CAS-004 CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Question and Answers

Option A (Origin assurance): Digital signatures ensure that the code originates from a trusted source.

Option B (Integrity verification): Digital signatures verify that the code has not been tampered with since it was signed.

Option C (Confidentiality): Digital signatures do not provide encryption or confidentiality.

Option D (DRMs): Digital signatures are not specifically related to Digital Rights Management.

Option E (Recipient verification): Digital signatures validate the sender, not the recipient.

Option F (Free of malware): While digital signatures verify integrity, they cannot guarantee that the code is free of malware.

References:

CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 2.1: Implement cryptographic solutions to protect application integrity.

CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 9, Digital Signatures and Code Signing.

Steganography is the practice of hiding a secret message within another object, in such a way that others cannot discern the presence or contents of the hidden message. It is often used for watermarking to embed a covert sign of ownership in a proprietary document without adding any visible identifying attributes.

The data owner is best qualified to classify systems and data in accordance with external requirements. The data owner is responsible for determining how data should be classified based on its sensitivity, value, and regulatory requirements. They have the authority to decide on classification levels such as public, confidential, or secret, and ensure compliance with external standards. Other roles, like data custodians or processors, support the implementation of data management, but the data owner has the final responsibility for classification. CASP+ highlights the role of data owners in determining data classification and ensuring compliance with external requirements.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 – Risk Management (Data Classification and Data Owner Responsibilities)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Data Classification and Governance Responsibilities of the Data Owner

Two-factor authentication (2FA) adds an additional layer of security by requiring two forms of identification before granting access to an account or system. Implementing 2FA can significantly reduce the risk of unauthorized access, even if passwords are weak or compromised.

Step by Step Explanation:

Replication ensures data consistency by synchronizing copies of data across clusters. This would prevent data loss during power outages.

Caching provides faster data retrieval but does not ensure data persistence.

Containerization improves deployment consistency but does not address resilience or data integrity.

Redundancy relates to additional hardware or systems but does not guarantee up-to-date data.

High availability addresses system uptime but does not prevent data loss.

The network administrator is noticing a web attack that attempts to access the /etc/shadow file on a Linux web server. The /etc/shadow file contains the encrypted passwords of all users on the system and is a common target for attackers. The attack uses a technique called directory traversal, which exploits a vulnerability in the web application that allows an attacker to access files or directories outside of the intended scope by manipulating the file path.

Validating the server input and appending the input to the base directory path would be the best action for the network administrator to take to defend against this type of web attack, because it would:

Check the user input for any errors, malicious data, or unexpected values before processing it by the web application.

Prevent directory traversal by ensuring that the user input is always relative to the base directory path of the web application, and not absolute to the root directory of the web server.

Deny access to any files or directories that are not part of the web application’s scope or functionality.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step Explanation:

PBKDF2 (Password-Based Key Derivation Function 2) strengthens passwords against brute-force attacks.

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) supports variable block and key sizes, making it ideal for secure encryption.

RC5, P256, and ECDSA are not relevant to password vault requirements.

RIPEMD is a hashing algorithm and does not meet the criteria for encryption or brute-force resistance.

References:

CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 2.1: Implement cryptographic technologies.

CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 9, Cryptographic Tools.

The first step in forensic analysis is to collect the most volatile data, which is the information that would be lost when the power is turned off or the system is rebooted. This includes the contents of memory (RAM) and other temporary data that are stored in caches or buffers. A memory dump captures this data and should be done before other less volatile data is collected, like hard drive images or log files, to ensure the most accurate and comprehensive capture of the system's state at the time of the incident.

Step by Step Explanation:

A: Randomizing the keypad reduces the risk of shoulder-surfing attacks by eliminating predictable patterns.

C: Randomization increases the cognitive load on users, making it harder to input numbers quickly.

D: Additional computational power is minimal and not typically a trade-off.

E and F: Remembering access numbers or weak passwords are unrelated to keypad randomization.

Introducing secure coding training directly addresses the root cause of recurring cross-site scripting issues by educating developers about secure practices. This aligns with CASP+ objective 1.5, which includes mitigating software vulnerabilities by fostering a secure development lifecycle and promoting best practices among development teams.

________________________________________

In cloud computing models, the security of the physical data center is the responsibility of the Cloud Service Provider (CSP). The CSP is responsible for protecting the infrastructure that runs all of the services offered in the cloud, which includes the physical security of the data center.

Digitally signed third-party certificates provide greater security assurance because they are verified by trusted Certificate Authorities (CAs) and offer protection against on-path (man-in-the-middle) interception. Private-key Certificate Signing Request (CSR) signage helps ensure that communication cannot be intercepted or modified by malicious actors. Self-signed certificates, on the other hand, are not trusted outside the local environment and do not provide the same level of protection against on-path attacks. CASP+ emphasizes the security benefits of using third-party-signed certificates for securing communications over public networks.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 – Enterprise Security Architecture (PKI, SSL/TLS Certificates)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: The Role of Certificate Authorities in Secure Communication

A machine-learning-based data security service provides dynamic discovery, anomaly detection, and behavioral analysis. It effectively identifies changes and suspicious activity across large-scale environments, such as object storage in the cloud. This aligns with CASP+ objective 4.3, emphasizing the use of advanced analytics and ML to improve data security.

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is a technology that can detect changes in files, often used to safeguard critical data. Implementing a FIM solution that generates alerts for access by unauthorized IP addresses would ensure that any unauthorized modifications to the file can be detected and acted upon. This helps in mitigating the risk of insider threats, as it would alert to any changes not made through the expected application process.

Static application security testing (SAST) is a method of analyzing the source code of an application for vulnerabilities and weaknesses before it is deployed. SAST can help identify security issues earlier in the development process, reducing the time and cost of remediation. Dynamic application security testing (DAST) is a method of testing the functionality and behavior of an application at runtime for vulnerabilities and weaknesses. DAST can cover public-facing application components, but it cannot detect issues in the source code or in serverless applications. Runtime application self-protection (RASP) is a technology that monitors and protects an application from attacks in real time by embedding security features into the application code or runtime environment. RASP can help prevent exploitation of vulnerabilities, but it cannot identify or fix them. A web application firewall (WAF) is a device or software that filters and blocks malicious web traffic from reaching an application. A WAF can help protect an application from common attacks, but it cannot detect or fix vulnerabilities in the application code or in serverless applications. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3: Enterprise Security Operations, Objective 3.4: Conduct security assessments using appropriate tools

The concern is users operating in a spit tunnel config which is what is being described. Using a Full Tunnel would route traffic from all applications through a single tunnel. https://cybernews.com/what-is-vpn/split-tunneling/

A runbook is a detailed guide that provides step-by-step instructions on how to respond to specific types of incidents. It is used by the SOC team to ensure a consistent, organized, and efficient response to incidents. In this case, after the incident investigation, creating a runbook would help standardize the response process for future security incidents, enabling the team to act quickly and effectively. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of having detailed runbooks for incident response as part of an organization's overall incident response strategy.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Incident Response and Runbooks)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Incident Response Procedures and Runbooks

Before determining which data should be deleted during a data cleanup project, it is critical to first review retention schedules. Retention schedules specify how long data must be retained to comply with legal, regulatory, or business requirements. Deleting data prematurely could result in non-compliance or the loss of important information. By consulting retention schedules, the security administrator ensures that data is deleted in a compliant and controlled manner, based on its retention policy. CASP+ highlights data retention management as a key element in data governance and security.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 – Risk Management (Data Governance and Retention Policies)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Data Retention, Deletion, and Compliance Requirements

The netstat -tulpn command is used to display network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, masquerade connections, and multicast memberships. The -tulpn options specifically show TCP and UDP connections with the process ID and the name that is listening on each port, which would provide the necessary information to identify if FTP is running and on which port without turning the service off. This information can then be used to create a precise firewall rule to prevent the FTP service from being exploited.

