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CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) Question and Answers

Question # 4

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

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Question # 5

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in the management infrastructure?

A.

Building and properly configuring a secure network infrastructure

B.

Configuring second factor authentication across the network

C.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, especially the firewalls

D.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, except the firewalls

E.

Providing as many API endpoints as possible for custom access and configurations

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Question # 6

What is a core tenant of risk management?

A.

The provider is accountable for all risk management.

B.

You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.

C.

The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.

D.

If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are in

place, you must accept the risk.

E.

Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss of

customers.

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Question # 7

CCM: A hypothetical start-up company called "ABC" provides a cloud based IT management solution. They are growing rapidly and therefore need to put controls in place in order to manage any changes in

their production environment. Which of the following Change Control & Configuration Management production environment specific control should they implement in this scenario?

A.

Policies and procedures shall be established for managing the risks associated with applying changes to business-critical or customer (tenant)-impacting (physical and virtual) applications and system-

system interface (API) designs and configurations, infrastructure network and systems components.

B.

Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, to restrict the installation of unauthorized software on organizationally-owned or

managed user end-point devices (e.g. issued workstations, laptops, and mobile devices) and IT infrastructure network and systems components.

C.

All cloud-based services used by the company's mobile devices or BYOD shall be pre-approved for usage and the storage of company business data.

D.

None of the above

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Question # 8

In the context of cloud security, what is the primary benefit of implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) with attributes and user context for access decisions?

A.

Enhances security by supporting authorizations based on the current context and status

B.

Reduces log analysis requirements

C.

Simplifies regulatory compliance by using a single sign-on mechanism

D.

These are required for proper implementation of RBAC

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Question # 9

What is the primary purpose of Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems in a cloud environment?

A.

To encrypt data to ensure its confidentiality

B.

To govern identities' access to resources in the cloud

C.

To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity

D.

To provide a backup solution for cloud data

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Question # 10

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

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Question # 11

In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?

A.

The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.

B.

The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.

C.

The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.

D.

The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.

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Question # 12

Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

A.

Spam filtering

B.

Authentication

C.

Provisioning

D.

Web filtering

E.

Intrusion detection

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Question # 13

How can key management be leveraged to prevent cloud providers from inappropriately accessing customer data?

A.

Use strong multi-factor authentication

B.

Secure backup processes for key management systems

C.

Segregate keys from the provider hosting data

D.

Stipulate encryption in contract language

E.

Select cloud providers within the same country as customer

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Question # 14

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 15

A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 16

Which of the following is one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by NIST?

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Nation-state boundaries

C.

Measured service

D.

Unlimited bandwidth

E.

Hybrid clouds

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Question # 17

What is the newer application development methodology and philosophy focused on automation of application development and deployment?

A.

Agile

B.

BusOps

C.

DevOps

D.

SecDevOps

E.

Scrum

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Question # 18

CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud

assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 19

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

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Question # 20

What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

A.

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

B.

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

C.

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

D.

To manage data residency and localization requirements

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Question # 21

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

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Question # 22

What primary purpose does object storage encryption serve in cloud services?

A.

It compresses data to save space

B.

It speeds up data retrieval times

C.

It monitors unauthorized access attempts

D.

It secures data stored as objects

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Question # 23

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

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Question # 24

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualizations?

A.

Enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure

B.

Monitor and log workloads and configure the security settings

C.

Enforce isolation and configure the security settings

D.

Maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure and configure the security settings

E.

Enforce isolation and monitor and log workloads

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Question # 25

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Updated threat and trust models

C.

No modification is needed

D.

Just-in-time compilers

E.

Both B and C

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Question # 26

In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity

manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

A.

Only the cloud consumer

B.

Only the cloud provider

C.

Both the cloud provider and consumer

D.

It is determined in the agreement between the entities

E.

It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

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Question # 27

Which cloud storage technology is basically a virtual hard drive for instanced or VMs?

A.

Volume storage

B.

Platform

C.

Database

D.

Application

E.

Object storage

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Question # 28

When designing an encryption system, you should start with a threat model.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 29

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

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Question # 30

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

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Question # 31

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

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Question # 32

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

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Question # 33

What is a key consideration when handling cloud security incidents?

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Focusing on technical fixes

C.

