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156-215.81 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Question and Answers

Question # 4

The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall status of Security Gateways and Software Blades. What does the Status Attention mean?

A.

Cannot reach the Security Gateway.

B.

The gateway and all its Software Blades are working properly.

C.

At least one Software Blade has a minor issue, but the gateway works.

D.

Cannot make SIC between the Security Management Server and the Security Gateway

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Question # 5

Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

A.

Formal; corporate

B.

Local; formal

C.

Local; central

D.

Central; local

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Question # 6

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall's interfaces.

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Question # 7

Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?

A.

Eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk.

B.

Identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment.

C.

Scans the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.

D.

Automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run

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Question # 8

Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Access Control

C.

Desktop Security

D.

Threat Prevention

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Question # 9

Which of the following is a valid deployment option?

A.

CloudSec deployment

B.

Disliked deployment

C.

Router only deployment

D.

Standalone deployment

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Question # 10

Which SmartConsole application shows correlated logs and aggregated data to provide an overview of potential threats and attack patterns?

A.

SmartEvent

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartLog

D.

SmartView Monitor

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Question # 11

Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

A.

Centos Linux

B.

Gaia embedded

C.

Gaia

D.

Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 5

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Question # 12

Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Question # 13

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

A.

Location

B.

Payload

C.

Destination

D.

Identity

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Question # 14

To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

A.

Revisions

B.

Gateway installations

C.

Installation history

D.

Gateway history

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Question # 15

Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

A.

cpconfig

B.

Management Command Line

C.

SmartConsole

D.

SmartUpdate

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Question # 16

When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

A.

When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta

B.

When an interface fails the delta claims the priority

C.

When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority

D.

When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over

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Question # 17

Which Security Blade needs to be enabled in order to sanitize and remove potentially malicious content from files, before those files enter the network?

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Anti-Malware

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

Threat Extraction

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Question # 18

DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

A.

Inspection Policies

B.

Shared Policies

C.

Unified Policies

D.

Standard Policies

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Question # 19

Fill in the blanks: A Security Policy is created in_____, stored in the_____ and Distributed to the various

A.

Rule base. Security Management Server Security Gateways

B.

The Check Point database. SmartConsole, Security Gateways

C.

SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers

D.

SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways

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Question # 20

The CDT utility supports which of the following?

A.

Major version upgrades to R77.30

B.

Only Jumbo HFA’s and hotfixes

C.

Only major version upgrades to R80.10

D.

All upgrades

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Question # 21

True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

A.

False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties

B.

True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration

C.

True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server

D.

False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

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Question # 22

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

A.

Shared Secret Passwords

B.

Unique Passwords

C.

Shared User Certificates

D.

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

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Question # 23

In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?

A.

From a 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance

B.

From a 4400 Appliance to an HP Open Server

C.

From an IBM Open Server to an HP Open Server

D.

From an IBM Open Server to a 2200 Appliance

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Question # 24

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or__________.

A.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.

On specific tunnels in the community

D.

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

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Question # 25

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway

A.

Antivirus

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

NAT

D.

Application Control

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Question # 26

Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

A.

License and Update

B.

Package Repository and Licenses

C.

Update and License & Contract

D.

License & Contract and Package Repository

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Question # 27

Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________.

A.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.

Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

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Question # 28

You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

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Question # 29

An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?

A.

The administrator should drag-and-drop the needed Application objects from the Object Explorer into the new rule

B.

The "Application Control" blade should be enabled on a gateway

C.

"Applications & URL Filtering" should first be enabled on the policy layer where the rule is being created.

D.

The administrator should first create some applications to add to the rule.

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Question # 30

When should you generate new licenses?

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

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Question # 31

A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?

A.

The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.

B.

Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.

C.

The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.

D.

The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.

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Question # 32

Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

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Question # 33

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

B.

Proactively detects threats

C.

Delivers file with original content

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

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Question # 34

Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.

A.

User Center

B.

Package repository

C.

Download Center Web site

D.

License and Contract repository

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Question # 35

Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?

A.

Password

B.

Certificate

C.

Token

D.

Pre-shared secret

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Question # 36

When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?

A.

Log, send snmp trap, email

B.

Drop packet, alert, none

C.