The command depicted is indicative of a reverse shell, which is a type of shell where the target system initiates an outgoing connection to a remote host, and then standard input and output of the command line interface on the target system is redirected through this connection to the remote host. This is typically used by an attacker after exploitation to open a remote command line interface to control the compromised machine.

While serverless computing abstracts the infrastructure layer from developers, organizations must still ensure the security of their data in the serverless environment. This includes protecting the data from unauthorized access and ensuring data privacy and integrity. Serverless architectures can be complex, and understanding the security model and shared responsibility is essential for safeguarding applications and services.

Restricting HTTP methods can mitigate the risk of network-based attacks against an online store by limiting the types of HTTP requests that the server will accept, thus reducing the attack surface. This is a common method to prevent web-based attacks such as Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) and SQL Injection.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step Explanation:

Data masking obscures sensitive data displayed on screens, such as masking certain characters (e.g., showing *** for parts of SSNs).

It allows legitimate use while protecting the data from being misused or stolen.

Encryption is unrelated because it protects data in transit or at rest but does not address how it is displayed.

Tokenization replaces data with a token but is more relevant for storage and transactional systems, not screen data.

Scrubbing refers to cleansing datasets but does not address this scenario.

References:

CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 3.4: Implement controls to reduce privacy and information risks.

CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 8, Privacy Controls.

The first step in mitigating the risk associated with delayed patching is to conduct a vulnerability analysis. This process involves identifying, categorizing, and assessing the vulnerabilities within the hospital's IT infrastructure. By understanding the specific vulnerabilities and their potential impact on patient care and data availability, the hospital can prioritize patching efforts effectively and develop a strategy that minimizes disruptions while ensuring critical systems remain secure.

Real-time replication ensures that data is continuously mirrored to the DR site, minimizing data loss to within the recovery point objective (RPO) of 30 minutes. This method aligns with CASP+ objective 3.1, which emphasizes continuity and disaster recovery strategies to maintain business operations with minimal downtime and data loss.

________________________________________

The log messages in the image display detailed error messages, indicating improper error handling, which can expose sensitive information to potential attackers. Proper error handling ensures that error messages do not reveal underlying application details (such as file paths or configuration information) that could be exploited. This aligns with the best practices in secure coding and is a core concept in CASP+. Rather than exposing the inner workings of the application, the system should return generic error messages to users while logging detailed information securely for internal troubleshooting.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Secure Coding, Error Handling)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Web Application Security and Proper Error Handling Techniques

To prioritize server replacements based on the likelihood of failure, the MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) metric is most appropriate. MTBF provides a measure of the average time a server or system is expected to operate before experiencing failure. This allows the management team to assess which servers are more likely to fail soon, irrespective of the application criticality, and thus should be replaced first. CASP+ highlights the use of MTBF in hardware lifecycle management and risk assessments.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 – Risk Management (MTBF in Hardware Lifecycle)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Server Risk Assessments Using MTBF and Reliability Metrics

When an EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) system flags legitimate software as malicious, it is a false positive. This occurs when the EDR incorrectly identifies normal, non-malicious activity as a threat. The scenario described indicates that the development software was blocked even though there were no changes to the software, which suggests a false positive by the EDR system.

Non-repudiation ensures that a sender cannot deny having sent a message, achieved through digital signatures provided by PKI. This aligns with CASP+ objective 3.2, emphasizing cryptographic assurance in communication.

For an organization transitioning its Wi-Fi to WPA2/WPA3 Enterprise with EAP-TLS, X.509 certificates are crucial. EAP-TLS (Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security) is a certificate-based authentication protocol, and for it to work, both the client and server must have valid X.509 certificates. This ensures that the mobile devices can authenticate themselves securely to the wireless network. Other options like IPSec configurations or TOTP tokens are not relevant in the context of EAP-TLS wireless authentication. CASP+ highlights the importance of certificate management in secure wireless authentication protocols.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 – Enterprise Security Architecture (Wireless Authentication and EAP-TLS)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Certificate Management for EAP-TLS

Containerization separates corporate data from personal data on BYOD devices. When an employee is terminated, only the corporate container is wiped, preserving personal data. This aligns with CASP+ objective 2.4, which emphasizes securing endpoint devices while respecting privacy.

Visitor logs would be the best additional method for identifying individuals who enter the building in the event of a camera system failure. Visitor logs track who enters and exits a secured facility, providing a record that can be cross-referenced with security events, like the discovery of a suspicious flash drive. In this case, reviewing the visitor logs could help identify the vendor representative who dropped the flash drive. CASP+ highlights the importance of physical security measures, such as logging and auditing access to facilities, to complement digital security controls.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Physical Security and Access Control Logs)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Physical Security and Incident Response Procedures

Due care refers to the effort made by an ordinarily prudent or reasonable party to avoid harm to another party. By not reporting the gaps in the inventory system, the assessor is neglecting their responsibility and not exercising the due care that is expected of them, which could lead to legal ramifications for non-compliance or other security breaches.

The dbadmin user is consulting the community for help via Internet Relay Chat. The clues in the given information point to the dbadmin user having established an Internet Relay Chat (IRC) connection to an external address at 7:55 a.m. This connection is still active, and only a few kilobytes of data have been transferred since the start of the connection. The sample outbound request payload of "JOIN #community" also suggests that the user is trying to join an IRC chatroom. This suggests that the dbadmin user is using the IRC connection to consult the community for help with a problem. Therefore, the root cause of the anomalous activity is likely the dbadmin user consulting the community for help via IRC. References: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 10, Investigating Intrusions and Suspicious Activity.

The company should implement OCSP stapling and HSTS to improve TLS performance and enforce HTTPS. OCSP stapling is a technique that allows a server to provide a signed proof of the validity of its certificate along with the TLS handshake, instead of relying on the client to contact the certificate authority (CA) for verification. This can reduce the latency and bandwidth of the TLS handshake, as well as improve the privacy and security of the certificate status. HSTS stands for HTTP Strict Transport Security, which is a mechanism that instructs browsers to only use HTTPS when connecting to a website, and to reject any unencrypted or invalid connections. This can prevent downgrade attacks, man-in-the-middle attacks, and mixed content errors, as well as improve the performance of HTTPS connections by avoiding unnecessary redirects. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/OCSP-stapling

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/HTTP-Strict-Transport-Security

https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ssl/what-is-hsts/

The first step in reducing the attack surface of vulnerable, end-of-support systems is to apply hardening recommendations. Hardening involves applying security configurations, such as disabling unnecessary services, enforcing strong authentication, and tightening access controls to mitigate vulnerabilities on systems that can no longer receive patches or support. While patching and deploying security tools like IPS/IDS and antivirus are important, hardening addresses the fundamental weakness of these legacy systems by reducing their exposure to threats. CASP+ recommends hardening as a crucial measure in environments where patching or upgrading may not be feasible, particularly for unsupported systems.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (System Hardening)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: System Hardening for End-of-Life Systems

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) solutions are designed to automate and streamline security operations in complex environments. By utilizing APIs, SOAR platforms can integrate with various security tools to enhance incident response processes, automate tasks, and improve overall efficiency. This aligns with the requirements of using the latest technology and having high control over the solution. SOAR's ability to orchestrate between different security solutions and automate responses to threats makes it the best option to reduce the security task workload while maintaining high controls.

