CAS-005 CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Question and Answers

B. Pre-commit code linting: Linting tools analyze code for syntax errors and adherence to coding standards before the code is committed to the repository. This helps catch minor code issues early in the development process, reducing the likelihood of deployment failures.

D. Automated regression testing: Automated regression tests ensure that new code changes do not introduce bugs or regressions into the existing codebase. By running these tests automatically during the deployment process, developers can catch issues early and ensure the stability of the development environment.

Other options:

A. Software composition analysis: This helps identify vulnerabilities in third-party components but does not directly address code quality or deployment failures.

C. Repository branch protection: While this can help manage the code submission process, it does not directly prevent deployment failures caused by code issues or security check failures.

E. Code submit authorization workflow: This manages who can submit code but does not address the quality of the code being submitted.

F. Pipeline compliance scanning: This checks for compliance with security policies but does not address syntax or regression issues.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

"Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery" by Jez Humble and David Farley

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on secure coding practices

On-path decryption attacks, such as BEAST (Browser Exploit Against SSL/TLS) and other related vulnerabilities, often exploit weaknesses in the implementation of CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) mode. To mitigate these attacks, the following actions are recommended:

B. Removing support for CBC-based key exchange and signing algorithms: CBC mode is vulnerable to certain attacks like BEAST. By removing support for CBC-based ciphers, you can eliminate one of the primary vectors for these attacks. Instead, use modern cipher modes like GCM (Galois/Counter Mode) which offer better security properties.

C. Adding TLS_ECDHE_ECDSA_WITH_AES_256_GCM_SHA256: This cipher suite uses Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) for key exchange, which provides perfect forward secrecy. It also uses AES in GCM mode, which is not susceptible to the same attacks as CBC. SHA-256 is a strong hash function that ensures data integrity.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-52 Rev. 2, "Guidelines for the Selection, Configuration, and Use of Transport Layer Security (TLS) Implementations"

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on cryptography and secure communication

Advancements in quantum computing pose a significant threat to current encryption systems, especially those based on the difficulty of factoring large prime numbers, such as RSA. Quantum computers have the potential to solve these problems exponentially faster than classical computers, making current cryptographic systems vulnerable.

Why Large Prime Numbers are Vulnerable:

Shor's Algorithm: Quantum computers can use Shor's algorithm to factorize large integers efficiently, which undermines the security of RSA encryption.

Cryptographic Breakthrough: The ability to quickly factor large prime numbers means that encrypted data, which relies on the hardness of this mathematical problem, can be decrypted.

Other options, while relevant, do not capture the primary reason for the shift towards new encryption algorithms:

B. Zero Trust security architectures: While important, the shift to homomorphic encryption is not the main driver for new encryption algorithms.

C. Perfect forward secrecy: It enhances security but is not the main reason for new encryption algorithms.

D. Real-time IP traffic capture: Quantum computers pose a more significant threat to the underlying cryptographic algorithms than to the real-time capture of traffic.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

NIST Special Publication 800-208, "Recommendation for Stateful Hash-Based Signature Schemes"

"Quantum Computing and Cryptography," MIT Technology Review

To meet the requirements of having all endpoints establish telemetry with a SIEM, integrate into an XDR platform, and allow SOC services to monitor the XDR platform, the best approach is to implement Host Intrusion Prevention Systems (HIPS) and a host-based firewall. HIPS can provide detailed telemetry data to the SIEM and can be integrated into the XDR platform for comprehensive monitoring and response. The host-based firewall ensures that only authorized traffic is allowed, providing an additional layer of security.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Describes the roles of HIPS and host-based firewalls in endpoint security and their integration with SIEM and XDR platforms.

NIST Special Publication 800-94, "Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems (IDPS)": Highlights the capabilities of HIPS for security monitoring and incident response.

"Network Security Monitoring" by Richard Bejtlich: Discusses the integration of various security tools, including HIPS and firewalls, for effective security monitoring.

When creating a threat model to identify vulnerabilities in an organization's infrastructure, prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities is critical. Here’s why:

Exposure to Attack: External-facing infrastructure is directly exposed to the internet, making it a primary target for attackers. Any vulnerabilities in this layer pose an immediate risk to the organization's security.

