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CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which cloud deployment model involves a cloud and a datacenter, bound together by technology to enable data and application portability?

A.

Hybrid cloud

B.

Public cloud

C.

Multi-cloud

D.

Private cloud

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Question # 5

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) might be limited or require pre-testing permission from the provider.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 6

In the context of cloud workload security, which feature directly contributes to enhanced performance and resource utilization without incurring excess costs?

A.

Fixed resource allocations

B.

Unlimited data storage capacity

C.

Increased on-premise hardware

D.

Elasticity of cloud resources

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Question # 7

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

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Question # 8

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

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Question # 9

If in certain litigations and investigations, the actual cloud application or environment itself is relevant to resolving the dispute in the litigation or investigation, how is the information likely to be obtained?

A.

It may require a subpoena of the provider directly

B.

It would require a previous access agreement

C.

It would require an act of war

D.

It would require a previous contractual agreement to obtain the application or access to the environment

E.

It would never be obtained in this situation

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Question # 10

When implementing a Zero Trust (ZT) strategy, which approach is considered fundamental for ensuring enterprise security and connectivity?

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to resources within local networks but restricting cloud access

B.

Implementing perimeter-based security as the primary defense mechanism

C.

Enforcing strict access control and verification for all users and devices

D.

Only allowing trusted devices to connect to local/office networks

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Question # 11

If the management plane has been breached, you should confirm the templates/configurations for your infrastructure or applications have not also been compromised.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 12

What technology is commonly used to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user's device and a private network over the public Internet?

A.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

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Question # 13

Select the best definition of “compliance” from the options below.

A.

The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.

B.

The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.

C.

The timely and efficient filing of security reports.

D.

The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.

E.

The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.

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Question # 14

How can the use of third-party libraries introduce supply chain risks in software development?

A.

They are usually open source and do not require vetting

B.

They might contain vulnerabilities that can be exploited

C.

They fail to integrate properly with existing continuous integration pipelines

D.

They might increase the overall complexity of the codebase

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Question # 15

Vulnerability assessments cannot be easily integrated into CI/CD pipelines because of provider restrictions.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 16

A company plans to shift its data processing tasks to the cloud. Which type of cloud workload best describes the use of software emulations of physical computers?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Serverless Functions (FaaS)

C.

Containers

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

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Question # 17

What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

A.

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

B.

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

C.

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

D.

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

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Question # 18

What is a common characteristic of Platform as a Service (PaaS)?

A.

Satisfies compliance and security requirements

B.

Integration with application development frameworks and middleware capabilities

C.

Limited configuration options increases security risks

D.

Fully hosted application stack

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Question # 19

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

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Question # 20

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

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Question # 21

Your SLA with your cloud provider ensures continuity for all services.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 22

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

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Question # 23

A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 24

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

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Question # 25

What is a primary benefit of implementing Zero Trust (ZT) architecture in cloud environments?

A.

Reduced attack surface and simplified user experience.

B.

Eliminating the need for multi-factor authentication.

C.

Increased attack surface and complexity.

D.

Enhanced privileged access for all users.

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Question # 26

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cloud-native security breaches?

A.

Inability to monitor cloud infrastructure for threats

B.

IAM failures

C.

Lack of encryption for data at rest

D.

Vulnerabilities in cloud provider's physical infrastructure

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Question # 27

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

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Question # 28

An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to

A.

Obtain provider permission for test

B.

Use techniques to evade cloud provider’s detection systems

C.

Use application layer testing tools exclusively

D.

Use network layer testing tools exclusively

E.

Schedule vulnerability test at night

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Question # 29

What is the newer application development methodology and philosophy focused on automation of application development and deployment?

A.

Agile

B.

BusOps

C.

DevOps

D.

SecDevOps

E.

Scrum

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Question # 30

Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

A.

Spam filtering

B.

Authentication

C.

Provisioning

D.

Web filtering

E.

