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BA1 Fundamentals of Business Economics Question and Answers

Question # 4

The company flowbo Ltd. currently owns 25 bonds with a total nominal value of £1,000. The bill rate is currently 7%. The market value of the bonds is currently 14.5% higher than the nominal value of each individual bond

plus the bill rate.

Which of these is the difference between the nominal value of the bonds plus the bill rate payout and the market value of each bond?

Express your answer in whole pounds.

A.

£1,021

B.

£1,070

C.

£1,225.15

D.

£1,155.12

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Question # 5

Since its release. Bob Aker's 'Cooking to Go' has sold the following number of copies each Q1:

2X13:200

2X14:430

2X15:530

2X16:450

Using these figures and the equation, y (trend) = 500 + 20x, which of the following is the mean seasonal average of sales of Bob Aker's 'Cooking to Go' for Q1 over the last four years?

Calculate all the final and answer and all intermediate workings to 2 dp.

0.77

0.85

1.02

4.5

0.63

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Question # 6

ToyTown, a soft toy manufacturer, produces what it claims to be the cheapest teddy bears on the market. The graph shows the current price of a ToyTown teddy bear and its relationship to the demand for ToyTown teddy

bears.

If the price of ToyTown teddy bears were to increase, what would happen to the demand?

A.

Demand would fall as consumers would look for alternative teddy bears to buy

B.

Demand would increase because the teddy bears would be seen as more prestigious by consumers due to their higher prices

C.

Demand would fall as the relationship between price and demand as shown in the graph is inelastic

D.

Demand would increase as the relationship between price and demand as shown in the graph is elastic

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Question # 7

If out of every £20 million increase in national income, £2 million is saved, £4 million is spent on imports and £4 million is paid to the government in taxation, an increase in exports of £40 million will lead to an eventual increase in national income of

A.

£20 million

B.

£40 million

C.

£80 million

D.

£400 million

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Question # 8

A trade agreement that removes all import tariffs between member countries, sets up common external tariffs against non-members, but does not advance toward economic integration is called

A.

an economic union.

B.

a customs union.

C.

a free trade area.

D.

a common market

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Question # 9

Brian has 80 bonds with a total market value of £2400. The interest rate on these bonds is 2.34%.

Using these figures, which of the following is the running yield of each of Brian's bonds?

A.

8.87%

B.

8.86%

C.

8.9%

D.

8.83%

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Question # 10

RubTech has decided to build a new rubber production facility just outside the semi-rural town of Pettisbury. The majority of workers at the plant are to be sourced from abroad.

Which of the following could potentially be negative externalities of the decision to build the production facility?

A.

Production processes

B.

Rood congestion

C.

The decision to source workers from abroad

D.

Antisocial behaviour

E.

The high unemployment rate in the local area

F.

The poor infrastructure in the local area

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Question # 11

The Competition and Markets Authority is a regulatory body in the UK. In 2017, the CMA found the proposed merger of Heineken and Punch Pubs in breach of its competition laws. Heineken and Punch Pubs have agreed

to divest in pubs in areas where they are the two dominant pub companies.

Which of the following are ways in which consumers might directly benefit from this decision?

Select ALL that apply.

A.

Heineken/Punch Pubs will not be able to charge excessive prices for alcoholic beverages served at their pubs

B.

There will be a greater variety of pubs for consumers to choose from in certain areas

C.

Heineken will divest in a certain number of pubs where the merger would have created monopolies

D.

The companies' divestment of pubs in certain areas could lead to the closure of the majority of pubs in said area

E.

The CMA will use this decision as a precedent for others in the future

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Question # 12

Country X is a country highly reliant on its oil exports. However, in recent months, oil prices have fallen by 20%. It is located near Country Y, an oil exporter which is a member of a trading bloc. Country X has some coal reserves, but faces stiff competition from Country Z, a member of the trading bloc, which also exports coal.

Which of the following would be the most effective way for the government to alleviate these circumstances?

Select ALL that apply.

A.

Purchase oil produced within the country in order to support the domestic oil industry

B.

Invest in retraining those working in the oil industry so they can enter other domestic industries which are currently more profitable

C.