Known Exploited Vulnerabilities: Vulnerabilities that are already known and exploited in the wild are of higher concern because they are actively being used by attackers. Addressing these vulnerabilities reduces the risk of exploitation significantly.

Risk Mitigation: By prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities, the organization can mitigate the most immediate and impactful threats, thereby improving overall security posture.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-30: Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments

OWASP Threat Modeling Cheat Sheet

Investing in a threat intelligence platform is the best option for a company looking to operationalize research output. A threat intelligence platform helps in collecting, processing, and analyzing threat data to provide actionable insights. These platforms integrate data from various sources, including dark web monitoring, honeypots, and other security tools, to offer a comprehensive view of the threat landscape.

Why a Threat Intelligence Platform?

Data Integration: It consolidates data from multiple sources, including dark web monitoring and honeypots, making it easier to analyze and derive actionable insights.

Actionable Insights: Provides real-time alerts and reports on potential threats, helping the organization take proactive measures.

Operational Efficiency: Streamlines the process of threat detection and response, allowing the security team to focus on critical issues.

Research and Development: Facilitates the operationalization of research output by providing a platform for continuous monitoring and analysis of emerging threats.

Other options, while valuable, do not offer the same level of integration and operationalization capabilities:

A. Dark web monitoring: Useful for specific threat intelligence but lacks comprehensive operationalization.

C. Honeypots: Effective for detecting and analyzing specific attack vectors but not for broader threat intelligence.

D. Continuous adversary emulation: Important for testing defenses but not for integrating and operationalizing threat intelligence.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

"Threat Intelligence Platforms," Gartner Research

NIST Special Publication 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing"

OWIN23 is running Windows 7, which is a legacy operating system. Many EDR solutions no longer provide full support for outdated operating systems like Windows 7, which has reached its end of life and is no longer receiving security updates from Microsoft. This makes such systems more vulnerable to infections and attacks, including remote access Trojans (RATs).

A. OWIN23 uses a legacy version of Windows that is not supported by the EDR: This is the most probable cause because the lack of support means that the EDR solution may not fully protect or monitor this system, making it an easy target for infections.

B. LN002 was not supported by the EDR solution and propagates the RAT: While LN002 is unmanaged, it is less likely to propagate the RAT to OWIN23 directly without an established vector.

C. The EDR has an unknown vulnerability that was exploited by the attacker: This is possible but less likely than the lack of support for an outdated OS.

D. OWIN29 spreads the malware through other hosts in the network: While this could happen, the status indicates OWIN29 is in a bypass mode, which might limit its interactions but does not directly explain the infection on OWIN23.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"

Microsoft's Windows 7 End of Support documentation

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) is the best solution to help the company overcome challenges associated with suspicious activity that cannot be categorized by traditional detection tools. UEBA uses advanced analytics to establish baselines of normal behavior for users and entities within the network. It then identifies deviations from these baselines, which may indicate malicious activity. This approach is particularly effective for detecting unknown threats and sophisticated attacks that do not match known indicators of compromise (IoCs).

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The table shows that the user "SALES1" is consistently blocked despite having met the MFA requirements. The common factor in these blocked attempts is the source IP address (8.11.4.16) being identified as from Germany while the user is assigned to France. This discrepancy suggests that the network geolocation is being misidentified by the authentication server, causing legitimate access attempts to be blocked.

Why Network Geolocation Misidentification?

Geolocation Accuracy: Authentication systems often use IP geolocation to verify the location of access attempts. Incorrect geolocation data can lead to legitimate requests being denied if they appear to come from unexpected locations.

Security Policies: Company security policies might block access attempts from certain locations to prevent unauthorized access. If the geolocation is wrong, legitimate users can be inadvertently blocked.

Consistent Pattern: The user "SALES1" from the IP address 8.11.4.16 is always blocked, indicating a consistent issue with geolocation.

Other options do not align with the pattern observed:

A. Bypass MFA requirements: MFA is satisfied, so bypassing MFA is not the issue.

C. Administrator access policy: This is about user access, not specific administrator access.

D. OTP codes: The user has satisfied MFA, so OTP code configuration is not the issue.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

"Geolocation and Authentication," NIST Special Publication 800-63B

"IP Geolocation Accuracy," Cisco Documentation

Limiting the platform's abilities to only non-sensitive functions helps to mitigate risks associated with AI operations. By ensuring that the AI-enabled digital worker is only allowed to perform tasks that do not involve sensitive or critical data, the organization reduces the potential impact of any security breaches or misuse.