Intrusion detection

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Question # 31

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Datastructure

C.

Infostructure

D.

Applistructure

E.

Metastructure

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Question # 32

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

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Question # 33

How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help?

A.

It reduces hardware costs

B.

It provides dynamic and granular policies with less management overhead

C.

It locks down access and provides stronger data security

D.

It reduces the blast radius of a compromised system

E.

It enables you to configure applications around business groups

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Question # 34

All assets require the same continuity in the cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 35

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

A.

Management plane

B.

Virtualization layers

C.

Physical components

D.

PaaS/SaaS services

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Question # 36

What is the primary function of Privileged Identity Management (PIM) and Privileged Access Management (PAM)?

A.

Encrypt data transmitted over the network

B.

Manage the risk of elevated permissions

C.

Monitor network traffic and detect intrusions

D.

Ensure system uptime and reliability

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Question # 37

What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?

A.

Discovery

B.

Custody

C.

Subpoena

D.

Risk Assessment

E.

Scope

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Question # 38

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

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Question # 39

What is the primary purpose of Cloud Infrastructure Entitlement Management (CIEM) in cloud environments?

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Deploying cloud services

C.

Governing access to cloud resources

D.

Managing software licensing

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Question # 40

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

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Question # 41

In securing virtual machines (VMs), what is the primary role of using an “image factory" in VM deployment?

A.

To encrypt data within VMs for secure storage

B.

To facilitate direct manual intervention in VM deployments

C.

To enable rapid scaling of virtual machines on demand

D.

To ensure consistency, security, and efficiency in VM image creation

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Question # 42

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

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Question # 43

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

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Question # 44

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?

A.

Data Security and Encryption

B.

Information Governance

C.

Incident Response, Notification and Remediation

D.

Compliance and Audit Management

E.

Infrastructure Security

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Question # 45

Which of the following is a common security issue associated with serverless computing environments?

A.

High operational costs

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

Limited scalability

D.

Complex deployment pipelines

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Question # 46

What is a primary benefit of using Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles/identities provided by cloud providers instead of static secrets?

A.

They lower storage costs

B.

They reduce the risk of credential leakage

C.

They facilitate data encryption

D.

They improve system performance

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Question # 47

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 48

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

A.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

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Question # 49

CCM: A hypothetical company called: “Health4Sure” is located in the United States and provides cloud based services for tracking patient health. The company is compliant with HIPAA/HITECH Act among other industry standards. Health4Sure decides to assess the overall security of their cloud service against the CCM toolkit so that they will be able to present this document to potential clients.

Which of the following approach would be most suitable to assess the overall security posture of Health4Sure’s cloud service?

A.

The CCM columns are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered ad a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls. This approach will save time.

B.

The CCM domain controls are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered as a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls thoroughly. This approach saves time while being able to assess the company’s overall security posture in an efficient manner.

C.

The CCM domains are not mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act. Therefore Health4Sure should assess the security posture of their cloud service against each and every control in the CCM. This approach will allow a thorough assessment of the security posture.

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Question # 50

Which strategic approach is most appropriate for managing a multi-cloud environment that includes multiple IaaS and PaaS providers?

A.

Allow each department to manage their own cloud services independently.

B.

Use a single security tool for all providers.

C.

Rely on each provider's native security features with limited additional oversight.

D.

Implement strict governance and monitoring procedures across all platforms.

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Question # 51

Which strategy is critical for securing containers at the image creation stage?

A.

Implementing network segmentation

B.

Using secure, approved base images

C.

Regularly updating repository software

D.

Enforcing runtime protection measures

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Question # 52

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

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Question # 53

An organization deploys an AI application for fraud detection. Which threat is MOST likely to affect its AI model’s accuracy?

A.

Adversarial attacks

B.

DDoS attacks

C.

Third-party services

D.

Jailbreak attack

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Question # 54

What does orchestration automate within a cloud environment?