Dump its oil exports into the trading bloc by exporting the oil at an artificially low price

D.

Begin extracting and exporting coal as a substitute for oil

E.

Allow the oil industry in Country X without any further investment to fail as it is a sunset industry

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Question # 13

The British Government has decided to invest £10m in the Department of Education to build new schools in the most deprived areas of the country.

In what way does this benefit the British economy?

A.

It is a supply-side policy which will lead to a more productive workforce in the future

B.

It is a policy which will increase demand internationally for the higher standard of education in Britain

C.

It will lead to a reduction in taxes

D.

It will lead to more private sector involvement in education

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Question # 14

PetsPlus Pic. has outsourced its marketing operations to the recently established marketing firm MarketMe. MarketMe has devised and distributed an online survey on behalf of PetsPlus Pic, asking customers to

evaluate the products they purchase from the company.

An example of a question from the survey is as follows:

'What do you think of PetsPlus's decision to outsource its marketing operations to a marketing firm?

Which of the following best describes why this question will not yield good information for PetsPlus?

A.

Relevance

B.

Accuracy

C.

Reliability

D.

Cost efficiency

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Question # 15

Market price refers to:

A.

the price that is determined by demand and supply.

B.

the price that includes tax

C.

the value that is adjusted for inflation.

D.

the price that maximise profits.

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Question # 16

A government issues a security which promises to pay $100 per year indefinitely. What is it worth if the required rate of return is..

A.

$2, 400

B.

$1, 400

C.

$2, 500

D.

$4, 000

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Question # 17

The following cash flows are for a capital project where the required rate of return is 8 percent

Calculate the NPV for the project. Give your answer to the nearest whole number

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Question # 18

Dividend income from shares held overseas is recorded in which of the following balance of payments components?

A.

Capital account

B.

Financial account

C.

Profit account

D.

Current account

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Question # 19

Public goods are usually provided by the government because:

A.

individual users do not have sufficient knowledge to appreciate their importance.

B.

individual users do not have sufficient incentives to privately fund their provision.

C.

individual users do not have sufficient bargaining power to secure a low price.

D.

individual users do not have sufficient funds to purchase them

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Question # 20

Which TWO of the following policy actions might be available to a government that wishes to reduce a deficit in the balance of payments?

A.

Devaluate the exchange rate in order to increase exports.

B.

Increase the money supply in order to stimulate domestic consumption.

C.

Appreciate the exchange rate in order to reduce imports.

D.

Reduce the interest rate in order to stimulate investment.

E.

Introduce tariffs on imported goods in order to favour domestic producers.

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Question # 21

The following table shows the profits of a business and an index of the general price level for 4 years

How does the level of real (inflation adjusted) profits in 20X4 compare to those of 20X1 ?

A.

+ $l8m

B.

+ $12.5m

C.

+ S3m

D.

+ $0-6m

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Question # 22

Based on a trade balance between Country A and Country B over a ten year period, the underlying trend of the trade balance is represent equation

-114.027 -1.47x

where x is the time period expressed in years.

Assuming an additive forecasting model, with a seasonal factor of 82 6, then the forecast for year 2016, in whole units is:

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Question # 23

A business sells 10,000 units of its product pet month at a unit price of $10 It reduces the pnce to $88,000 per unit As a result its total reviewed $88,000 per month. What is the price elasticity of demand for this product?

A.

+1.87

B.

+0.6

C.

-2

D.

-0.5

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Question # 24

A company in Country M owns a subsidiary in Country O valued at OS200 million. The rate of exchange between the Country M dollar (M$) and the Country O dollar (OS) is OS1 - MS6

If the Country M S depreciated by 10% what would be the increase or decrease in the MS valuation of the subsidiary?

Give your answer in whole millions and indicate whether it is an increase or decrease.

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Question # 25

The use of hedging is to reduce or eliminate exposure to which of the following?

1. Credit risk

2. Economic risk

3. Transaction risk

4. Transition risk.

A.

1, 3 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 2 and 3

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Question # 26

Which of the following will result in an increase in demand for domestic currency?

A.

An increase in exports.

B.

A rise in imports.