Enhancing the training model's effectiveness (Option B) is important but does not directly address security guardrails. Granting the system the ability to self-govern (Option C) could increase risk as it may act beyond the organization's control. Requiring end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies (Option D) is a good practice but does not implement technical guardrails to secure the AI environment.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"

ISO/IEC 27001, "Information Security Management"

The ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge) framework is the best tool for a security analyst to use for threat modeling when looking for gaps in detection capabilities based on Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) that may target the industry. Here’s why:

Comprehensive Framework: ATT&CK provides a detailed and structured repository of known adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It helps organizations understand how attackers operate and what techniques they might use.

Gap Analysis: By mapping existing security controls against the ATT&CK matrix, analysts can identify which tactics and techniques are not adequately covered by current detection and mitigation measures.

Industry Relevance: The ATT&CK framework is continuously updated with the latest threat intelligence, making it highly relevant for industries facing APT threats. It provides insights into specific APT groups and their preferred methods of attack.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

MITRE ATT&CK Framework Official Documentation

NIST Special Publication 800-150: Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing

To design resilience in an enterprise system that can survive environmental catastrophes, recover within 24 hours, and be resilient to active exploitation, the best strategy is to allocate fully redundant and geographically distributed standby sites. Here’s why:

Geographical Redundancy: Having geographically distributed standby sites ensures that if one site is affected by an environmental catastrophe, the other sites can take over, providing continuity of operations.

Full Redundancy: Fully redundant sites mean that all critical systems and data are replicated, enabling quick recovery in the event of a critical loss of availability.

Resilience to Exploitation: Distributing resources across multiple sites reduces the risk of a single point of failure and increases resilience against targeted attacks.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-34: Contingency Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems

ISO/IEC 27031:2011 - Guidelines for Information and Communication Technology Readiness for Business Continuity

Addressing misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in third-party hardware requires a comprehensive approach to manage risks throughout the supply chain. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management (SCRM) program is the most effective solution as it encompasses the following:

Holistic Approach: SCRM considers the entire lifecycle of the product, from initial design through to delivery and deployment. This ensures that risks are identified and managed at every stage.

Vendor Management: It includes thorough vetting of suppliers and ongoing assessments of their security practices, which can identify and mitigate vulnerabilities early.

Regular Audits and Assessments: A robust SCRM program involves regular audits and assessments, both internally and with suppliers, to ensure compliance with security standards and best practices.

Collaboration and Communication: Ensures that there is effective communication and collaboration between the company and its suppliers, leading to faster identification and resolution of issues.

Other options, while beneficial, do not provide the same comprehensive risk management:

A. Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers: While useful, this is reactive and only addresses issues after they have been delivered.

B. Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line: This can identify vulnerabilities but is not as comprehensive as a full SCRM program.

C. Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the vendor appliance: This is important but only covers the integration phase, not the entire supply chain.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

NIST Special Publication 800-161, "Supply Chain Risk Management Practices for Federal Information Systems and Organizations"

ISO/IEC 27036-1:2014, "Information technology — Security techniques — Information security for supplier relationships"

To improve the vulnerability management process in an environment where new devices/IPs are added and dropped regularly, the company should perform regular discovery scanning throughout the IT landscape using the vulnerability management tool. Here’s why:

Accurate Asset Inventory: Regular discovery scans help maintain an up-to-date inventory of all assets, ensuring that the vulnerability management process includes all relevant devices and IPs.

Consistency in Reporting: By continuously discovering and scanning new and existing assets, the company can generate consistent and comprehensive vulnerability reports that reflect the current state of the network.

Proactive Management: Regular scans enable the organization to proactively identify and address vulnerabilities on new and existing assets, reducing the window of exposure to potential threats.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies

CIS Controls: Control 1 - Inventory and Control of Hardware Assets

Based on the log provided, the most concerning event that should be investigated further is the presence of a text file containing passwords that were leaked. Here's why:

Sensitive Information Exposure: A text file containing passwords represents a significant security risk, as it indicates that sensitive credentials have been exposed in plain text, potentially leading to unauthorized access.