A remote desktop gateway server is a solution that allows users to connect to remote desktops or applications over the internet using the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). A remote desktop gateway server can enforce MFA for RDP by integrating with Azure AD MFA using the Network Policy Server (NPS) extension. The NPS extension can send an OTP (one-time password) to the user’s phone or mobile app as a second factor of authentication. A remote desktop gateway server can also enforce secure ciphers by configuring the SSL Cipher Suite Order Group Policy setting to specify the preferred order of cipher suites for TLS/SSL connections. Verified References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-desktop-services/rds-plan-access-from-anywhere

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-nps-extension-rdg

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/security/tls/tls-registry-settings#ssl-cipher-suite-order

The Statement of Work is a document that outlines the scope of the penetration test and defines the objectives, tools, methodology, and targets of the test. It also outlines the security controls that will be impacted by the test and what the expected outcomes are. Additionally, the Statement of Work should include any legal requirements and other considerations that should be taken into account during the penetration test.

Code Snippet 1

Vulnerability 1: SQL injection

SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that interacts with a database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL commands into the input fields, such as username or password, and execute them on the database server. This can result in data theft, data corruption, or unauthorized access.

Fix 1: Perform input sanitization of the userid field.

Input sanitization is a technique that prevents SQL injection by validating and filtering the user input values before passing them to the database. The input sanitization should remove any special characters, such as quotes, semicolons, or dashes, that can alter the intended SQL query. Alternatively, the input sanitization can use a whitelist of allowed values and reject any other values.

Code Snippet 2

Vulnerability 2: Cross-site request forgery

Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that handles web requests. An attacker can trick a user into sending a malicious web request to a server that performs an action on behalf of the user, such as changing their password, transferring funds, or deleting data. This can result in unauthorized actions, data loss, or account compromise.

Fix 2: Implement anti-forgery tokens.

Anti-forgery tokens are techniques that prevent CSRF by adding a unique and secret value to each web request that is generated by the server and verified by the server before performing the action. The anti-forgery token should be different for each user and each session, and should not be predictable or reusable by an attacker. This way, only legitimate web requests from the user’s browser can be accepted by the server.

Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario.

An Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) is an attack that is targeted, well-planned, and conducted over a long period of time by a nation-state actor. The evidence provided in the scenario indicates that the security analyst has identified a foreign adversary, which is strong evidence that an APT/nation-state actor is responsible for the attack. Resources:

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 5: “Advanced Persistent Threats,” Wiley, 2018. https://www.wiley.com/en-us/CompTIA+Advanced+Security+Practitioner+CASP%2B+Study+Guide%2C+2nd+Edition-p-9781119396582

To protect confidential financial information on a laptop that is frequently moved between locations, full disk encryption (FDE) is a strong security measure that ensures that all data on the hard drive is encrypted. This means that if the laptop is lost or stolen, the data remains inaccessible without the encryption key. Additionally, backing up the file to an encrypted flash drive provides an extra layer of security and ensures that there is a secure copy of the file in case the laptop is compromised.

When drafting an agreement between two companies, it is important to clearly define the responsibilities of each party. This is particularly relevant when a software company is looking to integrate with an established product. A shared responsibility agreement ensures that both parties understand their respective responsibilities and are able to work together efficiently and effectively. For example, the software company might be responsible for integrating the product and ensuring it meets user needs, while the established product provider might be responsible for providing ongoing support and maintenance. By outlining these responsibilities in the agreement, both parties can ensure that the platform is built and maintained successfully. References: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 8, Working with Third Parties.

PAM (Privileged Access Management) is a solution that can increase the security posture of user endpoints by providing more visibility and control over local administrator accounts. By implementing PAM, removing users from the local administrators group, and prompting users for explicit approval when elevated privileges are required, the security engineer can reduce the attack surface, prevent unauthorized access, and enforce the principle of least privilege. Implementing PAM, keeping users in the local administrators group, and enabling local administrator account monitoring may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as users could still abuse or compromise their privileges. Implementing EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as EDR is mainly focused on detecting and responding to threats, not managing privileges. Enabling user behavior analytics may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as user behavior analytics is mainly focused on identifying anomalies or risks in user activity, not managing privileges. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pam https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Rate limiting is a technique that can limit the number or frequency of requests that a client can make to an API (application programming interface) within a given time frame. This can help remedy the performance issues caused by high CPU utilization on the servers that host the APIs, as it can prevent excessive or abusive requests that could overload the servers. Implementing geoblocking on the WAF (web application firewall) may not help remedy the performance issues, as it could block legitimate requests based on geographic location, not on request rate. Implementing OAuth 2.0 on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as OAuth 2.0 is a protocol for authorizing access to APIs, not for limiting requests. Implementing input validation on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as input validation is a technique for preventing invalid or malicious input from reaching the API, not for limiting requests. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rate-limiting https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A multicloud provider solution is the best option for proceeding with the digital transformation while ensuring SLA (service level agreement) requirements in the event of a CSP (cloud service provider) incident. A multicloud provider solution is a strategy that involves using multiple CSPs for different cloud services or applications, such as infrastructure, platform, or software as a service. A multicloud provider solution can provide resiliency, redundancy, and availability for cloud services or applications, as it can distribute the workload and risk across different CSPs and avoid single points of failure or vendor lock-in. An on-premises solution as a backup is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could involve high costs, complexity, or maintenance for maintaining both cloud and on-premises resources, as well as affect the scalability or flexibility of cloud services or applications. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for cloud services or applications, as well as not provide sufficient resiliency or redundancy in case of a CSP incident. An active-active solution within the same tenant is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could still be affected by a CSP incident that impacts the entire tenant or region, as well as increase the costs or complexity of managing multiple instances of cloud services or applications. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-multicloud https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Deploying SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) utilities and runbooks is the best technique for automating the process of restoring nominal performance on a legacy satellite link due to degraded modes of operation caused by deprecated hardware and software.

Utilizing code signing by a trusted third party and making the DACL (discretionary access control list) read-only are actions that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users. Code signing is a technique that uses digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of code, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. A trusted third party, such as a certificate authority, can issue and validate digital certificates for code signing. A DACL is an attribute of an object that defines the permissions granted or denied to users or groups for accessing or modifying the object. Making the DACL read-only can prevent unauthorized users or groups from changing the permissions or accessing the code. Implementing certificate-based authentication is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for verifying the identity of users or devices based on digital certificates, preventing unauthorized access or impersonation. Verifying MD5 hashes is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for checking the integrity of files based on cryptographic hash functions, detecting accidental or intentional changes or corruption. Compressing the program with a password is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for reducing the size of files and protecting them with a password, preventing unauthorized access or extraction. Encrypting with 3DES is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for protecting the confidentiality of data based on symmetric-key encryption algorithms, preventing unauthorized disclosure or interception. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-code-signing https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A VPN (virtual private network) can provide secure connectivity for remote users to access servers hosted by the cloud provider. A CASB (cloud access security broker) can enforce policies and controls for accessing SaaS applications. A secure web gateway can monitor and filter user browser activity to prevent malicious or unauthorized traffic. Verified References: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-vpn