A.

Monitoring application performance

B.

Manual configuration of security policies

C.

Installation of operating systems

D.

Provisioning of VMs, networking and other resources

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Question # 55

What is a primary benefit of consolidating traffic through a central bastion/transit network in a hybrid cloud environment?

A.

It minimizes hybrid cloud sprawl and consolidates security.

B.

It reduces the need for physical network hardware.

C.

It increases network redundancy and fault tolerance.

D.

It decreases the latency of data transfers across the cloud network.

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Question # 56

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

A.

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.

None of the above.

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Question # 57

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in the management infrastructure?

A.

Building and properly configuring a secure network infrastructure

B.

Configuring second factor authentication across the network

C.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, especially the firewalls

D.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, except the firewalls

E.

Providing as many API endpoints as possible for custom access and configurations

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Question # 58

Which of the following best describes the multi-tenant nature of cloud computing?

A.

Cloud customers operate independently without sharing resources

B.

Cloud customers share a common pool of resources but are segregated and isolated from each other

C.

Multiple cloud customers are allocated a set of dedicated resources via a common web interface

D.

Cloud customers share resources without any segregation or isolation

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Question # 59

Which practice best helps mitigate security risks by minimizing root/core access and restricting deployment creation?

A.

Enforcing the principle of trust and eventually verily on demand'

B.

Disabling multi-factor authentication for staff and focusing on decision makers' accounts

C.

Deploying applications with full access and applying restrictions based on the need to object

D.

Enforcing the principle of least privilege

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Question # 60

What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure?

A.

You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis.

B.

You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls.

C.

You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility.

D.

You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary.

E.

You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.

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Question # 61

Which cloud service model allows users to access applications hosted and managed by the provider, with the user only needing to configure the application?

A.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

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Question # 62

What is a key characteristic of serverless functions in terms of execution environment?

A.

They need continuous monitoring by the user

B.

They run on dedicated long-running instances

C.

They require pre-allocated server space

D.

They are executed in isolated, ephemeral environments

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Question # 63

After an incident has been identified and classified, which activity is typically performed during the Containment, Eradication, and Recovery phase of incident response?

A.

Documenting lessons learned and finalizing reports

B.

Restoring systems to operational status while preventing recurrence

C.

Monitoring network traffic for anomalies

D.

Identifying and classifying security threats

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Question # 64

Which approach is essential in identifying compromised identities in cloud environments where attackers utilize automated methods?

A.

Focusing exclusively on signature-based detection for known malware

B.

Deploying behavioral detectors for IAM and management plane activities

C.

Implementing full packet capture and monitoring

D.

Relying on IP address and connection header monitoring

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Question # 65

Which practice minimizes human error in long-running cloud workloads’ security management?

A.

Increasing manual security audits frequency

B.

Converting all workloads to ephemeral

C.

Restricting access to workload configurations

D.

Implementing automated security and compliance checks

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Question # 66

What type of information is contained in the Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Control Matrix?

A.

Network traffic rules for cloud environments

B.

A number of requirements to be implemented, based upon numerous standards and regulatory requirements

C.

Federal legal business requirements for all cloud operators

D.

A list of cloud configurations including traffic logic and efficient routes

E.

The command and control management hierarchy of typical cloud company

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Question # 67

Which of the following best describes a risk associated with insecure interfaces and APIs?

A.

Ensuring secure data encryption at rest

B.

Man-in-the-middle attacks

C.

Increase resource consumption on servers

D.

Data exposure to unauthorized users

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Question # 68

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

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Question # 69

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

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Question # 70

What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?

A.

Limited deployment options

B.

Manual management of resources

C.

Automation of deployment and scaling

D.

Increased hardware dependency

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Question # 71

In which deployment model should the governance strategy consider the minimum common set of controls comprised of the Cloud Service Provider contract and the organization's internal governance agreements?

A.