Immediate Threat: Password leaks can lead to immediate exploitation by attackers, compromising user accounts and sensitive data. This requires urgent investi

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is a security policy enforcement point placed between cloud service consumers and cloud service providers to combine and interject enterprise security policies as cloud-based resources are accessed. Implementing a CASB provides several benefits:

A. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms: This can help but is not as effective or comprehensive as a CASB.

B. Implement a cloud-access security broker: A CASB can provide visibility into cloud application usage, enforce data security policies, and protect against data leaks by monitoring and controlling access to cloud services. It also provides advanced features like data encryption, data loss prevention (DLP), and compliance monitoring.

C. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms: This helps in monitoring but does not prevent data leaks.

D. Deploy an internet proxy that filters certain domains: This can block access to specific sites but lacks the granular control and visibility provided by a CASB.

Implementing a CASB is the most comprehensive solution to decrease the risk of data leaks by providing visibility, control, and enforcement of security policies for cloud services.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

Gartner, "Magic Quadrant for Cloud Access Security Brokers"

NIST SP 800-144, "Guidelines on Security and Privacy in Public Cloud Computing"

The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application, without affecting the production environment, is the staging environment. Here’s a detailed explanation:

Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment in terms of hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final testing ground before deploying changes to production. Testing in the staging environment ensures that the new feature will behave as expected in the actual production setup.

Isolation from Production: The staging environment is isolated from production, which means any issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users or the integrity of the production data. This aligns with best practices in change management and risk mitigation.

Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production environment, it provides realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying potential issues that might not be apparent in a development or testing environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Study Guide by Quentin Docter, Jon Buhagiar

NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

Preparing communication templates that have been vetted by both internal and external counsel ensures that the organization can respond quickly and effectively to internal and external inquiries, comply with regulatory requirements, and provide transparency in the event of a breach.

Why Communication Templates?

Timely Response: Pre-prepared templates ensure that responses are ready to be deployed quickly, reducing response time.

Regulatory Compliance: Templates vetted by counsel ensure that all communications meet legal and regulatory requirements.

Consistent Messaging: Ensures that all responses are consistent, clear, and accurate, maintaining the organization’s credibility.

Crisis Management: Pre-prepared templates are a critical component of a broader crisis management plan, ensuring that all stakeholders are informed appropriately.

Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of preparedness and compliance:

A. Outsourcing to an external consultant: This may delay response times and lose internal control over the communication.

B. Integrating automated response mechanisms: Useful for efficiency but not for ensuring compliant and vetted responses.

D. Conducting lessons-learned activities: Important for improving processes but does not provide immediate preparedness for communication.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"

ISO/IEC 27002:2013, "Information technology — Security techniques — Code of practice for information security controls"

To ensure that logs from a legacy platform are properly retained beyond the default retention period, configuring the SIEM to aggregate the logs is the best approach. SIEM solutions are designed to collect, aggregate, and store logs from various sources, providing centralized log management and retention. This setup ensures that logs are retained according to policy and can be easily accessed for analysis and compliance purposes.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of SIEM in log management and retention.

NIST Special Publication 800-92, "Guide to Computer Security Log Management": Recommends the use of centralized log management solutions, such as SIEM, for effective log retention and analysis.

"Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation" by David Miller: Covers best practices for configuring SIEM systems to aggregate and retain logs from various sources.

Building playbooks for different scenarios and performing regular table-top exercises directly addresses the issues identified in the lessons-learned review. Here's why:

Lost important information for further analysis: Playbooks outline step-by-step procedures for incident response, ensuring that team members know exactly what to document and how to preserve evidence.

Did not utilize the chain of communication: Playbooks include communication protocols, specifying who to notify and when. Regular table-top exercises reinforce these communication channels, ensuring they are followed during actual incidents.

Did not follow the right steps for a proper response: Playbooks provide a clear sequence of actions to be taken during various types of incidents, helping the team to respond in a structured and effective manner. Regular exercises allow the team to practice these steps, identifying and correcting any deviations from the plan.

Investing in better forensic tools (Option A) or requiring certifications (Option C) are also valuable, but they do not directly address the procedural and communication gaps identified. Publishing and enforcing the incident response policy (Option D) is important but not as practical and hands-on as playbooks and exercises in ensuring the team is prepared.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"

SANS Institute, "Incident Handler's Handbook"

Select the Action Items for the Appropriate Locations:

Authorization Server:

Action Item: Grant access

Explanation: The authorization server's role is to authenticate the user and then issue an authorization code or token that the client application can use to access resources. Granting access involves the server authenticating the resource owner and providing the necessary tokens for the client application.