Key escrow is a process that involves storing encryption keys with a trusted third party, such as a CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) or a government agency. Key escrow can enable authorized access to encrypted data in case of emergencies, legal issues, or data recovery. However, key escrow also introduces some risks and challenges, such as trust, security, and privacy. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1772/key-escrow https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/key-escrow

The security analyst should remove the cipher TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA to support the business requirements, as it is considered weak and vulnerable to on-path attacks. RC4 is an outdated stream cipher that has been deprecated by major browsers and protocols due to its flaws and weaknesses. The other ciphers are more secure and compliant with secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-cipher https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

According to NIST SP 800-146, cloud computing introduces new risks that need to be assessed and managed by the cloud consumer. Some of these risks are related to the shared responsibility model of cloud computing, where some security controls are implemented by the cloud provider and some by the cloud consumer. The cloud consumer cannot transfer all the risks to the cloud provider and needs to understand which risks are retained and which are mitigated by the cloud provider.3

In this scenario, the web application is disclosing sensitive debugging information when an error occurs. To mitigate this risk, the best solution is to implement proper error message handling routines that ensure detailed debugging information is not exposed to users. Instead, the application should display generic error messages to the end-user while logging detailed information securely for internal troubleshooting. This approach reduces the risk of information disclosure, which is a common vulnerability in web applications. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of secure error handling as part of secure software development practices.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Secure Coding and Error Handling)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Web Application Security and Proper Error Handling

 Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process memory location and executing code. Execute never is a feature that allows each memory region to be tagged as not containing executable code by setting the execute never (XN) bit in the translation table entry. If the XN bit is set to 1, then any attempt to execute an instruction in that region results in a permission fault. If the XN bit is cleared to 0, then code can execute from that memory region. Execute never also prevents speculative instruction fetches from memory regions that are marked as non-executable, which can avoid undesirable side-effects or vulnerabilities. By enabling execute never, the developer can protect the process memory from being hijacked by malware. Verified References:

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0360/f/memory-management-unit/memory-access-control/execute-never-bits

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/den0013/d/The-Memory-Management-Unit/Memory-attributes/Execute-Never

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0406/c/System-Level-Architecture/Virtual-Memory-System-Architecture–VMSA-/Memory-access-control/Execute-never-restrictions-on-instruction-fetching

Moving the server to a cloud provider is the most cost-effective solution to avoid performance issues caused by too many connections during peak seasons, such as holidays. Moving the server to a cloud provider can provide scalability, elasticity, and availability for the web server, as it can adjust its resources and capacity according to the demand and traffic. Moving the server to a cloud provider can also reduce operational and maintenance costs, as the cloud provider can handle the infrastructure and security aspects. Changing the operating system may not help avoid performance issues, as it could introduce compatibility or functionality problems, and it may not address the resource or capacity limitations. Buying a new server and creating an active-active cluster may help avoid performance issues, but it may not be cost-effective, as it could involve hardware and software expenses, as well as complex configuration and management tasks. Upgrading the server with a new one may help avoid performance issues, but it may not be cost-effective, as it could involve hardware and software expenses, as well as migration and testing efforts. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cloud-computing https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The output shows a SQL injection attack that is trying to exploit a web application. A WAF (Web Application Firewall) is a security solution that can detect and block malicious web requests, such as SQL injection, XSS, CSRF, etc. Placing a WAF inline would prevent the attack from reaching the web server and database. References: https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ddos/glossary/web-application-firewall-waf/

The process ID 87 can be the starting point for an investigation of a possible buffer overflow attack, as it shows a high percentage of CPU utilization (99.7%) and a suspicious command name (graphic.linux_randomization.prg). A buffer overflow attack is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in an application or system that allows an attacker to write data beyond the allocated buffer size, potentially overwriting memory segments and executing malicious code. A high CPU utilization could indicate that the process is performing intensive or abnormal operations, such as a buffer overflow attack. A suspicious command name could indicate that the process is trying to disguise itself or evade detection, such as by mimicking a legitimate program or using random characters. The other process IDs do not show signs of a buffer overflow attack, as they have low CPU utilization and normal command names. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-buffer-overflow https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A TPM (trusted platform module) is a hardware device that can provide boot loader protection by storing cryptographic keys and verifying the integrity of the boot process. An HSM (hardware security module) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for booting. A PKI (public key infrastructure) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication, but not boot loader protection. UEFI/BIOS are firmware interfaces that control the boot process, but they do not provide protection by themselves. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-tpm-trusted-platform-module https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Steganalysis is the process of detecting hidden data in files or media, such as images, audio, or video. One technique of steganalysis is to identify least significant bit encoding, which is a method of hiding data by altering the least significant bits of each byte in a file. For example, a .wav file could contain hidden data encoded in the least significant bits of each audio sample. Steganalysis techniques can help forensic responders to discover hidden evidence or malicious payloads. Breaking a symmetric cipher, determining the frequency of attacks, or maintaining chain of custody are not related to steganalysis. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

 This could be the cause of the lack of visibility from the WAF (Web Application Firewall) for the web application, as the WAF may not be able to inspect or block unencrypted HTTP traffic. To solve this issue, the web server should redirect all HTTP requests to HTTPS and use SSL/TLS certificates to encrypt the traffic.

Mobile application management (MAM) is a solution that allows the organization to control and secure the approved collaboration applications and the data within them on personal devices. MAM can prevent unstructured data from being exfiltrated by restricting the ability to move, copy, or share data between applications. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a solution that requires the user to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity when accessing corporate data. MFA can prevent data from being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials by adding an extra layer of security. Digital rights management (DRM) is a solution that protects the intellectual property rights of digital content by enforcing policies and permissions on how the content can be used, accessed, or distributed. DRM can prevent sensitive information in emails from being exfiltrated by encrypting the content and limiting the actions that can be performed on it, such as forwarding, printing, or copying. Verified References:

https://www.manageengine.com/data-security/what-is/byod.html

https://www.cimcor.com/blog/7-scariest-byod-security-risks-how-to-mitigate

A screened subnet is a network segment that separates two different environments, such as ОТ (operational technology) and IT (information technology), and provides security controls to limit and monitor the traffic between them. This would allow the business to get the required reports from the historian server without exposing the ОТ environment to unnecessary risks. Using a VPN, allowing IT traffic, or allowing PLCs to send data are less secure options that could compromise the ОТ environment. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-operational-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Increasing the frequency of backups and creating SIEM (security information and event management) alerts for IOCs (indicators of compromise) are the best recommendations that the management team can make based on RPO (recovery point objective) requirements. RPO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss that can occur during a disaster recovery event. Increasing the frequency of backups can reduce the amount of data loss that can occur, as it can create more recent copies or snapshots of the data. Creating SIEM alerts for IOCs can help detect and respond to ransomware attacks, as it can collect, correlate, and analyze security events and data from various sources and generate alerts based on predefined rules or thresholds. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as encourage more ransomware attacks or expose the company to legal or ethical issues. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and making the human resources fileshare read-only are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as affect the normal operations or functionality of the fileshare. Decreasing the frequency of backups and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as increase the risk of losing data due to less frequent backups or unreliable decryption. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rpo https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A wildcard certificate is a certificate that can be used for multiple subdomains of a domain, such as *.example.com. This would allow the inspection of the data without multiple certificate deployments, as one wildcard certificate can cover all the subdomains that will be separated out with subdomains. Including all available cipher suites may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as cipher suites are used for negotiating encryption and authentication algorithms, not for verifying certificates. Using a third-party CA (certificate authority) may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as a third-party CA is an entity that issues and validates certificates, not a type of certificate. Implementing certificate pinning may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as certificate pinning is a technique that hardcodes the expected certificate or public key in the application code, not a type of certificate. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-wildcard-certificate https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal and continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs are actions that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal is a technique that uses baselines, analytics, machine learning, or other methods to establish normal patterns of user activity and identify anomalies or outliers that could indicate malicious or suspicious behavior. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal can help detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments, as it can alert on unusual or unauthorized access attempts, commands, actions, or transactions by users. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs is a technique that uses tools, scripts, automation, or other methods to track and record changes made to code repositories by developers, testers, reviewers, or other parties involved in the software development process. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs can help detect authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, as it can audit and verify the source, time, reason, and impact of code changes made by authorized users. Performing static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect vulnerabilities, errors, bugs, or quality issues in committed code. Implementing an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to protect XML-based web services from threats or attacks by validating XML messages against predefined policies. Monitoring dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to identify outdated or vulnerable third-party libraries used in software development projects. Installing an IDS (intrusion detection system) on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes

