 43

What is one primary operational challenge associated with using cloud-agnostic container strategies?

A.

Limiting deployment to a single cloud service

B.

Establishing identity and access management protocols

C.

Reducing the amount of cloud storage used

D.

Management plane compatibility and consistent controls

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Question # 44

What type of logs record interactions with specific services in a system?

A.

(Service and Application Logs

B.

Security Logs

C.

Network Logs

D.

Debug Logs

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Question # 45

What is a key characteristic of serverless functions in terms of execution environment?

A.

They need continuous monitoring by the user

B.

They run on dedicated long-running instances

C.

They require pre-allocated server space

D.

They are executed in isolated, ephemeral environments

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Question # 46

What does orchestration automate within a cloud environment?

A.

Monitoring application performance

B.

Manual configuration of security policies

C.

Installation of operating systems

D.

Provisioning of VMs, networking and other resources

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Question # 47

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

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Question # 48

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

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Question # 49

Which of the following best describes a benefit of using VPNs for cloud connectivity?

A.

VPNs are more cost-effective than any other connectivity option.

B.

VPNs provide secure, encrypted connections between data centers and cloud deployments.

C.

VPNs eliminate the need for third-party authentication services.

D.

VPNs provide higher bandwidth than direct connections.

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Question # 50

Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

A.

Use of encryption for all data at rest

B.

Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C.

Regular software updates and patch management

D.

Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

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Question # 51

Why is it important to capture and centralize workload logs promptly in a cybersecurity environment?

A.

To simplify application debugging processes

B Primarily to reduce data storage costs

B.

Logs may be lost during a scaling event

C.

To comply with data privacy regulations

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Question # 52

Which tool is most effective for ensuring compliance and identifying misconfigurations in cloud management planes?

A.

Data Security Posture Management (DSPM)

B.

SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)

C.

Cloud Detection and Response (CDR)

D.

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

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Question # 53

What key activities are part of the preparation phase in incident response planning?

A.

Implementing encryption and access controls

B.

Establishing a response process, training, communication plans, and infrastructure evaluations

C.

Creating incident reports and post-incident reviews

D.

Developing malware analysis procedures and penetration testing

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Question # 54

Why is identity management at the organization level considered a key aspect in cybersecurity?

A.

It replaces the need to enforce the principles of the need to know

B.

It ensures only authorized users have access to resources

C.

It automates and streamlines security processes in the organization

D.

It reduces the need for regular security training and auditing, and frees up cybersecurity budget

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Question # 55

Which of the following best describes a primary focus of cloud governance with an emphasis on security?

A.

Enhancing user experience with intuitive interfaces.

B.

Maximizing cost savings through resource optimization.

C.

Increasing scalability and flexibility of cloud solutions.

D.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements and internal policies.

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Question # 56

In the context of cloud workload security, which feature directly contributes to enhanced performance and resource utilization without incurring excess costs?

A.

Fixed resource allocations

B.

Unlimited data storage capacity

C.

Increased on-premise hardware

D.

Elasticity of cloud resources

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Question # 57

Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?

A.

Implementation guidance

B.

Control objectives

C.

Policies

D.

Control specifications

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Question # 58

Which of the following is a primary purpose of establishing cloud risk registries?

A.

In order to establish cloud service level agreements

B.

To monitor real-lime cloud performance

C.

To manage and update cloud account credentials

D.

Identify and manage risks associated with cloud services

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Question # 59

Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) principle focuses on implementing multiple security layers to dilute access power, thereby averting a misuse or compromise?

A.

Continuous Monitoring

B.

Federation

C.

Segregation of Duties

D.

Principle of Least Privilege

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Question # 60

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

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Question # 61

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

A.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

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Question # 62

What is the primary purpose of Cloud Infrastructure Entitlement Management (CIEM) in cloud environments?

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Deploying cloud services

C.

Governing access to cloud resources

D.

Managing software licensing

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Question # 63

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

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Question # 64

What Identity and Access Management (IAM) process decides to permit or deny a subject access to system objects like networks, data, or applications?

A.

Authorization

B.

Federation

C.

Authentication

D.

Provisioning

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Question # 65

In a cloud environment spanning multiple jurisdictions, what is the most important factor to consider for compliance?

A.

Relying on the cloud service provider's compliance certifications for all jurisdictions

B.

Focusing on the compliance requirements defined by the laws, regulations, and standards enforced in the jurisdiction where the company is based

C.

Relying only on established industry standards since they adequately address all compliance needs

D.

Understanding the legal and regulatory requirements of each jurisdiction where data originates, is stored, or processed

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Question # 66

In the initial stage of implementing centralized identity management, what is the primary focus of cybersecurity measures?

A.

Developing incident response plans

B.

Integrating identity management and securing devices

C.

Implementing advanced threat detection systems

D.

Deploying network segmentation

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Question # 67

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

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Question # 68

Which of the following enhances Platform as a Service (PaaS) security by regulating traffic into PaaS components?

A.

Intrusion Detection Systems

B.

Hardware Security Modules

C.

Network Access Control Lists

D.

API Gateways

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Question # 69

What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

A.

Customers can bypass the need for encryption

B.

Customers retain control over their encryption keys

C.

Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

D.

It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider

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Question # 70

What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

A.

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

B.

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

C.

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

D.

To manage data residency and localization requirements

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Question # 71

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

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Question # 72

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

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Question # 73

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

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Question # 74

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

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Question # 75

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

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Question # 76

What's the difference between DNS Logs and Flow Logs?

A.

They represent the logging of different networking solutions, and DNS Logs are more suitable for a ZTA implementation

B.

DNS Logs record domain name resolution requests and responses, while Flow Logs record info on source, destination, protocol

C.

They play identical functions and can be used interchangeably

D.

DNS Logs record all the information about the network behavior, including source, destination, and protocol, while Flow Logs record users' applications behavior

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Question # 77

What is the primary purpose of secrets management in cloud environments?

A.

Optimizing cloud infrastructure performance

B.

Managing user authentication for human access

C.

Securely handling stored authentication credentials

D.

Monitoring network traffic for security threats

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Question # 78

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

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Question # 79

How does network segmentation primarily contribute to limiting the impact of a security breach?

A.

By reducing the threat of breaches and vulnerabilities

B.

Confining breaches to a smaller portion of the network

C.

Allowing faster data recovery and response

D.

Monitoring and detecting unauthorized access attempts

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Question # 80

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

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Question # 81

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

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Question # 82

Which cloud service model allows users to access applications hosted and managed by the provider, with the user only needing to configure the application?

A.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

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Question # 83

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

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Question # 84

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

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Question # 85

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

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Question # 86

How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

A.

It consolidates logs into a single location.

B.

It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.

C.

It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.

D.

It automatically resolves all detected security threats.

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