Resource Server:

Action Item: Access issued tokens

Explanation: The resource server is responsible for serving the resources requested by the client application. It must verify the issued tokens from the authorization server to ensure the client has the right permissions to access the requested data.

B2B Client Application:

Action Item: Authorize access to other applications

Explanation: The B2B client application must handle the OAuth flow to authorize access on behalf of the user without requiring direct knowledge of the user's credentials. This includes obtaining authorization tokens from the authorization server and using them to request access to the resource server.

Detailed Explanation:

OAuth 2.0 is designed to provide specific authorization flows for web applications, desktop applications, mobile phones, and living room devices. The integration involves multiple steps and components, including:

Resource Owner (User):

The user owns the data and resources that are being accessed.

Client Application (B2B Client Application):

Requests access to the resources controlled by the resource owner but does not directly handle the user's credentials. Instead, it uses tokens obtained through the OAuth flow.

Authorization Server:

Handles the authentication of the resource owner and issues the access tokens to the client application upon successful authentication.

Resource Server:

Hosts the resources that the client application wants to access. It verifies the access tokens issued by the authorization server before granting access to the resources.

OAuth Workflow:

The resource owner accesses the client application.

The client application redirects the resource owner to the authorization server for authentication.

The authorization server authenticates the resource owner and asks for consent to grant access to the client application.

Upon consent, the authorization server issues an authorization code or token to the client application.

The client application uses the authorization code or token to request access to the resources from the resource server.

The resource server verifies the token with the authorization server and, if valid, grants access to the requested resources.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Provides comprehensive information on various authentication and authorization protocols, including OAuth.

OAuth 2.0 Authorization Framework (RFC 6749): The official documentation detailing the OAuth 2.0 framework, its flows, and components.

OAuth 2.0 Simplified: A book by Aaron Parecki that provides a detailed yet easy-to-understand explanation of the OAuth 2.0 protocol.

By ensuring that each component in the OAuth workflow performs its designated role, the B2B client application can securely access the necessary resources without compromising user credentials, adhering to the principle of least privilege.

Implementing a Single Sign-On (SSO) solution and integrating it with applications is the best way to manage the situation and decrease risks. Here’s why:

Reduced Password Fatigue: SSO allows users to log in once and gain access to multiple applications and systems without needing to remember and manage multiple passwords. This reduces the likelihood of users writing down passwords.

Improved Security: By reducing the number of passwords users need to manage, SSO decreases the attack surface and potential for password-related security breaches. It also allows for the implementation of stronger authentication methods.

User Convenience: SSO improves the user experience by simplifying the login process, which can lead to higher productivity and satisfaction.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines - Authentication and Lifecycle Management

OWASP Authentication Cheat Sheet

Excessive MFA push notifications can be a sign of an attempted push notification attack, where attackers repeatedly send MFA prompts hoping the user will eventually approve one by mistake. To mitigate this:

A. Provisioning FIDO2 devices: While FIDO2 devices offer strong authentication, they may not be practical for all users and do not directly address the issue of excessive push notifications.

B. Deploying a text message-based MFA: SMS-based MFA can still be vulnerable to similar spamming attacks and phishing.

C. Enabling OTP via email: Email-based OTPs add another layer of security but do not directly solve the issue of excessive notifications.

D. Configuring prompt-driven MFA: This option allows users to respond to prompts in a secure manner, often including features like time-limited approval windows, additional verification steps, or requiring specific actions to approve. This can help prevent users from accidentally approving malicious attempts.

Configuring prompt-driven MFA is the best solution to restrict unnecessary MFA notifications and improve security.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-63B, "Digital Identity Guidelines"

"Multi-Factor Authentication: Best Practices" by Microsoft

The most secure way to prevent inadvertent data disclosure when encrypted SSDs are reused is to securely delete the encryption keys used by the SSD. Without the encryption keys, the data on the SSD remains encrypted and is effectively unreadable, rendering any residual data useless. This method is more reliable and efficient than overwriting data multiple times or using other physical destruction methods.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Highlights the importance of managing encryption keys and securely deleting them to protect data.