Cloud service provider service level agreements

D.

Hiring additional staff

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Question # 34

Why is early integration of pre-deployment testing crucial in a cybersecurity project?

A.

It identifies issues before full deployment, saving time and resources.

B.

It increases the overall testing time and costs.

C.

It allows skipping final verification tests.

D.

It eliminates the need for continuous integration.

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Question # 35

Which best practice is recommended when securing object repositories in a cloud environment?

A.

Using access controls as the sole security measure

B.

Encrypting all objects in the repository

C.

Encrypting the access paths only

D.

Encrypting only sensitive objects

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Question # 36

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

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Question # 37

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cloud-native security breaches?

A.

Inability to monitor cloud infrastructure for threats

B.

IAM failures

C.

Lack of encryption for data at rest

D.

Vulnerabilities in cloud provider's physical infrastructure

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Question # 38

What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

A.

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

B.

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

C.

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

D.

To ensure high availability and load balancing

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Question # 39

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

A.

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

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Question # 40

What goal is most directly achieved by implementing controls and policies that aim to provide a complete view of data use and exposure in a cloud environment?

A.

Enhancing data governance and compliance

B.

Simplifying cloud service integrations

C.

Increasing cloud data processing speed

D.

Reducing the cost of cloud storage

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Question # 41

What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?

A.

Limited deployment options

B.

Manual management of resources

C.

Automation of deployment and scaling

D.

Increased hardware dependency

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Question # 42

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

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Question # 43

How does network segmentation primarily contribute to limiting the impact of a security breach?

A.

By reducing the threat of breaches and vulnerabilities

B.

Confining breaches to a smaller portion of the network

C.

Allowing faster data recovery and response

D.

Monitoring and detecting unauthorized access attempts

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Question # 44

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

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Question # 45

What is a key consideration when implementing AI workloads to ensure they adhere to security best practices?

A.

AI workloads do not require special security considerations compared to other workloads.

B.

AI workloads should be openly accessible to foster collaboration and innovation.

C.

AI workloads should be isolated in secure environments with strict access controls.

D.

Security practices for AI workloads should focus solely on protecting the AI models.

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Question # 46

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

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Question # 47

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

A.

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

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Question # 48

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

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Question # 49

Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the operating system and applications?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Network as a Service (NaaS)

C.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 50

Which technique involves assessing potential threats through analyzing attacker capabilities, motivations, and potential targets?

A.

Threat modeling

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Incident response

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 51

What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

A.

Developing and updating incident response policies

B.

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

C.

Performing detailed forensic investigations

D.

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

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Question # 52

What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

A.

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

B.

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

C.

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

D.

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

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Question # 53

How can the use of third-party libraries introduce supply chain risks in software development?

A.

They are usually open source and do not require vetting

B.

They might contain vulnerabilities that can be exploited

C.

They fail to integrate properly with existing continuous integration pipelines

D.

They might increase the overall complexity of the codebase

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Question # 54

In the context of FaaS, what is primarily defined in addition to functions?

A.

Data storage

B.

Network configurations

C.

User permissions

D.

Trigger events

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Question # 55

In a cloud computing incident, what should be the initial focus of analysis due to the ephemeral nature of resources and centralized control mechanisms?

A.

Management plane activity logs

B.

Network perimeter monitoring

C.

Endpoint protection status

D.

Physical hardware access

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Question # 56

Which AI workload mitigation strategy best addresses model inversion attacks that threaten data confidentiality?

A.

Secure multi-party computation

B.

Differential privacy

C.

Encryption

D.

Model hardening

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Question # 57

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

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Question # 58

What is the primary role of Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

A.

To encrypt data at rest and in transit

B.

Ensure only authorized entities access resources

C.

To monitor and log all user activities and traffic

D.

Ensure all users have the same level of access

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Question # 59

In the context of server-side encryption handled by cloud providers, what is the key attribute of this encryption?

A.

The data is encrypted using symmetric encryption.

B.

The data is not encrypted in transit.

C.

The data is encrypted using customer or provider keys after transmission to the cloud.

D.

The data is encrypted before transmission to the cloud.

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Question # 60

What is one of the primary advantages of including Static Application Security Testing (SAST) in Continuous Integration (CI) pipelines?

A.

Identifies code vulnerabilities early in the development

B.