MITRE ATT&CK is a threat management framework that provides a comprehensive and detailed knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It can help threat hunting teams to identify, understand, and prioritize potential threats, as well as to develop effective detection and response strategies. MITRE ATT&CK covers the entire lifecycle of a cyberattack, from initial access to impact, and provides information on how to mitigate, detect, and hunt for each technique. It also includes threat actor profiles, software descriptions, and data sources that can be used for threat intelligence and analysis. Verified References:

https://attack.mitre.org/

https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/top-threat-modeling-frameworks-stride-owasp-top-10-mitre-attck-framework/

https://www.ibm.com/topics/threat-management

Isolating the servers is the best immediate action to take after reporting the incident to the management team, as it can limit the damage and contain the ransomware infection. Paying the ransom is not advisable, as it does not guarantee the recovery of the data and may encourage further attacks. Notifying law enforcement is a possible step, but not the next one after reporting. Requesting that the affected servers be restored immediately may not be feasible or effective, as it depends on the availability and integrity of backups, and it does not address the root cause of the attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ransomware-and-how-to-protect-yourself https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

https://eklitzke.org/memory-protection-and-aslr

ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a technology that can mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. ASLR randomizes the location of memory segments, such as the stack, heap, or libraries, making it harder for an attacker to predict or control where to inject malicious code or overwrite memory segments. NX bit (No-eXecute bit) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. NX bit marks certain memory segments as non-executable, preventing an attacker from running code in those segments. DEP (Data Execution Prevention) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. DEP uses hardware and software mechanisms to mark certain memory regions as data-only, preventing an attacker from running code in those regions. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a device that can provide cryptographic functions and key storage, but it does not mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-aslr https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication for APIs (application programming interfaces). A PKI can be used to store customer keys for accessing APIs and segregating customer data sets. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a hardware device that provides cryptographic functions and key storage, but it is not suitable for storing customer keys for APIs. A hardware security module (HSM) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for APIs. A localized key store is a software component that stores keys locally, but it is not as secure or scalable as a PKI. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pki https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

IMAPS (Internet Message Access Protocol Secure) is a protocol that allows users to access and manipulate email messages on a remote mail server over a secure connection. IMAPS uses SSL/TLS encryption to protect the communication between the client and the server. IMAPS uses port 993 by default. To ensure IMAPS functions properly on the corporate user network, the security engineer should create an IMAPS firewall rule on the UTM (Unified Threat Management) device that allows traffic from VLAN 10 (Corporate Users) to VLAN 20 (Email Server) over port 993. The existing firewall rules do not allow this traffic, as they only allow HTTP (port 80), HTTPS (port 443), and SMTP (port 25). References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2460/internet-message-access-protocol-secure-imaps https://www.sophos.com/en-us/support/knowledgebase/115145.aspx

The indicator that shows when a company might not be viable after a disaster is the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD). MTD is the maximum amount of time that a business process or function can be disrupted without causing unacceptable consequences for the organization. MTD is a key metric for business continuity planning and disaster recovery, as it helps determine the recovery time objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO) for each process or function. If the actual downtime exceeds the MTD, the organization may face severe losses, reputational damage, regulatory penalties, or even bankruptcy. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/maximum-tolerable-downtime

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/recovery-time-objective

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/recovery-point-objective

Resource exhaustion is a condition that occurs when a system or service runs out of resources, such as memory, CPU, disk space, or bandwidth, and becomes unable to function properly or respond to requests. Resource exhaustion can be caused by high demand, poor design, misconfiguration, or malicious attacks, such as denial-of-service (DoS).

Resource exhaustion would be the most significant business risk to a company that signs a contract with a cloud service provider (CSP) that is able to provide the same uptime as other CSPs at a markedly reduced cost, because this could:

Indicate that the CSP is oversubscribing or underprovisioning its resources, which could result in performance degradation, service disruption, or data loss for the company.

Affect the company’s availability, reliability, and scalability requirements, which could impact its operations, reputation, and customer satisfaction.

Expose the company to potential security breaches or compliance violations, if the CSP does not implement adequate security controls or measures to prevent or mitigate resource exhaustion.

This is because a risk assessment requires identifying the assets that are valuable to the organization and could be targeted by attackers. A full inventory of information and data assets can help the analyst prioritize the most critical assets and determine their potential exposure to threats. Without knowing what assets are at stake, the analyst cannot effectively assess the risk level or the impact of an attack. Creating an inventory of assets is also a prerequisite for performing other actions, such as following compliance standards, measuring availability, or conducting penetration tests.

Preparation is the process that can be used to identify potential prevention recommendations after a security incident, such as a ransomware attack. Preparation involves planning and implementing security measures to prevent or mitigate future incidents, such as by updating policies, procedures, or controls, conducting training or awareness campaigns, or acquiring new tools or resources. Detection is the process of discovering or identifying security incidents, not preventing them. Remediation is the process of containing or resolving security incidents, not preventing them. Recovery is the process of restoring normal operations after security incidents, not preventing them. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-incident-response https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

VDI (virtual desktop infrastructure), proxy, CASB (cloud access security broker), and DRM (digital rights management) are technologies that can mitigate the concerns of processing sensitive information using SaaS (software as a service) collaboration tools. VDI is a technology that provides virtualized desktop environments for users that are hosted and managed by a central server, allowing users to access applications or data from any device or location. VDI can prevent data leakage to the media via printing of documents, as it can restrict or monitor the printing capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Proxy is a technology that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers, filtering or modifying web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Proxy can prevent data leakage to a personal email address, as it can block or redirect web requests to unauthorized or untrusted email domains or services. CASB is a technology that provides visibility and control over cloud services or applications, enforcing security policies or compliance requirements based on predefined rules or criteria. CASB can prevent data access and viewing by systems administrators, as it can encrypt or mask sensitive data before it reaches the cloud provider or application, making it unreadable or inaccessible by unauthorized parties. DRM is a technology that restricts the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices, enforcing the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can prevent data upload to a file storage site, as it can limit or disable the copying, sharing, or transferring capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-vdi https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The consultant should use the customer-provided VDI solution to perform work on the customer’s environment. VDI stands for virtual desktop infrastructure, which is a technology that allows users to access a virtual desktop hosted on a remote server. VDI can help meet the customer’s requirements by ensuring that all customer data remains under the customer’s control at all times, that third-party access to the customer environment is controlled by the customer, and that authentication credentials and access control are under the customer’s control. Verified References:

https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/threats/how-to-avoid-social-engineering-attacks

https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/ethical-hacking/understanding-preventing-social-engineering-attacks/

https://www.indusface.com/blog/10-ways-businesses-can-prevent-social-engineering-attacks/

Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process’ memory location. Execute never (also known as XN or NX) is a feature that marks certain memory regions as non-executable, meaning that they cannot be used to run code. This prevents malware from exploiting buffer overflows or other memory corruption vulnerabilities to inject malicious code into another process’ memory space.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 295]

Order of volatility is a procedure that a computer forensics examiner must follow during evidence collection. It refers to the order in which digital evidence is collected, starting with the most volatile and moving to the least volatile. Volatile data is data that is not permanent and is easily lost, such as data in memory when you turn off a computer. The security analyst should have followed the order of volatility to preserve the most fragile evidence first, such as the malicious script running as a background process, before turning off the infected machine. Verified References:

https://www.computer-forensics-recruiter.com/order-of-volatility/

https://www.sans.org/blog/best-practices-in-digital-evidence-collection/

https://blogs.getcertifiedgetahead.com/order-of-volatility/

WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic

This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.

Laptop A: Patch management

This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.

Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Laptop B: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.

PC B: Enable disk encryption

This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B’s data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.

PC C: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:

sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config

Server A. Need to select the following:

 Disabling file exchange can help to minimize data leakage by preventing users from sharing sensitive documents or data through the videoconferencing platform. Enabling watermarking can help to maintain customer trust and ensure non-repudiation by adding a visible or invisible mark to the video stream that identifies the source or owner of the content. Enabling the user authentication requirement can help to secure the videoconferencing sessions by verifying the identity of the participants and preventing unauthorized access. Verified References:

https://www.rev.com/blog/marketing/follow-these-7-video-conferencing-security-best-practices

https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/blog/2020/04/network-video-conferencing-security/

https://www.megameeting.com/news/best-practices-secure-video-conferencing/

The most likely cause of the error is the failure of TPM authentication. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware component that stores encryption keys and other security information. TPM can be used by BitLocker to protect the encryption keys and verify the integrity of the boot process. If TPM fails to authenticate the laptop, BitLocker will enter recovery mode and ask for a recovery PIN, which is a 48-digit numerical password that can be used to unlock the system. The administrator should check the TPM status and configuration and make sure it is working properly. Verified References:

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/finding-your-bitlocker-recovery-key-in-windows-6b71ad27-0b89-ea08-f143-056f5ab347d6

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/operating-system-security/data-protection/bitlocker/bitlocker-recovery-guide-plan

https://docs.sophos.com/esg/sgn/8-1/user/win/en-us/esg/SafeGuard-Enterprise/tasks/BitLockerRecoveryKey.html

Wireless network auto joining is the mobile configuration setting that the mobile administrator is verifying by reviewing the mobile device DHCP logs. Wireless network auto joining is a feature that allows mobile devices to automatically connect to a predefined wireless network without requiring user intervention or authentication. This can be useful for corporate or trusted networks that need frequent access by mobile devices. The DHCP logs show that the mobile devices are assigned IP addresses from the wireless network with SSID “CorpWiFi”, which indicates that they are auto joining this network.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 420]

Remote access services deployed using vendor-diverse redundancy with event response driven by playbooks is the best solution to meet the requirements. Vendor-diverse redundancy means using different vendors or technologies to provide the same service or function, which can increase the availability and resilience of the service. For example, if one vendor’s VPN solution fails due to a zero-day vulnerability, another vendor’s VPN solution can take over without affecting the users. Event response driven by playbooks means using predefined workflows or scripts to automate the actions or decisions that need to be taken in response to certain events or triggers. For example, a playbook can define how to switch between different remote access solutions based on certain criteria or conditions, such as performance, availability, security, or manual input. Playbooks can also be integrated with SOAR platforms to leverage their capabilities for orchestration, automation, and response. Verified References:

https://cyware.com/security-guides/security-orchestration-automation-and-response/what-is-vendor-agnostic-security-orchestration-automation-and-response-soar-40e4

https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-a-security-playbook

The developer would most likely implement a Root CA in the autonomous vehicle’s software. A Root CA is the top-level authority in a PKI that issues and validates certificates for subordinate CAs or end entities. A Root CA can be self-signed and embedded in the vehicle’s software, which would reduce the need for external communication and verification. A Root CA would also enable the vehicle to use digital signatures and encryption for secure communication with other vehicles or infrastructure. Verified References:

https://cse.iitkgp.ac.in/~abhij/publications/PKI++.pdf

https://www.digicert.com/blog/connected-cars-need-security-use-pki

https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/9822667/

In a PaaS implementation, the provider offers relief to the organization’s teams by sharing in many of the operational duties related to the application/platform software. The provider is responsible for securing and maintaining the underlying infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, runtime environments, and other software components that support the platform and the applications running on it. The provider also handles tasks such as patching, updating, scaling, and backing up the platform software.

A. Application-specific data assets are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization owns and controls its own data and must ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The organization must also comply with any applicable data protection laws and regulations.

B. Application user access management is the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must define and enforce its own policies and procedures for granting, revoking, and monitoring access to its applications and data. The organization must also ensure that its users follow security best practices such as strong passwords and multifactor authentication.

C. Application-specific logic and code are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must develop, test, deploy, and manage its own applications using the tools and services provided by the platform. The organization must also ensure that its applications are secure, reliable, and performant.

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS

A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution is a software platform that can automate the detection and response of known threats, such as ransomware, phishing, or denial-of-service attacks. A SOAR solution can also integrate with other security tools, such as IPS, NGFW, SIEM, and threat feeds, to provide a comprehensive and dynamic security posture. A SOAR solution would best satisfy the requirements of the online file hosting service, because it would:

Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.

Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.

Not interfere with customers’ ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.

Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.

A static code analyzer is a tool that analyzes computer software without actually running the software. A static code analyzer can help developers find and fix vulnerabilities, bugs, and security risks in their new applications while the source code is in its ‘static’ state. A static code analyzer can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities by checking the code against a set of coding rules, standards, and best practices. A static code analyzer can also help improve the code quality, performance, and maintainability.

A. An open-source automation server is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. An open-source automation server is a tool that automates various tasks related to software development and delivery, such as building, testing, deploying, and monitoring. An open-source automation server can help speed up the CI/CD pipeline, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

C. Trusted open-source libraries are not tools that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. Trusted open-source libraries are collections of reusable code that developers can use to implement common or complex functionalities in their applications. Trusted open-source libraries can help save time and effort for developers, but they do not guarantee that the code is free of defects or vulnerabilities.

D. A single code repository for all developers is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. A single code repository for all developers is a centralized storage location where developers can access and manage their source code files. A single code repository for all developers can help facilitate collaboration and version control, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

https://www.comparitech.com/net-admin/best-static-code-analysis-tools/

https://www.perforce.com/blog/sca/what-static-analysis

Watermarking is a technique of adding an identifying image or pattern to an original image to protect its ownership and authenticity. Watermarks can be customized to include specific information about the external party, such as their name, logo, or date of receipt. This way, if any draft images are leaked to the public, the firm can trace back the source of the leak and take appropriate actions. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Watermark

https://www.canva.com/features/watermark-photos/

https://www.mdpi.com/2078-2489/11/2/110

A source code escrow is a legal agreement that involves a third party holding the source code of a software application on behalf of the software vendor and the software licensee. The source code escrow ensures that the licensee can access the source code in case the vendor goes out of business, fails to provide maintenance or support, or breaches the contract terms.