NIST Special Publication 800-88, "Guidelines for Media Sanitization": Recommends cryptographic erasure as a secure method for sanitizing encrypted storage devices.

The technique that best addresses the issue of insider threats from employees who have individual access to encrypted material is key splitting. Here’s why:

Key Splitting: Key splitting involves dividing a cryptographic key into multiple parts and distributing these parts among different individuals or systems. This ensures that no single individual has complete access to the key, thereby mitigating the risk of insider threats.

Increased Security: By requiring multiple parties to combine their key parts to access encrypted material, key splitting provides an additional layer of security. This approach is particularly useful in environments where sensitive data needs to be protected from unauthorized access by insiders.

Compliance and Best Practices: Key splitting aligns with best practices and regulatory requirements for handling sensitive information, ensuring that access is tightly controlled and monitored.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-57: Recommendation for Key Management

ISO/IEC 27002:2013: Information Technology - Security Techniques - Code of Practice for Information Security Controls

By employing key splitting, organizations can effectively reduce the risk of insider threats and enhance the overall security of encrypted material.

The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:

Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is required. Changing it to an A record ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.

TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include

com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.

DMARC: Ensuring the DMARC record is correctly set up helps in preventing email spoofing and phishing, aligning with email security best practices.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

RFC 7489: Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance (DMARC)

NIST Special Publication 800-45: Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security

To create a collection of use cases for detecting known threats and include them in a centralized library for use across multiple companies with different vendors, Sigma rules are the best option. Here’s why:

Vendor-Agnostic Format: Sigma rules are a generic and open standard for writing SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) rules. They can be translated to specific query languages of different SIEM systems, making them highly versatile and applicable across various platforms.

Centralized Rule Management: By using Sigma rules, the cybersecurity architect can create a centralized library of detection rules that can be easily shared and implemented across different detection and monitoring systems used by the acquired companies. This ensures consistency in threat detection capabilities.

Ease of Use and Flexibility: Sigma provides a structured and straightforward format for defining detection logic. It allows for the easy creation, modification, and sharing of rules, facilitating collaboration and standardization across the organization.

The most appropriate technique to improve the cryptographic strength of a password-storage component in a web application without completely replacing the crypto-module is key stretching. Here's why:

Enhanced Security: Key stretching algorithms, such as PBKDF2, bcrypt, and scrypt, increase the computational effort required to derive the encryption key from the password, making brute-force attacks more difficult and time-consuming.

Compatibility: Key stretching can be implemented alongside existing cryptographic modules, enhancing their security without the need for a complete overhaul.

Industry Best Practices: Key stretching is a widely recommended practice for securely storing passwords, as it significantly improves resistance to password-cracking attacks.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines - Authentication and Lifecycle Management

OWASP Password Storage Cheat Sheet

10.1.45.65 SFTP Server Disable 8080

10.1.45.66 Email Server Disable 415 and 443

10.1.45.67 Web Server Disable 21, 80

10.1.45.68 UTM Appliance Disable 21

To meet the requirements of only allowing internally signed applications, preventing unauthorized software installations, and logging attempts to run unauthorized software, configuring application control with blocked hashes and enterprise-trusted root certificates is the best solution. This approach ensures that only applications signed by trusted certificates are allowed to execute, while all other attempts are blocked and logged. It effectively prevents unauthorized software installations by restricting execution to pre-approved applications.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Describes application control mechanisms and the use of trusted certificates to enforce security policies.

NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations": Recommends application whitelisting and execution control for securing endpoints.

"The Application Security Handbook" by Mark Dowd, John McDonald, and Justin Schuh: Covers best practices for implementing application control and managing trusted certificates

To mitigate the risk of data loss on a lost or stolen tablet quickly, the most effective strategy is to return the device's solid-state media to zero, which effectively erases all data on the device. Here's why:

Immediate Data Erasure: Returning the solid-state media to zero ensures that all data is wiped instantly, mitigating the risk of data loss if the device is lost or stolen.

Full Disk Encryption: Even though the tablets are already encrypted, physically erasing the data ensures that no residual data can be accessed if someone attempts to bypass encryption.

Compliance and Security: This method adheres to best practices for data security and compliance, ensuring that sensitive patient data cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-88: Guidelines for Media Sanitization

ISO/IEC 27002:2013 - Information Security Management