Increases the speed of deployment to production

C.

Improves runtime performance of the application

D.

Enhances the user interface of the application

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Question # 61

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

A.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

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Question # 62

Which of the following best describes the shift-left approach in software development?

A.

Relies only on automated security testing tools

B.

Emphasizes post-deployment security audits

C.

Focuses on security only during the testing phase

D.

Integrates security early in the development process

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Question # 63

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

A.

Multiple copies in different locations

B.

Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly

C.

Full back ups weekly

D.

Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures

E.

Incremental backups daily

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Question # 64

CCM: In the CCM tool, ais a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

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Question # 65

Why is identity management at the organization level considered a key aspect in cybersecurity?

A.

It replaces the need to enforce the principles of the need to know

B.

It ensures only authorized users have access to resources

C.

It automates and streamlines security processes in the organization

D.

It reduces the need for regular security training and auditing, and frees up cybersecurity budget

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Question # 66

What is one primary operational challenge associated with using cloud-agnostic container strategies?

A.

Limiting deployment to a single cloud service

B.

Establishing identity and access management protocols

C.

Reducing the amount of cloud storage used

D.

Management plane compatibility and consistent controls

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Question # 67

Which of the following best describes a key aspect of cloud risk management?

A.

A structured approach for performance optimization of cloud services

B.

A structured approach to identifying, assessing, and addressing risks

C.

A structured approach to establishing the different what/if scenarios for cloud vs on-premise decisions

D.

A structured approach to SWOT analysis

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Question # 68

What key activities are part of the preparation phase in incident response planning?

A.

Implementing encryption and access controls

B.

Establishing a response process, training, communication plans, and infrastructure evaluations

C.

Creating incident reports and post-incident reviews

D.

Developing malware analysis procedures and penetration testing

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Question # 69

Why is it important to capture and centralize workload logs promptly in a cybersecurity environment?

A.

To simplify application debugging processes

B Primarily to reduce data storage costs

B.

Logs may be lost during a scaling event

C.

To comply with data privacy regulations

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Question # 70

What is a cloud workload in terms of infrastructure and platform deployment?

A.

A network of servers connected to execute processes

B.

A collection of physical hardware used to run applications

C.

A single software application hosted on the cloud

D.

Application software deployable on infrastructure/platform

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Question # 71

When establishing a cloud incident response program, what access do responders need to effectively analyze incidents?

A.

Access limited to log events for incident analysis

B.

Unlimited write access for all responders at all times

C.

Full-read access without any approval process

D.

Persistent read access and controlled write access for critical situations

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Question # 72

In a cloud context, what does entitlement refer to in relation to a user's permissions?

A.

The authentication methods a user is required to use when accessing the cloud environment.

B.

The level of technical support a user is entitled to from the cloud service provider.

C.

The resources or services a user is granted permission to access in the cloud environment.

D.

The ability for a user to grant access permissions to other users in the cloud environment.

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Question # 73

CCM: A hypothetical company called: “Health4Sure” is located in the United States and provides cloud based services for tracking patient health. The company is compliant with HIPAA/HITECH Act among other industry standards. Health4Sure decides to assess the overall security of their cloud service against the CCM toolkit so that they will be able to present this document to potential clients.

Which of the following approach would be most suitable to assess the overall security posture of Health4Sure’s cloud service?

A.

The CCM columns are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered ad a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls. This approach will save time.

B.

The CCM domain controls are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered as a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls thoroughly. This approach saves time while being able to assess the company’s overall security posture in an efficient manner.

C.

The CCM domains are not mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act. Therefore Health4Sure should assess the security posture of their cloud service against each and every control in the CCM. This approach will allow a thorough assessment of the security posture.

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Question # 74

What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?

A.

Management plane

B.

Intrusion detection options

C.

Secondary authentication factors

D.

Network access points

E.

Mobile security configuration options

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Question # 75

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

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Question # 76

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

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Question # 77

Select the best definition of “compliance” from the options below.

A.

The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.

B.

The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.

C.

The timely and efficient filing of security reports.

D.

The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.

E.

The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.

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Question # 78

The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components?

A.

Client, Controller, and Gateway

B.

Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

C.

Client, Firewall, and Gateway

D.

Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

E.

Client, Controller, and Firewall

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