C.

More domestic companies invest abroad.

D.

Outward financial flows.

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Question # 27

Which of the following describes the effect an interest rate rise may have on a company?

A.

Prices will have to increase due to increased inflationary pressures

B.

Sales will increase as consumers have stable incomes in the short term.

C.

The cost of financing projects through loans will increase

D.

The cost of holding stock will reduce

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Question # 28

A research business compiles the following data for Country D over 8 years:

* Household expenditure, y (in millions of constant 20X6 dollars);

* The number of fixed broadband internet subscribers, x (in thousands).

Based on this information the following regression model is developed:

y = 332668 * 45.8x - 0 003x2

Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

The model is based on historical data, so it is of little use in making forecasts

B.

1 percent increase in the number of fixed broadband internet subscribers will lead to 0 3 percent increase in household final consumption expenditure.

C.

A non-linear relationship is suggested by the model between household final consumption expenditure and the number of fixed broadband internet subscribers.

D.

The model makes accurate forecasts on household final consumption expenditure in Country and therefore it should be widely applied to most countries and regions.

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Question # 29

Following the emergence of the global banking crisis in 2007 many central banks undertook quantitative easing through purchasing bonds back from banks with new money. Which function of a central bank does this describe?

A.

Banker to the banking system

B.

Supervision of the banking system

C.

Banker to the government

D.

Lender of last resort to the banking system

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Question # 30

The Global Banking Crisis showed that banks had failed in all of the following ways except which ONE?

A.

Maintain adequate liquidity

B.

Generate adequate profitability

C.

Maintain adequate security of lending

D.

Exercise adequate risk management

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Question # 31

Which ONE of the following would be expected to reduce the net present value of a proposed investment project?

A rise in

A.

the expected cash flows from the project

B.

the scrap value of the capital at the end of the project's life

C.

interest rates

D.

the net present value of alternative projects

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Question # 32

Whenever a government provides health care services free of charge

A.

Economic welfare is maximized

B.

Government expenditure on the provision of public goods increases

C.

The incentive to provide private health care through the market disappears

D.

Provision of merit goods by the state is taking place

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Question # 33

Identify the source of funds most appropriate for a growing company to use which wishes to borrow funds long-term to pay for initial marketing research and promotion?

A.

A debenture

B.

A commercial bill

C.

Ordinary shares

D.

Overdraft

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Question # 34

The euro currency market is

A.

Markets within the European Union where foreign currencies are bought and sold.

B.

The market for the single European currency, the euro.

C.

The market for bank deposits denominated in a currency other than that of the country where the bank is located.

D.

The market for bank deposits which can be switched into any other currency at 24 hours notice.

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Question # 35

Central banks fulfill all of the following functions except which?

A.

Holder of bank accounts on behalf of the commercial banks

B.

Lender of liquidity to the commercial banks

C.

Provider of capital and liquidity to the government

D.

Chief advisor to government on taxation policy

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Question # 36

A financial intermediary takes the small deposits of millions of savers and uses them to buy an issue of government (treasury) bills and bonds.

Identify from the list below the principle this illustrates:

A.

Maturity transformation

B.

Aggregation

C.

Risk transformation

D.

Money transmission

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Question # 37

All of the financial instruments are traded on the long term capital market except one. Which ONE is the exception?

A.

Shares

B.

Certificate deposit

C.

Government undated stock

D.

Long dated bonds

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Question # 38

All of the following are functions of a central bank except one. Which ONE is the exception?

A.

Lender of the last resort

B.

Banker to the commercial banks

C.

The conduct of fiscal policy

D.

Regulation of the banking system

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Question # 39

If a firm reduces the price of its good from $10 to $8 and, as a result, sales rise from 20,000 per month to 22,000 per month, the price elasticity of demand for its good must be

A.

-1

B.

-0.5

C.

+0.5

D.

+1

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Question # 40

When central banks adopt a policy of 'quantitative easing' this means that they:

A.

Lift quantitative restrictions on bank lending

B.

Lower the capital adequacy requirements for banks

C.

Buy government bonds from the banks

D.