Log, alert, none

D.

Log, allow packets, email

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Question # 37

How do you manage Gaia?

A.

Through CLI and WebUI

B.

Through CLI only

C.

Through SmartDashboard only

D.

Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

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Question # 38

How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

A.

Saved as*.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

B.

Saved as*tgz under /var/CPbackup

C.

Saved as*tar under /var/CPbackup

D.

Saved as*tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

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Question # 39

Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.

A.

Shared secret

B.

Token

C.

Username/password or Kerberos Ticket

D.

Certificate

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Question # 40

URL Filtering cannot be used to:

A.

Control Bandwidth issues

B.

Control Data Security

C.

Improve organizational security

D.

Decrease legal liability

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Question # 41

What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?

A.

Check Point INSPECT Engine

B.

Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

C.

Check Point Update Engine

D.

Check Point Upgrade Installation Service

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Question # 42

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

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Question # 43

What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

A.

Server, Username, Password, Path, Version

B.

Username, Password, Path, Version

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path

D.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

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Question # 44

What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

A.

Endpoint Security Client

B.

Full Agent

C.

Light Agent

D.

System Agent

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Question # 45

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

A.

Clish

B.

Admin

C.

Normal

D.

Expert

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Question # 46

What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

A.

inform, ask, and block

B.

block, action, and warn

C.

action, inform, and ask

D.

ask, block, and notify

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Question # 47

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

A.

SmartConsole

B.

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C.

Security Management Server

D.

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

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Question # 48

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

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Question # 49

An administrator can use section titles to more easily navigate between large rule bases. Which of these statements is FALSE?

A.

Section titles are not sent to the gateway side.

B.

These sections are simple visual divisions of the Rule Base and do not hinder the order of rule enforcement.

C.

A Sectional Title can be used to disable multiple rules by disabling only the sectional title.

D.

Sectional Titles do not need to be created in the SmartConsole.

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Question # 50

What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

A.

URL Filtering and Network

B.

Network and Threat Prevention

C.

Application Control and URL Filtering

D.

Network and Application Control

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Question # 51

Which of the following is true about Stateful Inspection?

A.

Stateful Inspection tracks state using two tables, one for incoming traffic and one for outgoing traffic

B.

Stateful Inspection looks at both the headers of packets, as well as deeply examining their content.

C.

Stateful Inspection requires that a server reply to a request, in order to track a connection's state

D.

Stateful Inspection requires two rules, one for outgoing traffic and one for incoming traffic.

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Question # 52

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

A.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

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Question # 53

Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

A.

Application Control

B.

Data Awareness

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

Threat Emulation

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Question # 54

Which of the following is NOT a valid configuration screen of an Access Role Object?

A.

Users

B.

Networks

C.

Time

D.

Machines

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Question # 55

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

A.

admin

B.

superuser

C.

monitor

D.

altuser

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Question # 56

Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select three)

A.

Partial log

B.

Log

C.

Network log

D.

Full log

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Question # 57

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management interface and default gateway are incorrect. Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

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Question # 58

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

A.

Command line interface; WebUI

B.

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

C.

WebUI; Gaia Interface

D.

GaiaUI; command line interface

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Question # 59

What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?

A.

High Performance

B.

Good Security

C.

No Screening above Network layer

D.

Transparency

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Question # 60

When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

A.

Log, Alert, None

B.

Log, Allow Packets, Email

C.

Drop Packet, Alert, None

D.

Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

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Question # 61

Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

A.

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE online upgrade

C.

CPUSE offline upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

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Question # 62

Aggressive Mode in IKEv1 uses how many packages for negotiation?

A.

6

B.

3

C.

depends on the make of the peer gateway

D.

5

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Question # 63

The SIC Status “Unknown” means

A.

There is connection between the gateway and Security Management Server but it is not trusted.

B.

The secure communication is established.

C.

There is no connection between the gateway and Security Management Server.

D.

The Security Management Server can contact the gateway, but cannot establish SIC.

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Question # 64

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

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Question # 65

A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?

A.

In the system SMEM memory pool.

B.

In State tables.

C.

In the Sessions table.

D.

In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.

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Question # 66

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

A.

Shared secret

B.

Certificate

C.

One-time password

D.