A source code escrow would have prevented the risk of having an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business, because it would:

Allow the licensee to obtain the source code and continue to update, fix, or modify the application according to their needs.

Protect the vendor’s intellectual property rights and prevent unauthorized disclosure or use of the source code.

Provide a legal framework and a trusted mediator for resolving any disputes or issues between the vendor and the licensee.

Implementing an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing is the best way to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL. Third-party software and libraries are often used by developers to save time and resources, but they may also introduce security risks if they are not properly maintained and updated. By reviewing and testing the third-party software and library regularly, the company can ensure that they are using the latest and most secure version of OpenSSL, and that their proprietary software is compatible and functional with it.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 362]

SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a technology that allows organizations to use multiple, low-cost Internet connections to create a secure and dynamic WAN. SD-WAN can provide benefits such as lower costs, higher performance, and easier management compared to traditional WAN technologies, such as MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching).

However, SD-WAN also introduces some potential risks, such as:

The reliability and security of the Internet connections, which may vary depending on the location, provider, and traffic conditions.

The compatibility and interoperability of the SD-WAN hardware and software, which may come from different vendors or use different standards.

The availability and quality of the SD-WAN provider’s support, which may depend on the provider’s size, reputation, and outsourcing practices.

In this case, the CISO would most likely identify the risk that the SD-WAN provider uses a third party for support, because this could:

Affect the organization’s ability to resolve issues or request changes in a timely and effective manner.

Expose the organization’s network data and configuration to unauthorized or malicious parties.

Increase the complexity and uncertainty of the SD-WAN service level agreement (SLA) and contract terms.

The most likely cause of the signature failing is that the certificate is set for the wrong key usage. Key usage is an extension of a certificate that defines the purpose and functionality of the public key contained in the certificate. Key usage can include digital signature, key encipherment, data encipherment, certificate signing, and others. If the certificate is set for a different key usage than digital signature, it will not be able to sign the applications properly. The administrator should check the key usage extension of the certificate and make sure it matches the intended purpose. Verified References:

https://www.wintips.org/how-to-fix-windows-cannot-verify-the-digital-signature-for-this-file-error-in-windows-8-7-vista/

https://softwaretested.com/mac/how-to-fix-a-digital-signature-error-on-windows-10/

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/digital-signatures-and-certificates-8186cd15-e7ac-4a16-8597-22bd163e8e96

OCSP stapling is a solution that allows the web server to provide a time-stamped OCSP response signed by the CA along with the certificate during the TLS handshake, eliminating the need for the client to contact the CA separately to validate the certificate. OCSP stapling can reduce the delay caused by the certificate validation process by saving a round-trip between the client and the CA. It can also improve the security and privacy of the certificate validation by preventing potential attacks or tracking by malicious third parties. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OCSP_stapling

https://www.digicert.com/knowledgebase/ssl-certificates/ssl-general-topics/what-is-ocsp-stapling.html

https://www.entrust.com/knowledgebase/ssl/online-certificate-status-protocol-ocsp-stapling

Cipher feedback (CFB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that allows them to encrypt streaming data. CFB uses an initialization vector (IV) and a block cipher to generate a keystream that is XORed with the plaintext to produce the ciphertext. CFB has low latency because it can encrypt each byte or bit of plaintext as soon as it arrives, without waiting for a full block. CFB is suitable for streaming data because it does not require padding or block synchronization.

B. Cipher block chaining message authentication code (CBC-MAC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides both encryption and authentication. CBC-MAC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt the plaintext and generate a MAC value that is appended to the ciphertext. CBC-MAC has high latency because it requires the entire message to be processed before generating the MAC value. CBC-MAC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

C. Cipher block chaining (CBC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. CBC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext by XORing it with the previous ciphertext block. CBC has high latency because it requires a full block of plaintext before encryption. CBC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

D. Electronic codebook (ECB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. ECB uses a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext independently. ECB has low latency because it can encrypt each block of plaintext as soon as it arrives. However, ECB is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization. Moreover, ECB is insecure because it does not use an IV and produces identical ciphertext blocks for identical plaintext blocks.

The SIEM logs indicate suspicious behavior that could be a sign of a compromise, such as the launching of cmd.exe after Outlook.exe, which is atypical user behavior and could indicate that a machine has been compromised to perform lateral movement within the network. Isolating laptop314 from the network would contain the threat and prevent any potential spread to other systems while further investigation takes place.

Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption method that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without first decrypting it with a secret key. The results of the computations also remain encrypted and can only be decrypted by the owner of the private key. Homomorphic encryption can be used for privacy-preserving outsourced storage and computation. This means that data can be encrypted and sent to a cloud service provider (CSP) for processing, without revealing any information to the CSP or anyone else who might intercept the data. Homomorphic encryption can enable new services and applications that require processing confidential data on a large number of resources, such as machine learning, data analytics, health care, finance, and voting.

A. Processing data on a server after decrypting in order to prevent unauthorized access in transit is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not take advantage of the main feature of homomorphic encryption, which is computing over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data in transit.

B. Maintaining the confidentiality of data both at rest and in transit to and from a CSP for processing is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not take advantage of the main feature of homomorphic encryption, which is computing over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data at rest and in transit.

D. Storing proprietary data across multiple nodes in a private cloud to prevent access by unauthenticated users is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not involve any computation over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data at rest.

https://www.splunk.com/en_us/blog/learn/homomorphic-encryption.html

https://research.aimultiple.com/homomorphic-encryption/

 DLP, or data loss prevention, and CASB, or cloud access security broker, are the solutions that when installed and configured would best meet the CSO’s requirements. DLP is a technology that monitors and prevents unauthorized or accidental data leakage or exfiltration from an organization’s network or devices. DLP can use document attributes, such as metadata, keywords, or fingerprints, to identify and classify sensitive data and enforce policies on how they can be accessed, transferred, or shared. CASB is a technology that acts as a proxy or intermediary between an organization’s cloud services and its users. CASB can provide visibility, compliance, threat protection, and data security for cloud-based applications and data. CASB can also prevent on-site staff from accessing personal SaaS solutions that are not authorized by the organization.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 281-282 and 424-425]

Netstat is a command-line tool that can be used to find the malicious process that is using a specific port on a Windows workstation. Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols). To find the process that is using a specific port, such as TCP 40322, the security engineer can use the following command:

netstat -ano | findstr :40322

This command will filter the netstat output by the port number and show the process identifier (PID) of the process that is using that port. The security engineer can then use the task manager or another tool to identify and terminate the malicious process by its PID. Verified References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat

https://www.howtogeek.com/28609/how-can-i-tell-what-is-listening-on-a-tcpip-port-in-windows/

The administrator should use SAN certificates to support multiple domain names while minimizing the amount of certificates needed. SAN stands for Subject Alternative Name, which is an extension of a certificate that allows it to include multiple fully-qualified domain names (FQDNs) within the same certificate. For example, a SAN certificate can secure www.example.com, www.example.net, and mail.example.org with one certificate. SAN certificates can reduce the cost and complexity of managing multiple certificates for different domains. SAN certificates can also support wildcard domains, such as *.example.com, which can cover any subdomain under that domain. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/Subject-Alternative-Name

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/wildcard-certificate

https://www.nexcess.net/help/what-is-a-multi-domain-ssl-certificate/

The organization is implementing homomorphic encryption. Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it first. This means that the organization can analyze the customers’ data and deliver analysis results without being able to see the raw data, preserving the privacy and confidentiality of the customers. Homomorphic encryption can enable various applications, such as cloud computing, machine learning, and data analytics, that require processing sensitive data without compromising security. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/homomorphic-encryption

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/encryption-at-rest

https://www.ibm.com/topics/homomorphic-encryption

Key escrow is the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Key escrow is an arrangement in which the keys needed to decrypt encrypted data are held in escrow by a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, or for complying with legal or regulatory requirements that may demand access to encrypted data.