Ease the liquidity ratios banks need to hold

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Question # 41

Which ONE of the following was NOT a contributor to the Global Banking Crisis after 2007?

A.

Excessive lending to the sub-prime mortgage market

B.

Excessive lending by commercial banks against limited reserves

C.

Economic recession and the credit crunch

D.

Excessively complicated financial assets which disguised risks

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Question # 42

Which of the following are not classed as a non-bank financial intermediary?

A.

Life insurance companies

B.

Building societies

C.

Finance houses

D.

Investment exchanges

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Question # 43

If a firm increases employment of all its factors of production by 50% and as a result output increases by 60%, it has experienced

A.

Increasing productivity of labor

B.

Increasing returns to scale

C.

External economies of scale

D.

The benefits of the division of labor

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Question # 44

All the following statements about small firms are correct except one. Which statement is incorrect?

A.

Small firms do not generally raise finance on the capital market

B.

Banks may refuse to lend to small firms because of the risk involved

C.

Small firms are common in industries which display increasing returns to scale

D.

Small firms are common in industries where there are niche markets

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Question # 45

Which ONE of the following statements best describes the impact of a government price floor (minimum price) set below free market price?

A.

It will create a shortage of the product and incentives for producers and consumers to evade the policy

B.

It will create a surplus of unsold produce that will need to be paid for from taxation

C.

It will not affect market price or producer incomes at the present time

D.

It will increase farm incomes but eventually force the government to introduce maximum quotas on production

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Question # 46

All of the following are barriers to entry into an industry except which one?

A.

The existence of significant economies of scale

B.

Important production processes are subject to patents

C.

Low price elasticity of demand for the product

D.

Extensive product differentiation in the industry

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Question # 47

A rise in the demand for petrol by motorists is likely to follow a rise in the price of:

A.

Steel

B.

Second-hand cars

C.

Public transport

D.

Motor insurance

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Question # 48

In a supply and demand diagram, other things remaining the same, an increase in production costs will normally shift:

A.

The demand curve to the right

B.

The supply curve to the right

C.

The demand curve to the left

D.

The supply curve to the left

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Question # 49

The market demand for a good has a price elasticity of demand of 0.4. Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

Consumer expenditure will fall as price rises

B.

Producers' incomes will rise as price falls

C.

It is a product with many close substitutes

D.

Total quantity sold will fall as price rises

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Question # 50

If a manufacturing firm contributes to global warming as a byproduct of its production process, this is an example of

A.

A merit good

B.

An external social cost

C.

A diseconomy of scale

D.

A public good

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Question # 51

For a business, diseconomies of scale occur when

A.

the gains from the division of labor are exhausted

B.

all available economies of scale have been exhausted

C.

the market for the firm's product becomes saturated

D.

difficulties in managing a large firm lead to rising long run average costs

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Question # 52

RST plc wishes to maximize its profits. At present it is producing where MC is less than MR. Which ONE of the following would NOT be good advice for RST plc?

A.

Reduce output

B.

Advertise the product to increase demand

C.

Cut fixed costs

D.

Produce a higher output

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Question # 53

All of the following are examples of how e-business can benefit a business organization except one. Which ONE is the exception?

A.

Cheaper procurement via on line search and ordering

B.

Reduced transport costs from internet buying

C.

Lower entry barriers by reducing the need for expensive premises

D.

Reduced transactions costs leading to low variable costs

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Question # 54

A market is in equilibrium. If the government imposes a minimum price above the equilibrium price, there will be:

A.

an extension in demand, a contraction in supply and a market shortage

B.

a decrease in demand, an extension in supply and a market surplus

C.

a contraction in demand, an increase in supply and a market surplus

D.

a contraction in demand, an extension in supply and market surplus

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Question # 55

If the government imposed a legal minimum wage that was above the market equilibrium wage, the resulting unemployment would be the greatest when:

A.

the demand for labor and the supply of labor are both price inelastic

B.

the demand for labor and the supply of labor are both price elastic

C.

the demand for labor is price inelastic and the supply of labor is price elastic

D.

the demand for labor is price elastic and the supply of labor is price inelastic

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Question # 56

If a firm wishes to maximize market share without incurring a loss, it should set its price where

A.