Token

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Question # 67

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ___________.

A.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

B.

UserCheck

C.

User Directory

D.

Captive Portal

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Question # 68

If an administrator wants to restrict access to a network resource only allowing certain users to access it, and only when they are on a specific network what is the best way to accomplish this?

A.

Create an inline layer where the destination is the target network resource Define sub-rules allowing only specific sources to access the target resource

B.

Use a "New Legacy User at Location", specifying the LDAP user group that the users belong to, at the desired location

C.

Create a rule allowing only specific source IP addresses access to the target network resource.

D.

Create an Access Role object, with specific users or user groups specified, and specific networks defined Use this access role as the "Source" of an Access Control rule

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Question # 69

What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

A.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

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Question # 70

Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

A.

Logs & Monitoring

B.

Smart Event

C.

Gateways & Severs Tab

D.

SmartView Monitor

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Question # 71

What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?

A.

license view

B.

fw ctl tab -t license -s

C.

show license -s

D.

cplic print

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Question # 72

Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base.

What is the possible explanation for this?

A.

DNS Rule is using one of the new feature of R80 where an administrator can mark a rule with the padlock icon to let other administrators know it is important.

B.

Another administrator is logged into the Management and currently editing the DNS Rule.

C.

DNS Rule is a placeholder rule for a rule that existed in the past but was deleted.

D.

This is normal behavior in R80 when there are duplicate rules in the Rule Base.

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Question # 73

What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?

A.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

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Question # 74

Fill in the blank: The_____is used to obtain identification and security information about network users.

A.

User index

B.

UserCheck

C.

User Directory

D.

User server

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Question # 75

Fill in the blank: Back up and restores can be accomplished through_________.

A.

SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI

B.

WebUI, CLI, or SmartUpdate

C.

CLI, SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

D.

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup, or SmartConsole

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Question # 76

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

A.

Monitoring the status of processes

B.

Sending and receiving logs

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

D.

Generating and modifying certificates

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Question # 77

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

A.

Automatic Static NAT

B.

Manual Hide NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Manual Static NAT

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Question # 78

What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

A.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

B.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

D.

IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing

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Question # 79

When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?

A.

The URL and server certificate are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

B.

The full URL, including page data, is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

C.

The host part of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

D.

The URL and IP address are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

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Question # 80

With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?

A.

The complete communication is sent for inspection.

B.

The IP address of the source machine.

C.

The end user credentials.

D.

The host portion of the URL.

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Question # 81

Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility. Which statement is true?

A.

Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT.

B.

Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.

C.

Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.

D.

Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NAT.

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Question # 82

To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

A.

a routing table

B.

awareness of the network topology

C.

a Demilitarized Zone

D.

a Security Policy install

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Question # 83

One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A.

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

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Question # 84

Which command shows the installed licenses?

A.

cplic print

B.

print cplic

C.

fwlic print

D.

show licenses

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Question # 85

Fill in the blank RADIUS protocol uses_____to communicate with the gateway

A.

UDP

B.

CCP

C.

TDP

D.

HTTP

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Question # 86

Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward. What will happen to the changes already made?

A.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear the cache, and restore changes.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom's changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom's changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

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Question # 87

Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?

A.

Management servers can acquire and share identities with Security Gateways

B.

Users can share identities with other users

C.

Security Gateways can acquire and share identities with other Security Gateways

D.

Administrators can share identifies with other administrators

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Question # 88

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

A.

Full

B.

Custom

C.

Complete

D.

Light

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Question # 89

Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

A.

Yes, but only if all connected administrators connect with read-only permissions.

B.

Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.

C.

No, only one administrator at a time can connect to a Security Management Server

D.

Yes, but only one of those administrators will have write-permissions. All others will have read-only permission.

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Question # 90

In order to modify Security Policies, the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)

A.

SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.

B.

SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

C.

Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.

D.

mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.

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Question # 91

When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate. where is the package or license stored?

A.

SmartConsole installed device

B.

Check Point user center

C.

Security Management Server

D.

Security Gateway

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Question # 92

You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A.

write mem

B.

show config -f

C.

save config -o

D.

save configuration

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Question # 93

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

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Question # 94

To provide updated malicious data signatures to all Threat Prevention blades, the Threat Prevention gateway does what with the data?