B. TPM is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a computer. TPM does not involve any third party or escrow service.

C. Trust models are not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Trust models are frameworks that define how entities can establish and maintain trust relationships in a network or system. Trust models do not necessarily involve any third party or escrow service.

D. Code signing is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Code signing is a process of using digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of software code. Code signing does not involve any third party or escrow service.

The methods that can be used to protect user internet privacy, to ensure the connection is encrypted, and to keep user activity hidden are proxy and MAC address randomization. A proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and the internet, hiding the user’s IP address and location from websites and other online services. A proxy can also encrypt the connection between the user and the proxy server, preventing anyone from snooping on the user’s traffic. MAC address randomization is a feature that changes the MAC address of a mobile device periodically or when connecting to different networks. A MAC address is a unique identifier of a network interface that can be used to track the device’s location and activity. MAC address randomization can help protect the user’s privacy by making it harder for third parties to link the device to a specific user or network. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/proxy-server

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/MAC-address-randomization

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/MAC-address-Media-Access-Control-address

The analyst should implement every solution one at a time in a virtual lab, running an attack simulation each time while collecting metrics. Roll back each solution and then implement the next. Choose the best solution based on the best metrics. This approach would allow the analyst to test each solution individually and measure its effectiveness against the attack, without affecting the other solutions or the production environment. This would also minimize the downtime required to implement the best solution, as only one change would be needed. The other options would either involve implementing multiple solutions at once, which could cause conflicts or errors, or collecting metrics before running the attack simulation, which would not reflect the actual impact of the solutions.

Rules of engagement are legal documents that should be signed by all parties involved in an assessment to ensure they understand their roles and responsibilities. Rules of engagement define the scope, objectives, methods, deliverables, limitations, and expectations of an assessment project. They also specify the legal and ethical boundaries, communication channels, escalation procedures, and reporting formats for the assessment. Rules of engagement help to avoid misunderstandings, conflicts, or liabilities during or after an assessment.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 34]

A downgrade attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack that forces two hosts to use an older or weaker version of the TLS protocol or its parameters. The attacker does this by replacing or deleting the STARTTLS command or exploiting the compatibility features of the protocol. The purpose of the attack is to create a pathway for enabling a cryptographic attack that would not be possible in case of a connection that is encrypted over the latest version of TLS protocol. The IOC shows that most client connections are renegotiated after establishing the connections, which could indicate that an entity is performing downgrade attacks on path by interfering with the initial handshake and making the client and server agree on a lower version of TLS or a weaker cipher suite. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downgrade_attack

https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/10493/why-is-tls-susceptible-to-protocol-downgrade-attacks

https://venafi.com/blog/preventing-downgrade-attacks/

Law enforcement officials informed an organization that an investigation has begun. Which of the following is the FIRST step the organization should take?

Initiate a legal hold.

Refer to the retention policy

Perform e-discovery.

Review the subpoena

Answer: A

A legal hold is a process by which an organization instructs its employees or other relevant parties to preserve specific data for potential litigation. A legal hold is triggered when litigation is reasonably anticipated, such as when law enforcement officials inform an organization that an investigation has begun. The first step the organization should take is to initiate a legal hold to ensure that relevant evidence is not deleted, destroyed, or altered. A legal hold also demonstrates the organization’s good faith and compliance with its duty to preserve evidence. Verified References:

https://percipient.co/litigation-hold-triggers-and-the-duty-to-preserve-evidence/

https://www.everlaw.com/blog/ediscovery-best-practices/guide-to-legal-holds/

The company should use HMAC SHA256 as a cryptographic technique to ensure that packets received between two parties have not been tampered with and the connection remains private. HMAC stands for hash-based message authentication code, which is a method of generating a message authentication code using a cryptographic hash function and a secret key. HMAC can provide both integrity and authenticity of the packets, as well as resistance to replay attacks. SHA256 is a specific hash function that produces a 256-bit output. SHA256 is considered secure and widely used in various cryptographic applications. Verified References:

https://www.ericsson.com/en/blog/2021/7/cryptography-and-privacy-protecting-private-data

https://www.mdpi.com/journal/cryptography/special_issues/Preserve_Enhance_Privacy

https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s11432-021-3393-x

Reviewing video from IP cameras within the facility would be the most likely process to expose an attacker who has compromised an air-gapped system. Since air-gapped systems are isolated from external networks, an attacker would need physical access to the system or use some covert channel to communicate with it. Video surveillance could reveal any unauthorized or suspicious activity within the facility that could be related to the attack. Verified References:

https://www.welivesecurity.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/eset_jumping_the_air_gap_wp.pdf

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air-Gap_Malware

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/essentialguide/How-air-gap-attacks-challenge-the-notion-of-secure-networks

Field masking is a technique that hides or obscures part of the information in a data field, such as a password, credit card number, or social security number. Field masking can be used to protect sensitive or confidential data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while still allowing authorized users to view or verify the data.

Field masking should be implemented to authenticate employees who call in remotely by allowing the help desk staff to view partial information about employees, because field masking would:

Enable the help desk staff to verify the identity of the employees by asking them to provide some characters or digits from their data fields, such as their employee ID or email address.

Prevent the help desk staff from viewing the full information about employees, which may be considered sensitive and subject to privacy regulations or policies.

Reduce the risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse by limiting the exposure of sensitive data to only those who need it.

The organization’s new email system should provide e-discovery functionality. E-discovery stands for electronic discovery, which is the process of identifying, preserving, collecting, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant to a legal matter. E-discovery can help the organization comply with legal holds, which are orders or notices to preserve relevant ESI when litigation is anticipated or ongoing. E-discovery can also help the organization reduce the costs and risks of litigation, as well as improve the efficiency and accuracy of the discovery process. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/electronic-discovery

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/legal-hold

https://www.ibm.com/topics/electronic-discovery

The three metric groups that are needed to calculate CVSS scores are Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metrics represent the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Temporal metrics represent the characteristics of a vulnerability that may change over time but not across user environments. The Environmental metrics represent the characteristics of a vulnerability that are relevant and unique to a particular user’s environment. Verified References:

https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

https://www.first.org/cvss/specification-document

The EDR output shows the process tree of the ransomware infection. The root node is NO-AV.exe, which is a malicious executable that disables antivirus software and downloads the DearCry ransomware. The NO-AV.exe process was launched on cpt-ws026 by a user named John. The DearCry.exe process was then launched on cpt-ws026 by NO-AV.exe and propagated to other devices via SMB. Therefore, the ransomware originated from cpt-ws026 and NO-AV.exe. Verified References:

https://www.microsoft.com/security/blog/2021/03/12/analyzing-dearcry-ransomware-the-first-attack-to-exploit-exchange-server-vulnerabilities/

https://www.crowdstrike.com/blog/dearcry-ransomware-analysis/