Public

B.

PaaS

C.

Private

D.

IaaS

E.

Hybrid

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Question # 72

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

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Question # 73

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

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Question # 74

Which term describes the practice in cloud compliance where a customer acquires a set of pre-approved regulatory or standards-based controls from a compliant provider?

A.

Automated compliance

B.

Attestation inheritance

C.

Audit inheritance

D.

Compliance inheritance

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Question # 75

What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

A.

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

B.

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

C.

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

D.

To manage data residency and localization requirements

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Question # 76

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

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Question # 77

When comparing different Cloud Service Providers (CSPs), what should a cybersecurity professional be mindful of regarding their organizational structures?

A.

All CSPs use the same organizational structure and terminology

B.

Different CSPs may have similar structures but use varying terminology

C.

CSPs have vastly different organizational structures and identical terminology

D.

Terminology difference in CSPs does not affect cybersecurity practices.

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Question # 78

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 79

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

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Question # 80

What is a key advantage of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in application development?

A.

It removes the need for manual testing.

B.

It eliminates the need for cybersecurity measures.

C.

It enables version control and rapid deployment.

D.

It ensures zero configuration drift by default.

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Question # 81

What does it mean if the system or environment is built automatically from a template?

A.

Nothing.

B.

It depends on how the automation is configured.

C.

Changes made in production are overwritten by the next code or template change.

D.

Changes made in test are overwritten by the next code or template change.

E.

Changes made in production are untouched by the next code or template change.

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Question # 82

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

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Question # 83

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of image factories in the context of virtual machine (VM) management?

A.

Automating the VM image creation processes

B.

Managing network configurations for VMs

C.

Providing backup solutions for VM images

D.

Enhancing security of VM images

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Question # 84

In the context of cloud security, what is the primary benefit of implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) with attributes and user context for access decisions?

A.

Enhances security by supporting authorizations based on the current context and status

B.

Reduces log analysis requirements

C.

Simplifies regulatory compliance by using a single sign-on mechanism

D.

These are required for proper implementation of RBAC

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Question # 85

What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?

A.

Management plane

B.

Intrusion detection options

C.

Secondary authentication factors

D.

Network access points

E.

Mobile security configuration options

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Question # 86

What is the primary purpose of virtual machine (VM) image sources?

A.

To back up data within the VM

B.

To provide core components for VM images

C.

To optimize VM performance

D.

To secure the VM against unauthorized access

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Question # 87

In the context of server-side encryption handled by cloud providers, what is the key attribute of this encryption?

A.

The data is encrypted using symmetric encryption.

B.

The data is not encrypted in transit.

C.

The data is encrypted using customer or provider keys after transmission to the cloud.

D.

The data is encrypted before transmission to the cloud.

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Question # 88

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

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Question # 89

If there are gaps in network logging data, what can you do?

A.

Nothing. There are simply limitations around the data that can be logged in the cloud.

B.

Ask the cloud provider to open more ports.

C.

You can instrument the technology stack with your own logging.

D.

Ask the cloud provider to close more ports.

E.

Nothing. The cloud provider must make the information available.

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Question # 90

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 91

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

A.

Intrusion Prevention System

B.

URL filters

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.

Database Activity Monitoring

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Question # 92

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

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Question # 93

Which type of cloud workload would be most appropriate for running isolated applications with minimum resource overhead?

A.

Containers

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

AI Workloads

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

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Question # 94

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

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Question # 95

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

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Question # 96

Which factor is typically considered in data classification?

A.

CI/CD step

B.

Storage capacity requirements

C.

Sensitivity of data

D.

Data controller

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Question # 97

What is one of the primary advantages of including Static Application Security Testing (SAST) in Continuous Integration (CI) pipelines?

A.

Identifies code vulnerabilities early in the development

B.

Increases the speed of deployment to production

C.

Improves runtime performance of the application

D.

Enhances the user interface of the application

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