A.

Cache the data to speed up its own function.

B.

Share the data to the ThreatCloud for use by other Threat Prevention blades.

C.

Log the traffic for Administrator viewing.

D.

Delete the data to ensure an analysis of the data is done each time.

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Question # 95

You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?

A.

Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

B.

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

C.

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

D.

On the Security Management Server object, check the box “Identity Logging”

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Question # 96

What are the software components used by Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R8I.20 and higher?

A.

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, JPS, File and URL Reputation

B.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

C.

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS

D.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

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Question # 97

Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

A.

Anti-Bot

B.

None - both Anti-Virus and Anti-Bot are required for this

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

None - both URL Filtering and Anti-Virus are required for this.

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Question # 98

Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

A.

Cloud/data Center

B.

perimeter

C.

Sandbox

D.

Guest Network

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Question # 99

While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain Why does it not detect the windows domain?

A.

SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain

B.

Security Gateway is not part of the Domain

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

D.

Security Management Server is not part of the domain

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Question # 100

Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.

A.

Upper; Application

B.

First two; Internet

C.

Lower; Application

D.

First two; Transport

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Question # 101

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

A.

cat $FWDlR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

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Question # 102

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on the Check Point Security Gateway?

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

Antivirus

C.

Application Control

D.

NAT

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Question # 103

How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

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Question # 104

There are four policy types available for each policy package. What are those policy types?

A.

Access Control, Threat Prevention, Mobile Access and HTTPS Inspection

B.

Access Control, Custom Threat Prevention, Autonomous Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

C.

There are only three policy types: Access Control, Threat Prevention and NAT.

D.

Access Control, Threat Prevention, NAT and HTTPS Inspection

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Question # 105

When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

A.

Access Role

B.

User Group

C.

SmartDirectory Group

D.

Group Template

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Question # 106

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write

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Question # 107

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

A.

AD Query

B.

Browser-Based Authentication

C.

Identity Agents

D.

Terminal Servers Agent

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Question # 108

Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

A.

Internal Certificate Authority

B.

Token

C.

One-time Password

D.

Certificate

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Question # 109

Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

A.

remote access clients.

B.

a combination of computer or computer groups and networks.

C.

users and user groups.

D.

All of the above.

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Question # 110

AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole What does it mean if AdmmB sees a lock icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.

A.

Rule is locked by AdminA and will be made available if the session is published

B.

Rule is locked by AdminA because the rule is currently being edited

C.

Rule is locked by AdminA and if the session is saved, the rule will be made available

D.

Rule is locked by AdminA because the save button has not been pressed

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Question # 111

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

A.

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B.

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C.

False, Central License are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D.

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

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Question # 112

When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge Mode

D.

Targeted

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Question # 113

Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?

A.

Security Gateway and Security Management.

B.

On-premise and Public Cloud

C.

Central and Local.

D.

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

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Question # 114

Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and ___________ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

A.

SmartView Web Application

B.

SmartTracker

C.

SmartMonitor

D.

SmartReporter

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Question # 115

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

CloudGuard

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

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Question # 116

Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.

A.

AES-128

B.

AES-256

C.

DES

D.

3DES

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Question # 117

John is the administrator of a R80 Security Management server managing r R77.30 Check Point Security Gateway. John is currently updating the network objects and amending the rules using SmartConsole. To make John’s changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, what must John do?

A.

Logout of the session

B.

File > Save

C.

Install database

D.

Publish the session

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Question # 118

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

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Question # 119

Fill in the blank: The _____ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

A.

Concurrent policy packages

B.

Concurrent policies

C.

Global Policies

D.

Shared policies

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Question # 120

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

A.

SmartManager

B.

SmartConsole

C.

Security Gateway

D.

Security Management Server

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Question # 121

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now are very fast.

A.

The amount of logs being stored is less than previous versions.

B.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install.

C.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results.

D.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway.

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Question # 122

In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in the "Actions" column of a rule?

A.

"Inspect", "Bypass"

B.

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Categorize"

C.

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Block"

D.

"Detect", "Bypass"

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Question # 123

When should you generate new licenses?

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After a device upgrade.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address associated with the license changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

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