Marginal revenue is zero

B.

Marginal revenue equals marginal cost

C.

Price equals marginal revenue

D.

Total cost equals total revenue

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Question # 57

A 'supply-side' economist would recommend that in the long term, a country's unemployment problem should be tackled by

A.

A reduction in the money supply

B.

Income tax cuts to promote labor market incentives

C.

Tax cuts to expand aggregate demand

D.

Increasing the job-seekers allowance and the period for which it can be claimed

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Question # 58

Which of the following will be characteristics of the stakeholders most able to influence the management of an organization?

A.

High power, low interest

B.

High power, high interest

C.

Low power, high interest

D.

Low power, low interest

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Question # 59

All of the following are features of the process of globalization except which one?

A.

Increased flows of factors of production between economies.

B.

Higher international disparities in rates of return on capital.

C.

Increasing interdependence between economies.

D.

Higher levels of trade in components and semi-finished goods.

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Question # 60

The Phillips curve shows that the government

A.

cannot use monetary policy to reduce the level of unemployment without causing a rise in interest rates.

B.

can only use fiscal policy to reduce the rate of unemployment in the short run but not in the long run.

C.

can only use expansionary policy to reduce the level of unemployment if it is prepared to accept a higher rate of inflation.

D.

in the long run expansionary fiscal and monetary policy can only lead to higher inflation and higher unemployment.

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Question # 61

Which of the following is an invisible import for a country?

A.

Expenditure in its shops by foreign diplomats based in the country

B.

The country's contribution to foreign aid

C.

A foreign company signing a contract guaranteeing to invest in a new factory in the country

D.

Repayment of an IMF loan by the country's government

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Question # 62

A country is a net oil exporter and the demand for oil overseas is price inelastic. A substantial increase in the world price of oil would tend to

A.

Improve the country's balance of payments on current account

B.

Improve the price competitiveness of manufacturing firms in the country

C.

Cause the country's terms of trade to deteriorate

D.

Increase GDP but not GNP in the country

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Question # 63

Which of the following is most likely to lead an economy to suffer high unemployment?

A.

Withdrawals exceeding injections

B.

Aggregate demand exceeding aggregate supply

C.

Injections exceeding withdrawals

D.

A fiscal deficit

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Question # 64

All of the following are supply side policies to promote economic growth except which one?

A.

Reduction of marginal rates of income tax.

B.

Tariffs to encourage domestic suppliers of goods.

C.

Deregulation of the financial sector.

D.

Tax relief for business expenditure on research and development.

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Question # 65

A surplus on the current account of the balance of payments can be financed by

A.

An inflow of capital on the capital account.

B.

Lending abroad on the capital account.

C.

A fall in the foreign exchange reserves

D.

A surplus on the government budget.

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Question # 66

When the economy is in recession, which of the following is least likely to reduce unemployment?

A.

An expansionary fiscal policy

B.

The central bank cutting interest rates

C.

Retraining schemes for redundant workers

D.

A regulation extending employment rights for newly-hired workers

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Question # 67

If a government adopted an expansionary fiscal policy of cutting direct taxes, the businesses that would benefit most would be those whose products:

A.

Are largely bought on credit

B.

Are largely exported

C.

Have a high price elasticity of demand

D.

Are sold mainly to individual consumers

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Question # 68

Which ONE of the following would best indicate that economic growth is taking place?

An increase in:

A.

The economy's output gap

B.

Investment to make good wear and tear of the national capital stock

C.

Investment in human capital

D.

Gross domestic product sustained over a number of years

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Question # 69

In a customs union member countries

A.

Meet to agree tariff increases affecting internal trade between themselves

B.

Trade freely with each other and impose their own national restrictions on trade with the rest of the world

C.

Trade freely with each other and accept a common external tariff for trade with the rest of the world

D.

Replace national currencies with a common currency such as the Euro

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Question # 70

All of the following are elements of a supply side policy except which one?

A.

Reductions in the marginal rates of taxation.

B.

Increased entitlement to social security and unemployment benefits.

C.

Increased public expenditure on education and training.

D.

Privatization of public sector industries.

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